Business Intelligence Professional Certification Test
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True/False: A partnership usually issues stock to raise capital. _______
A.
False
B.
True
Correct Answer
A. False
Explanation A partnership usually does not issue stock to raise capital. Unlike corporations, partnerships do not have shareholders or issue stock as a means of raising funds. Instead, partnerships typically rely on the contributions of the partners, who invest their own capital into the business. The partners may also secure additional financing through loans or other forms of debt, but issuing stock is not a common practice in partnerships.
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2.
The ______________ is a group that is in charge of making business decisions for a corporation.
A.
Staff
B.
Board of Directors
C.
Management
D.
Proprietors
Correct Answer
B. Board of Directors
Explanation The Board of Directors is a group responsible for making important business decisions for a corporation. They are elected or appointed by the shareholders and have the authority to set corporate policies, make strategic decisions, and oversee the overall management of the company. The board members are typically experienced professionals who bring diverse skills and expertise to guide the organization towards its goals and ensure accountability to shareholders.
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3.
A type of business that moves goods from the manufacturer to the consumer.
A.
Marketer
B.
Extractor
C.
Manufacturer
D.
Wholesaler
Correct Answer
A. Marketer
4.
Which of the following is an activity performed by businesses?
A.
Generating ideas
B.
Raising capital
C.
Keeping records
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation All of the options mentioned in the question are activities performed by businesses. Generating ideas is essential for businesses to innovate and develop new products or services. Raising capital is crucial for businesses to secure funds for their operations, expansion, or investment. Keeping records is necessary for businesses to maintain financial and operational data, track performance, and comply with legal and regulatory requirements. Therefore, all three options are activities commonly performed by businesses.
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5.
The parent company of a franchise is known as:
A.
Franchisee
B.
Franchisor
C.
Manufacturer
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. Franchisor
Explanation The parent company of a franchise is known as the franchisor. The franchisor is the entity that grants the rights to operate a business under its established brand, trademarks, and business model. The franchisor provides support, training, and ongoing assistance to the franchisee, who is the individual or entity that operates the franchise. The manufacturer refers to the entity that produces or manufactures the products or goods sold by the franchise. Therefore, the correct answer is Franchisor.
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6.
A form of production that makes a product to fit the needs of individual consumers is __________.
A.
Mass Production
B.
Bulk Manufacturing
C.
Custom Manufacturing
D.
Marketing
Correct Answer
C. Custom Manufacturing
Explanation Custom manufacturing refers to a form of production that tailors products to meet the specific needs and preferences of individual consumers. Unlike mass production or bulk manufacturing, which produce standardized goods in large quantities, custom manufacturing focuses on creating unique and personalized products. This approach allows companies to offer a higher level of customization and cater to the diverse requirements of their customers. Marketing, on the other hand, is a broader concept that encompasses various activities aimed at promoting and selling products or services.
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7.
A business that takes natural resources and converts them into a consumer good is a/an__________.
A.
Extractor
B.
Manufacturer
C.
Marketer
D.
Wholesaler
Correct Answer
B. Manufacturer
Explanation A business that takes natural resources and converts them into a consumer good is referred to as a manufacturer. Manufacturers are involved in the production process, where they transform raw materials or natural resources into finished products that are ready for consumption by the end-users. They typically have facilities, equipment, and skilled labor to carry out the manufacturing process efficiently.
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8.
In this type of business, the owner is responsible for all debts. What type of business is this?
A.
Corporation
B.
Sole-Proprietorship
C.
Partnership
D.
Cooperative
Correct Answer
B. Sole-Proprietorship
Explanation A sole-proprietorship is a type of business where the owner has full responsibility for all debts. This means that the owner is personally liable for any financial obligations or debts incurred by the business. Unlike other business structures such as corporations or partnerships, there is no legal distinction between the owner and the business entity in a sole-proprietorship. Therefore, the owner's personal assets can be used to satisfy any outstanding debts or liabilities of the business.
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9.
A form of business that can have many owners and issue stock is a __________.
A.
Corporation
B.
Sole-proprietorship
C.
Partnership
D.
Cooperative
Correct Answer
A. Corporation
Explanation A corporation is a form of business that can have many owners and issue stock. In a corporation, ownership is divided into shares of stock, which can be bought and sold by individuals or entities. This allows for multiple owners to have a stake in the company and share in its profits and losses. Corporations also have the advantage of limited liability, meaning that the owners are not personally responsible for the company's debts or legal obligations.
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10.
_____________ is the taking into public ownership of private businesses.
Correct Answer Nationalisation
Explanation Nationalisation refers to the process of transferring private businesses into public ownership. This means that the government takes control and ownership of these businesses, usually in strategic sectors such as energy, transportation, or telecommunications. Nationalisation is often done to ensure that essential services are provided to the public at affordable prices, to promote economic stability, or to achieve social and political objectives. By nationalising private businesses, the government aims to have more control over the economy and to ensure that the benefits generated by these businesses are distributed more evenly among the population.
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11.
National government raises money through general _________ and ________.
Correct Answer taxation and borrowing
Explanation The national government raises money through general taxation and borrowing. Taxation is the process of collecting money from individuals and businesses based on their income, property, or goods and services they consume. This revenue is used to fund various government programs and services. Borrowing, on the other hand, involves the government taking loans from individuals, organizations, or other countries to finance its activities. This borrowed money is usually repaid with interest over a specified period of time. Both taxation and borrowing are essential sources of revenue for the national government to meet its financial obligations and provide necessary public services.
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12.
_____________________ occurs when an organisation that was previously owned and managed by the state has been sold to the private sector.
Correct Answer Privatisation
Explanation Privatisation refers to the process of transferring ownership and control of a state-owned organization to the private sector. This involves selling off the assets and operations of the organization to private individuals or companies. Privatisation is often done to improve efficiency, promote competition, and reduce government involvement in the economy. It is a common practice in many countries to privatize state-owned enterprises in sectors such as telecommunications, transportation, and energy.
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13.
The ___________ sector consists of those organisations which are owned and controlled by either local or national government.
Correct Answer public
Explanation The correct answer is "public". The public sector includes organizations that are owned and controlled by the government at either the local or national level. These organizations are funded by taxpayers and provide essential services such as healthcare, education, transportation, and public safety. They operate with the goal of serving the public interest rather than making a profit. Examples of public sector organizations include government departments, public schools, police departments, and public hospitals.
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14.
The usual cycle of objectives is ________________.
A.
What the business is trying to achieve, how it is aiming to get there, what specific actions it can take to help it get there, how it will measure its success/progress, how it will set new targets
B.
What the business is trying to achieve, how it is aiming to get there, determining whether there is enough money, what the market ratings are and how it will set new targets.
C.
What the business is trying to achieve, how it is aiming to get there, what specific actions it can take to help it get there, who to employ to do the planning, how much it will all cost.
Correct Answer
A. What the business is trying to achieve, how it is aiming to get there, what specific actions it can take to help it get there, how it will measure its success/progress, how it will set new targets
Explanation The correct answer explains the usual cycle of objectives in a business. It states that the cycle starts with determining what the business is trying to achieve and how it plans to get there. Then, it identifies specific actions that can be taken to support the objectives. It also emphasizes the importance of measuring success and progress, as well as setting new targets based on the results. This answer provides a comprehensive explanation of the different stages involved in the cycle of objectives.
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15.
The most effective business objectives meets all five (5) criterion. Indicate which grouping is correct.
A.
Specific, meaningful, agreed, rational, time specific.
B.
Special, measurable, agreed, realistic, time specific.
C.
Specific, measurable, agreed. realistic. time specific.
Correct Answer
C. Specific, measurable, agreed. realistic. time specific.
Explanation The grouping "Specific, measurable, agreed, realistic, time specific" is the correct answer. These five criteria are commonly used to evaluate the effectiveness of business objectives. Specific objectives are clear and well-defined, measurable objectives can be quantified and tracked, agreed objectives are supported by all stakeholders, realistic objectives are achievable and aligned with resources, and time-specific objectives have a clear deadline or timeframe for completion.
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16.
A mission statements tells that the business is ________________.
A.
Taking a journey to set up business elsewhere
B.
Clear about it vision and values and enables employees, managers, customers and suppliers to understand the basis for its actions.
C.
Precise about where it intends to go in the future with its products and services
Correct Answer
B. Clear about it vision and values and enables employees, managers, customers and suppliers to understand the basis for its actions.
Explanation A mission statement is a statement that clearly communicates the vision and values of a business. It serves as a guide for employees, managers, customers, and suppliers to understand the principles and beliefs that drive the business's actions. It helps create a sense of purpose and direction for the organization, ensuring that everyone involved understands the basis for its actions.
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17.
Which of the following best describes the aim of a business?
A.
It states the values which the buinsess holds.
B.
It is where the business wants to go in the future.
C.
It is the practice of hitting the mark.
Correct Answer
B. It is where the business wants to go in the future.
Explanation The aim of a business refers to its long-term goals and objectives, indicating the direction in which the business wants to move in the future. It outlines the desired destination or outcome that the business strives to achieve. This answer accurately captures the essence of the aim of a business, emphasizing the future aspirations and objectives that guide its operations.
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18.
Rules of conduct established by the government to maintain stability and justice are called __________.
A.
ethics
B.
golden rules
C.
amendments
D.
laws
Correct Answer
D. laws
Explanation Laws are rules of conduct established by the government to maintain stability and justice. They are a set of regulations that govern the behavior of individuals and organizations within a society. Laws provide a framework for resolving disputes, protecting rights, and ensuring fairness. They are enforced by the legal system and violations can result in penalties or consequences. Laws play a crucial role in maintaining order and upholding the principles of justice in a society.
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19.
A guarantee that goods are free of financial obligation, or lien, is called a ________________.
A.
Limited warranty
B.
Warranty of merchantibility
C.
Warranty of privity
D.
Warranty of title
Correct Answer
D. Warranty of title
Explanation A warranty of title is a guarantee that the goods being sold are free from any financial obligation or lien. This means that the seller has the legal right to sell the goods and that the buyer will not face any legal issues or claims from third parties regarding the ownership or title of the goods. It ensures that the buyer will have clear ownership and possession of the goods without any encumbrances.
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20.
Oral statements made before signing a written contract are not admissible as evidence under the ________________.
A.
doctrine of equitable estoppel
B.
statute of frauds
C.
parol evidence rule
D.
Written Evidence Act
Correct Answer
C. parol evidence rule
Explanation The parol evidence rule states that oral statements made before signing a written contract are not admissible as evidence. This rule is based on the principle that a written contract represents the final agreement between the parties and any prior oral statements are not relevant. The purpose of the parol evidence rule is to ensure that the terms of a written contract are clear and enforceable, without allowing parties to introduce additional or contradictory evidence. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is the parol evidence rule.
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21.
In a criminal proceeding, the government is referred to as the ________________.
A.
Defendant
B.
Offender
C.
plaintiff
D.
protagonist
Correct Answer
C. plaintiff
Explanation In a criminal proceeding, the government is referred to as the plaintiff. The plaintiff is the party that brings the case against the defendant, accusing them of committing a crime. In criminal cases, the government represents the interests of society and seeks to prove the guilt of the accused. The defendant, on the other hand, is the individual or entity being accused of the crime. Therefore, the correct answer is plaintiff.
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22.
A substitution of one contract for another is ________________.
A.
substantial performance
B.
tender of performance
C.
Satisfactory performance
D.
accord and satisfaction
Correct Answer
D. accord and satisfaction
Explanation Accord and satisfaction refers to a legal concept where one party substitutes a new contract for an existing one, thereby resolving any disputes or obligations. It involves an agreement between the parties to accept a different performance than originally promised, resulting in the fulfillment of the contractual obligations. Therefore, the given answer accurately describes the substitution of one contract for another.
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23.
Standard-form, written contracts prepared by the seller for the buyer to sign are called ________________.
A.
adjudicatory contracts
B.
adhesion contracts
C.
Executory contracts
D.
cohesive contracts
Correct Answer
B. adhesion contracts
Explanation Standard-form, written contracts prepared by the seller for the buyer to sign are called adhesion contracts. These contracts are typically non-negotiable and are presented on a take-it-or-leave-it basis. The terms and conditions are drafted by the seller, leaving the buyer with little to no bargaining power. Adhesion contracts are commonly used in consumer transactions where the seller has a stronger position and can impose their terms on the buyer.
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24.
A partnership that is formed simply by the way two or more people conduct their business is called ________________.
A.
Partnership by estoppel
B.
partnership by proof of existence
C.
apparent partnership
D.
limited partnership
Correct Answer
B. partnership by proof of existence
Explanation A partnership that is formed simply by the way two or more people conduct their business is called a partnership by proof of existence. This type of partnership is not formalized through a written agreement or registration process, but rather it is established based on the actions and behavior of the individuals involved. It may be inferred from their conduct, such as sharing profits and losses, jointly owning assets, and representing themselves as partners to others. This form of partnership can be legally binding and may have similar rights and obligations as a formal partnership.
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25.
A contract that at first appears to bind both parties, but really binds no one is ________________.
A.
Unconscionable
B.
illusory
C.
gratuitous
D.
promissory estoppel
Correct Answer
B. illusory
Explanation An illusory contract is one that appears to bind both parties, but in reality, it does not bind either party. This means that one party has the option to not fulfill their obligations without any consequences. In other words, the contract lacks mutuality and is not enforceable because it does not create any legal obligations.
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26.
Goods must be fit for ordinary purposes under the implied warranty of ________________.
A.
Merchantibility
B.
title
C.
fitness for a particular purpose
D.
privity
Correct Answer
A. Merchantibility
Explanation The implied warranty of merchantability states that goods must be fit for their ordinary purposes. This means that the goods should be of a quality that is typical and expected for that type of product. The seller is responsible for ensuring that the goods meet this standard and are suitable for their intended use. If the goods are not of merchantable quality, the buyer may have legal recourse to seek a remedy or compensation.
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27.
The doctrine stating that an employer can fire an employee at any time for any reason is known as ________________.
A.
Wrongful discharge
B.
loyment-at-will
C.
collective bargaining
D.
grievance procedure
Correct Answer
B. loyment-at-will
Explanation The correct answer is "employment-at-will". This doctrine refers to the principle that an employer has the right to terminate an employee's employment at any time and for any reason, as long as it is not illegal or in violation of any employment contract. This means that an employer does not need to provide a specific reason or cause for termination.
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28.
At the bottom level of the federal court system are the federal __________.
A.
Small claims courts
B.
district courts
C.
Municipal courts
D.
appellate courts
Correct Answer
B. district courts
Explanation At the bottom level of the federal court system are the district courts. District courts are the trial courts of the federal system, where most federal cases begin. They have jurisdiction over a wide range of cases, including civil and criminal matters. District courts are responsible for hearing evidence, making legal decisions, and issuing judgments in these cases. They are an essential part of the federal court system, playing a crucial role in the administration of justice at the federal level.
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29.
Charging more than the maximum legal interest rate is __________.
A.
Fraud
B.
Usury
C.
Extortion
D.
Price-fixing
Correct Answer
B. Usury
Explanation Usury refers to the act of charging an excessively high interest rate on a loan, often exceeding the maximum legal limit. It is considered unethical and exploitative, taking advantage of borrowers who may be in desperate need of funds. Usury is generally illegal in many jurisdictions to protect consumers from unfair lending practices.
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30.
A business that prepares departmental margin statements for two departments should have ________________.
A.
No income summary accounts
B.
One income summary accounts
C.
two income summary accounts
D.
three income summary accounts
Correct Answer
D. three income summary accounts
Explanation A business that prepares departmental margin statements for two departments should have three income summary accounts. This is because each department will have its own income summary account, and there will also be a separate income summary account for the overall business. The departmental income summary accounts are used to calculate the net income or loss for each department, while the overall income summary account is used to calculate the net income or loss for the entire business. Having three income summary accounts allows for accurate tracking and analysis of the financial performance of each department and the business as a whole.
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31.
At the end of a fiscal period, a business must show how much rent received in advance has become ________________.
A.
An expense
B.
A revenue
C.
An asset
D.
A liability
Correct Answer
B. A revenue
Explanation At the end of a fiscal period, a business must show how much rent received in advance has become a revenue. This is because rent received in advance is initially recorded as a liability, as the business has an obligation to provide the service (rent) in the future. However, as time passes and the business fulfills its obligation by providing the rented space, the rent received in advance is recognized as revenue, as the business has now earned the income from providing the service.
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32.
Recording an adjusting entry for accrued interest income is an application of the accounting concept ________________.
A.
Objective Evidence
B.
Historical Cost
C.
Consistent Reporting
D.
Matching Expenses with Revenue
Correct Answer
D. Matching Expenses with Revenue
Explanation Recording an adjusting entry for accrued interest income is an application of the accounting concept of Matching Expenses with Revenue. This concept states that expenses should be recognized in the same period as the revenue they help generate. In this case, the interest income is earned over a period of time but not yet received, so it is necessary to record an adjusting entry to recognize the revenue in the same period it is earned, ensuring that expenses and revenue are properly matched.
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33.
The amount withheld from employees' total earnings for federal income tax is determined ________________.
A.
By a percentage of total earnings
B.
from tax base tables
C.
From withholding tax tables
D.
By a percentage of total deductions
Correct Answer
C. From withholding tax tables
Explanation The correct answer is "from withholding tax tables." The amount withheld from employees' total earnings for federal income tax is determined by consulting withholding tax tables. These tables provide the specific amount or percentage of earnings that should be withheld based on factors such as the employee's filing status and the number of allowances claimed. This ensures that the correct amount of federal income tax is withheld from each employee's paycheck.
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34.
Purchases of equipment are an ________________.
A.
Operating activity and cash inflow
B.
Operating activity and cash outflow
C.
investing activity and cash inflow
D.
investing activity and cash outflow
Correct Answer
D. investing activity and cash outflow
Explanation Purchases of equipment are considered an investing activity because they involve the acquisition of long-term assets that will be used in the business for an extended period of time. Additionally, they are classified as a cash outflow because they require the use of cash or other cash equivalents to make the purchase.
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35.
If a company has a total revenue of $150,000, cost of goods sold of $59,600, and total expenses of $72,985, its gross profit is ________________.
A.
$77,315
B.
$17,415
C.
$132,585
D.
$90,400
Correct Answer
D. $90,400
Explanation The gross profit is calculated by subtracting the cost of goods sold from the total revenue. In this case, the cost of goods sold is $59,600. Therefore, the gross profit is $150,000 - $59,600 = $90,400.
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36.
The adjusting entry to record the estimated uncollectible accounts expense using the percentage of sales method is ________________.
A.
A debit to Uncollectible Accounts Expense and a credit to Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts
B.
A debit to Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts and a credit to Uncollectible Accounts Expense
C.
a debit to Uncollectible Accounts Expense and a credit to Accounts Receivable
D.
a debit to Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts and a credit to Income Summary
Correct Answer
A. A debit to Uncollectible Accounts Expense and a credit to Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts
Explanation The adjusting entry to record the estimated uncollectible accounts expense using the percentage of sales method involves debiting the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account and crediting the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts account. This is because the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account represents the estimated amount of accounts receivable that will not be collected, while the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts account represents the estimated amount of accounts receivable that will not be collected in the future. By debiting the Uncollectible Accounts Expense account, we are recognizing the expense for the period, while crediting the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts account increases the reserve for uncollectible accounts.
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37.
Which accounting concept is applied when it is stated that the earnings of a business must be satisfactory to continue operations?
A.
Adequate Disclosure
B.
Consistent Reporting
C.
Going Concern
D.
Materiality
Correct Answer
C. Going Concern
Explanation The concept of Going Concern is applied when it is stated that the earnings of a business must be satisfactory to continue operations. This concept assumes that the business will continue to operate indefinitely and will be able to meet its obligations and commitments. It implies that the financial statements are prepared under the assumption that the business will not be liquidated or forced to cease operations in the near future. Therefore, the earnings of the business are crucial for its survival and ongoing operations.
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38.
In the entry to journalize the employer payroll taxes expense for a semimonthly period, the account debited would be the ________________ account.
A.
Salary Expense
B.
Payroll Taxes Expense
C.
Unemployment Tax Payable-Federal
D.
Cash
Correct Answer
B. Payroll Taxes Expense
Explanation The correct answer is Payroll Taxes Expense. When journalizing the employer payroll taxes expense for a semimonthly period, the account that would be debited is the Payroll Taxes Expense account. This account is used to record the expenses incurred by the employer for payroll taxes, such as Social Security tax, Medicare tax, and federal and state unemployment taxes. By debiting the Payroll Taxes Expense account, it reflects the increase in the expense for these taxes during the semimonthly period.
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39.
In the check register, the Bank Balance column indicates the ________________.
A.
Balance of cash in the checking account
B.
amount of the last credit to Cash
C.
amount of the last deposit to the checking account
D.
bank balance for reconciling the bank statement
Correct Answer
A. Balance of cash in the checking account
Explanation The Bank Balance column in the check register indicates the balance of cash in the checking account. This column keeps track of the total amount of money available in the checking account, including any deposits made and any checks that have been deducted from the account. It is an essential feature of the check register as it helps individuals or businesses keep track of their available funds and manage their finances effectively.
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40.
The sales returns and allowances account is known as a ________________.
A.
Contra cost account
B.
Contra revenue account
C.
Contra sales discount account
D.
Departmental cost account
Correct Answer
B. Contra revenue account
Explanation The sales returns and allowances account is known as a contra revenue account because it is used to record the reduction in revenue due to returned merchandise or allowances granted to customers. This account is subtracted from the sales revenue account in the income statement to calculate the net sales. Contra accounts have opposite balances to the main accounts they are associated with, and in this case, the contra revenue account has a debit balance while sales revenue has a credit balance.
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41.
In estimating inventory using the retail method, the estimated inventory at cost equals the inventory at retail times a percentage that is determined by dividing the ________________.
A.
Net purchases at cost by the net purchases at retail
B.
Merchandise available for sale at cost by the merchandise available for sale at retail
C.
net sales at cost by the net sales at retail
D.
beginning inventory at cost by the beginning inventory at retail
Correct Answer
B. Merchandise available for sale at cost by the merchandise available for sale at retail
Explanation The estimated inventory at cost equals the inventory at retail times a percentage that is determined by dividing the merchandise available for sale at cost by the merchandise available for sale at retail. This calculation allows for an estimation of the inventory value based on the ratio of cost to retail price. By dividing the cost of the merchandise available for sale by the retail price of the merchandise available for sale, we can determine the percentage that represents the cost component of the inventory. Multiplying this percentage by the inventory at retail gives us the estimated inventory at cost.
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42.
If the departmental margins are 30% of net sales, the company's net income for the fiscal period will normally be ________________.
A.
30% of net sales
B.
More than 30% of net sales
C.
Less than 30% of net sales
D.
Greater than the cost of merchandise sold
Correct Answer
C. Less than 30% of net sales
Explanation If the departmental margins are 30% of net sales, it means that the company's profit from each sale is 30% of the total sales. Therefore, the net income for the fiscal period will be less than 30% of net sales because there are other expenses and costs that need to be deducted from the total sales to calculate the net income.
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43.
If the principal of a 90-day note is $5,000.00 and the interest due at maturity is $125.00, the interest rate on the note is ________________.
A.
9.0%
B.
9.5%
C.
10.0%
D.
12.0%
Correct Answer
C. 10.0%
Explanation The interest rate on the note can be calculated by dividing the interest due at maturity ($125.00) by the principal of the note ($5,000.00) and then multiplying by 100 to convert it to a percentage. Therefore, the interest rate on the note is 2.5%.
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44.
If the cost of ending merchandise inventory is understated, the cost of merchandise sold will be ________________.
A.
understated
B.
overstated
C.
not affected
D.
Undetermined
Correct Answer
B. overstated
Explanation If the cost of ending merchandise inventory is understated, it means that the actual value of the inventory is higher than what is recorded. This would result in a lower cost of goods sold calculation, as the cost of the inventory is not accurately reflected. Therefore, the cost of merchandise sold would be overstated, as it would appear to be higher than it actually is.
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45.
Recording uncollectible accounts expense at the time the amount is actually known to be uncollectible is known as the ________________.
A.
Adjusting method of recording losses from uncollectible accounts
B.
allowance method of recording losses from uncollectible accounts
C.
bad debts method of recording losses from uncollectible accounts
D.
Direct write-off method of recording losses from uncollectible accounts
Correct Answer
C. bad debts method of recording losses from uncollectible accounts
Explanation The bad debts method of recording losses from uncollectible accounts refers to the practice of recording the expense for accounts that are known to be uncollectible at the time when this information becomes available. This method involves estimating the amount of uncollectible accounts and creating an allowance for doubtful accounts. It is a more accurate and conservative approach compared to the direct write-off method, which only records the expense when the specific account is deemed uncollectible.
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46.
When an account that has been written off using the direct write-off method is collected, the revenue account used is ________________.
A.
Allowance of Uncollectible Accounts
B.
Collection of Uncollectible Accounts
C.
Resales
D.
Uncollectible Accounts Revenue
Correct Answer
B. Collection of Uncollectible Accounts
Explanation When an account that has been written off using the direct write-off method is collected, the revenue account used is "Collection of Uncollectible Accounts". This is because the direct write-off method recognizes bad debts as an expense when they become uncollectible. However, if a previously written-off account is later collected, it is considered a recovery of a bad debt and should be recorded as revenue. Therefore, the revenue account used in this case is "Collection of Uncollectible Accounts".
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47.
Responsibility accounting traces revenues, costs, and expenses to ________________.
A.
The accounting department
B.
Each employee
C.
The income statement
D.
Individual managers who are responsible for making decisions about those revenues, costs, and expenses
Correct Answer
D. Individual managers who are responsible for making decisions about those revenues, costs, and expenses
Explanation Responsibility accounting is a system that assigns responsibility for specific revenues, costs, and expenses to individual managers. This allows for better control and accountability within an organization as managers are held responsible for the decisions they make regarding these financial aspects. By tracing revenues, costs, and expenses to individual managers, responsibility accounting ensures that each manager can be evaluated based on their performance and decision-making abilities. This helps in identifying areas of improvement and rewarding managers who contribute positively to the organization's financial performance.
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48.
When a special payroll account is used, the balance after all payroll checks have been cashed is ________________.
A.
Zero
B.
The amount of payroll taxes due
C.
the total amount of deductions
D.
cannot be determined from the information given
Correct Answer
A. Zero
Explanation When a special payroll account is used, the balance after all payroll checks have been cashed is zero. This means that all the funds allocated for payroll have been disbursed and there is no remaining balance in the account.
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49.
Which of the following does not require an entry on the company's books?
A.
Sales of preferred stock
B.
sales of common stock
C.
Sales of stock by one investor to another investor
D.
Declaration of dividends
Correct Answer
C. Sales of stock by one investor to another investor
Explanation Sales of stock by one investor to another investor does not require an entry on the company's books because it is simply a transfer of ownership between two individual investors. The company is not directly involved in this transaction and therefore does not need to record it on their books.
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50.
All corporations issue ________________.
A.
Preferred stock
B.
par value stock
C.
Common stock
D.
no-par value stock
Correct Answer
C. Common stock
Explanation Common stock is a type of security that represents ownership in a corporation. It is the most common form of stock issued by corporations. Common stockholders have voting rights and may receive dividends, but their claims on the company's assets and earnings are subordinate to those of preferred stockholders and bondholders. Preferred stock, par value stock, and no-par value stock are all different types of stock that corporations may issue, but the question specifically asks for the type of stock that all corporations issue, which is common stock.
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