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Ctstravis
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1. QUESTION NO: 30
End users are complaining about receiving a lot of email from online vendors and pharmacies. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

The given scenario describes a situation where end users are receiving a large volume of unwanted email from online vendors and pharmacies. This is a classic example of spam. Spam refers to unsolicited and often irrelevant or inappropriate messages sent in bulk to a large number of recipients. In this case, the emails are not requested by the users and are likely causing inconvenience and annoyance.

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About This Quiz
SEC+ Study Guide Quizzes & Trivia

This Sec+ study guide quiz assesses knowledge in network security, focusing on confidentiality protocols, steganography, TCP\/IP hijacking, backup integrity, network topology, and penetration testing. It is essential for learners preparing for the CompTIA Security+ certification.

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2. QUESTION NO: 88
Which of the following is an attack that is triggered by a specific event or by a date?

Explanation

A logic bomb is a type of attack that is triggered by a specific event or by a date. It is a malicious code that is intentionally inserted into a computer system and remains dormant until a specific condition is met. Once triggered, it can perform various malicious actions such as deleting files, corrupting data, or disrupting the normal functioning of the system. Unlike other attacks like spam, rootkit, or privilege escalation, a logic bomb is specifically designed to be activated based on a predetermined event or date.

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3. QUESTION NO: 67 Which of the following attacks can be caused by a user being unaware of their physical surroundings?

Explanation

Shoulder surfing is the correct answer because it refers to the act of someone observing or eavesdropping on another person's sensitive information, such as passwords or PIN numbers, by looking over their shoulder or being in close proximity to them. This type of attack can be caused by a user being unaware of their physical surroundings and not taking precautions to protect their information from prying eyes.

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4. QUESTION NO: 80
A malware incident has just been detected within a company. Which of the following should be the administrators FIRST response?

Explanation

The administrator's first response should be containment. Containment involves isolating the infected systems or network to prevent further spread of the malware. This is crucial in order to minimize the impact and damage caused by the malware. Once the malware is contained, the administrator can then proceed with removal, recovery, and monitoring to fully address the incident.

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5. QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following is commonly used in a distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack?

Explanation

A botnet is commonly used in a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack. A botnet is a network of compromised computers or devices that are controlled by a single attacker. In a DDoS attack, the attacker uses the botnet to flood a target server or network with a massive amount of traffic, overwhelming its resources and causing it to become unavailable to legitimate users. By using a botnet, the attacker can amplify the impact of the attack and make it more difficult to mitigate.

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6. QUESTION NO: 43
Which of the following access control methods grants permissions based on the users position in the company?

Explanation

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is an access control method that grants permissions based on the users' position in the company. In RBAC, access rights are assigned to roles, and users are then assigned to those roles based on their position or responsibilities within the organization. This allows for a more structured and efficient way of managing access permissions, as it aligns with the organization's hierarchical structure. With RBAC, permissions can be easily managed and updated by simply modifying the roles assigned to users, rather than individually assigning permissions to each user.

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7. QUESTION NO: 23
An administrator is trying to secure a network from threats originating outside the network. Which of the following devices provides protection for the DMZ from attacks launched from the Internet?

Explanation

A firewall is a device that acts as a barrier between a private internal network and the public Internet. It monitors incoming and outgoing network traffic and allows or blocks specific traffic based on predetermined security rules. In the context of securing a network from threats originating outside the network, a firewall is the most appropriate device. It can prevent unauthorized access to the DMZ (Demilitarized Zone), which is a network segment that separates the internal network from the Internet. By filtering and controlling the traffic, a firewall helps protect the DMZ from attacks launched from the Internet.

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8. QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following access control methods includes switching work assignments at preset intervals?

Explanation

Job rotation is a method of access control that involves switching work assignments at preset intervals. This approach helps to minimize the risk of fraud or unauthorized activities by ensuring that no single individual has continuous access to sensitive information or critical tasks. By periodically rotating employees to different roles or departments, organizations can reduce the likelihood of collusion, increase accountability, and detect any irregularities or misconduct. Job rotation also provides employees with opportunities for skill development, cross-training, and a broader understanding of the organization's operations.

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9. QUESTION NO: 84
Which of the following type of strategies can be applied to allow a user to enter their username and password once in order to authenticate to multiple systems and applications?

Explanation

Single sign-on is a type of strategy that allows a user to enter their username and password once in order to authenticate to multiple systems and applications. This eliminates the need for the user to remember and enter multiple sets of credentials, improving convenience and user experience. With single sign-on, the user's authentication is validated once and then they are granted access to all authorized systems and applications without needing to re-enter their credentials. This helps to streamline the authentication process and enhance security by reducing the risk of password fatigue and potential password reuse.

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10. QUESTION NO: 87
Which of the following methods is used to perform denial of service (DoS) attacks?

Explanation

A botnet is a network of computers that have been infected with malware and are under the control of a malicious actor. These infected computers, also known as "bots," can be used to perform denial of service (DoS) attacks. In a DoS attack, the botnet is used to flood a target website or network with an overwhelming amount of traffic, causing it to become inaccessible to legitimate users. This method can effectively disrupt the targeted system and prevent it from functioning properly.

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11. QUESTION NO: 91
Which of the following is a security threat when a new network device is configured for first-time installation?

Explanation

When a new network device is configured for first-time installation, using default passwords can pose a security threat. Default passwords are often well-known and easily accessible, making it easier for attackers to gain unauthorized access to the device. By using default passwords, the device becomes vulnerable to unauthorized configuration changes, unauthorized access to sensitive information, and potential exploitation of other security vulnerabilities. It is crucial to change default passwords to unique and strong ones to enhance the security of the network device.

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12. QUESTION NO: 49
Which of the following is a publication of inactivated user certificates?

Explanation

A certificate revocation list is a publication of inactivated user certificates. It is a list that contains the serial numbers of certificates that have been revoked by the certificate authority. This list is used to inform users and systems that a particular certificate is no longer valid and should not be trusted. By checking the certificate revocation list, users can ensure that they are not relying on a compromised or revoked certificate for secure communication.

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13. QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following ensures a user cannot deny having sent a message?

Explanation

Non-repudiation ensures that a user cannot deny having sent a message. This means that the sender's identity is verified and authenticated, and there is evidence to prove that the message was indeed sent by that user. Non-repudiation is important in situations where legal or financial accountability is necessary, as it prevents users from falsely denying their actions or responsibilities.

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14. QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following risks would be reduced by implementing screen filters?

Explanation

Implementing screen filters would reduce the risk of shoulder surfing. Shoulder surfing is a form of visual eavesdropping where an attacker tries to steal sensitive information by looking over the victim's shoulder. By using screen filters, the visibility of the screen is limited to the person directly in front of it, making it difficult for shoulder surfers to see the information being displayed. This helps protect against unauthorized individuals gaining access to sensitive information by visually spying on the victim.

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15. QUESTION NO: 97
Password crackers are generally used by malicious attackers to:

Explanation

Password crackers are tools used by malicious attackers to gain unauthorized access to a system. These attackers exploit weaknesses in passwords by using various techniques such as brute-force attacks, dictionary attacks, or rainbow table attacks. Once they gain system access, they can potentially steal sensitive information, install malware, or cause other malicious activities.

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16. QUESTION NO: 39
Which of the following logical access controls would be MOST appropriate to use when creating an account for a temporary worker?

Explanation

Account expiration would be the most appropriate logical access control to use when creating an account for a temporary worker. This control allows the account to automatically expire after a set period of time, ensuring that the temporary worker's access is limited to the duration of their employment. This helps to mitigate the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of the account after the worker's assignment is completed.

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17. QUESTION NO: 86
Which of the following threats is the MOST difficult to detect and hides itself from the operating system?

Explanation

A rootkit is the most difficult threat to detect and hides itself from the operating system. Rootkits are malicious software that gain unauthorized access to a computer system and are designed to conceal their presence and activities. They often modify system files and processes, making it challenging for antivirus software or other security measures to detect them. Rootkits are typically used by attackers to gain control over a system and remain undetected, allowing them to carry out various malicious activities such as stealing sensitive information, launching further attacks, or maintaining persistent access to the compromised system.

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18. QUESTION NO: 4 How should a company test the integrity of its backup data?

Explanation

To test the integrity of its backup data, a company should restore part of the backup. This involves actually retrieving and accessing the data from the backup to ensure that it is complete and can be successfully restored. This test helps to verify that the backup system is functioning properly and that the data can be recovered in the event of a disaster or data loss. Conducting another backup, using software to recover deleted files, and reviewing written procedures are all important steps in data backup and recovery, but they do not specifically test the integrity of the backup data.

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19. QUESTION NO: 53
Which of the following will propagate itself without any user interaction?

Explanation

A worm is a type of malware that can replicate and spread itself across a network without any user interaction. Unlike viruses, which require a host file or program to attach themselves to, worms are standalone programs that can self-propagate and spread from one computer to another. This makes worms particularly dangerous as they can quickly infect multiple systems and cause widespread damage.

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20. QUESTION NO: 83   Which of the following principles should be applied when assigning permissions?

Explanation

The principle of least privilege should be applied when assigning permissions. This means that individuals should only be given the minimum level of access necessary to perform their job duties. By limiting access to only what is required, the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of privileges is minimized. This principle helps to ensure that individuals only have access to the resources and information that they need, reducing the potential for security breaches or data leaks.

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21. QUESTION NO: 5
Which of following can BEST be used to determine the topology of a network and discover unknown devices?

Explanation

A networkmapper is the best tool to determine the topology of a network and discover unknown devices. A networkmapper is specifically designed to scan and map a network, providing information about the devices connected to it and their relationships. It can detect devices that may not be visible through other means, such as firewalls or network monitoring tools. By analyzing the network's structure and connections, a networkmapper can provide valuable insights into the network's topology and help identify any unknown or unauthorized devices.

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22. QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is a reason why a company should disable the SSID broadcast of the wireless access points?

Explanation

Disabling the SSID broadcast of wireless access points is a recommended security measure to prevent war driving. War driving is the act of searching for and mapping out wireless networks by driving around with a wireless device. By disabling the SSID broadcast, the company can make their wireless network less visible and harder to detect, thereby reducing the risk of unauthorized access.

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23. QUESTION NO: 13
Which of the following is the main objective of steganography?

Explanation

The main objective of steganography is to hide information. Steganography is the practice of concealing messages or information within other non-secret data in order to prevent detection. This can be done by embedding the hidden information within digital images, audio files, or other types of media. The purpose of steganography is to ensure that the hidden information remains confidential and is only accessible to the intended recipient, while appearing as innocent or unimportant to anyone else who may come across it.

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24. QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following practices is MOST relevant to protecting against operating system security flaws?

Explanation

Patch management is the most relevant practice for protecting against operating system security flaws. Patch management involves regularly updating and applying patches and updates to the operating system. These patches often include security fixes that address known vulnerabilities and weaknesses in the system. By keeping the operating system up to date with the latest patches, organizations can mitigate the risk of exploitation by attackers and ensure that their systems are secure against known security flaws.

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25. QUESTION NO: 82
Which of the following describes the process of securely removing information from media (E. g. hard drive) for future use?

Explanation

Sanitization refers to the process of securely removing information from media, such as a hard drive, to ensure that it cannot be recovered or accessed in the future. This process involves permanently erasing data and making it unrecoverable, typically through methods such as overwriting the data with random patterns or using specialized software. Sanitization is important for protecting sensitive information and ensuring that it does not fall into the wrong hands.

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26. QUESTION NO: 18
How many keys are utilized with asymmetric cryptography?

Explanation

Asymmetric cryptography, also known as public-key cryptography, uses two different keys: a public key and a private key. The public key is used to encrypt data and can be shared with others, while the private key is kept secret and used to decrypt the encrypted data. This two-key system ensures secure communication and authentication between parties. Therefore, the correct answer is "Two".

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27. QUESTION NO: 19
During a risk assessment it is discovered that only one system administrator is assigned several tasks critical to continuity of operations. It is recommended to cross train other system administrators to perform these tasks and mitigate which of the following risks?

Explanation

The risk being mitigated by cross training other system administrators is the risk of a single point of failure. By having only one system administrator responsible for critical tasks, if that person is unavailable or leaves the organization, there would be no one else capable of performing those tasks. Cross training other system administrators ensures that there are multiple individuals who can step in and maintain continuity of operations, reducing the risk of a single point of failure.

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28. QUESTION NO: 99
Which of the following should a technician review when a user is moved from one department to another?

Explanation

When a user is moved from one department to another, a technician should review the user's access and rights. This is important to ensure that the user has the appropriate access to resources and systems in their new department and that their previous access is revoked if necessary. By reviewing and adjusting user access and rights, the technician can help maintain security and ensure that the user can perform their new job responsibilities effectively.

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29. QUESTION NO: 63 Which of the following can be used as a means for dual-factor authentication?

Explanation

Iris scan and proximity card can be used as a means for dual-factor authentication. Dual-factor authentication requires the use of two different factors to verify the identity of a user. In this case, the iris scan serves as a biometric factor, as it uses the unique characteristics of a person's iris to verify their identity. The proximity card serves as a possession factor, as it is a physical card that the user possesses and must present in order to authenticate. By combining these two factors, the system can provide a higher level of security and ensure that only authorized individuals can access the system or facility.

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30. QUESTION NO: 66 If a user attempts to go to a website and notices the URL has changed, which of the following attacks is MOST likely the cause?

Explanation

If a user attempts to go to a website and notices that the URL has changed, the most likely cause is DNS poisoning. DNS poisoning is an attack where the attacker corrupts the DNS cache of a computer or network, redirecting the user to a malicious website by altering the IP address associated with the domain name. This can lead to the user unknowingly visiting a fraudulent website that may steal their personal information or perform other malicious activities.

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31. QUESTION NO: 52
Which of the following allows an attacker to hide the presence of malicious code by altering the systems process and registry entries?

Explanation

A rootkit is a type of malicious software that allows an attacker to hide the presence of malicious code by altering the systems process and registry entries. It is designed to gain unauthorized access to a computer system while remaining undetected. Rootkits are often used by attackers to maintain control over a compromised system, allowing them to execute malicious actions without being detected by security measures or antivirus software. This makes rootkits a powerful tool for attackers to hide their activities and maintain persistent access to a compromised system.

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32. QUESTION NO: 29
Which of the following should be implemented to have all workstations and servers isolated in their own broadcast domains?

Explanation

To have all workstations and servers isolated in their own broadcast domains, VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) should be implemented. VLANs allow for the creation of separate broadcast domains within a single physical network infrastructure. By dividing the network into different VLANs, each with its own unique broadcast domain, communication and traffic can be isolated and restricted between different VLANs, ensuring better network performance, security, and management. NAT (Network Address Translation) is used to translate private IP addresses to public IP addresses, access lists are used for filtering network traffic, and an intranet is a private network accessible only to an organization's members.

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33.                     QUESTION NO: 54
An administrator wants to setup their network with only one public IP address. Which of the following would allow for this?

Explanation

NAT (Network Address Translation) allows for the translation of private IP addresses to a single public IP address. This means that multiple devices on the network can share the same public IP address, allowing for the conservation of public IP addresses. NAT also provides a level of security by hiding the internal IP addresses from the public network.

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34. QUESTION NO: 56
Which of the following allows a technician to correct a specific issue with a solution that has not been fully tested?

Explanation

A hotfix is a software update that is released to address a specific issue or bug in a program. It is typically developed and released quickly to provide a solution to the problem before a more comprehensive solution, such as a patch or service pack, can be fully tested and released. Hotfixes are often used to address critical issues that are causing significant problems for users, allowing technicians to correct the specific issue without waiting for a more extensive solution.

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35. QUESTION NO: 93
A technician is implementing a new wireless network for an organization. The technician should be concerned with all of the following wireless vulnerabilities EXCEPT:

Explanation

The technician should be concerned with all of the mentioned wireless vulnerabilities except for 80211 mode. Rogue access points refer to unauthorized access points that can be used to gain unauthorized access to the network. Weak encryption refers to the use of easily crackable encryption algorithms, which can compromise the security of the wireless network. SSID broadcasts refer to the broadcasting of the network name, which can be used by attackers to gain information about the network. However, 80211 mode is not a vulnerability but rather a standard that defines the specifications for wireless networks.

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36. QUESTION NO: 21
Which of the following is a single server that is setup in the DMZ or outer perimeter in order to distract attackers?

Explanation

A honeypot is a single server that is intentionally set up in the DMZ or outer perimeter of a network to attract and distract attackers. It is designed to look like a legitimate target and contains fake or decoy data, systems, or services. The purpose of a honeypot is to gather information about the tactics, techniques, and tools used by attackers, as well as to divert their attention away from the actual valuable assets of the network.

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37. QUESTION NO: 57
A technician wants to regulate and deny traffic to websites that contain information on hacking. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to deploy?

Explanation

The best solution to regulate and deny traffic to websites containing information on hacking would be to deploy an internet content filter. An internet content filter is specifically designed to block access to certain websites or types of content based on predefined rules. It allows the technician to create a blacklist of websites related to hacking and prevent users from accessing them. This solution provides a more targeted approach to filtering internet traffic compared to the other options listed.

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38. QUESTION NO: 71
Which of the following would be MOST useful to determine why packets from a computer outside the network are being dropped on the way to a computer inside the network?

Explanation

The firewall log would be the most useful in determining why packets from a computer outside the network are being dropped on the way to a computer inside the network. The firewall log contains information about the actions taken by the firewall, such as allowing or blocking certain packets. By analyzing the firewall log, one can identify any rules or configurations that may be causing the packets to be dropped. It can provide insights into the network traffic and help troubleshoot any issues related to packet dropping.

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39. QUESTION NO: 96
After issuance a technician becomes aware that some keys were issued to individuals who are not authorized to use them. Which of the following should the technician use to correct this problem?

Explanation

The technician should use a Certificate Revocation List (CRL) to correct the problem of unauthorized individuals having issued keys. A CRL is a list of digital certificates that have been revoked by the issuing Certificate Authority (CA) before their expiration date. By checking the CRL, the technician can identify and invalidate the certificates of unauthorized users, preventing them from using the keys. This helps to maintain the security and integrity of the system.

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40. QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following would an attacker use to footprint a system?

Explanation

An attacker would use a port scanner to footprint a system. A port scanner is a tool that scans a target system for open ports, allowing the attacker to identify potential vulnerabilities and services running on the system. By scanning the ports, the attacker can gather information about the system's network configuration and potentially exploit any weaknesses found. This information can be used to plan further attacks or gain unauthorized access to the system.

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41. QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following is a method of encrypting email?

Explanation

S/MIME is a method of encrypting email. S/MIME stands for Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions and it is a widely used protocol for securing email communications. It provides end-to-end encryption, digital signatures, and message integrity checks. S/MIME uses public key cryptography to encrypt and decrypt email messages, ensuring that only the intended recipient can read the message. It also allows for the verification of the sender's identity through the use of digital certificates. SMTP, L2TP, and VPN are not methods of encrypting email.

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42. QUESTION NO: 11
Which of the following would be BEST to use to apply corporate security settings to a device?

Explanation

A security template would be the best option to apply corporate security settings to a device. A security template is a predefined configuration file that contains security settings for various aspects of the operating system and applications. It allows administrators to easily apply consistent security settings across multiple devices, ensuring compliance with corporate security policies. Security patches, security hotfixes, and OS service packs are typically used to address specific vulnerabilities or fix bugs, rather than applying comprehensive security settings.

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43. QUESTION NO: 31
Which of the following BEST describes a private key in regards to asymmetric encryption?

Explanation

A private key in regards to asymmetric encryption is a key that is exclusively owned and accessible by the key owner. It is not accessible to anyone else, including the certificate authority (CA) or recipients of encrypted emails. The private key is used for decrypting data that has been encrypted using the corresponding public key.

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44. QUESTION NO: 2 Which of the following allows an attacker to manipulate files by using the least significant bit(s) to secretly embed data?

Explanation

Steganography is a technique that allows an attacker to hide data within files by using the least significant bit(s) of the file. This means that the attacker can manipulate the files in such a way that the changes are not easily detectable by the naked eye. By embedding data in this manner, the attacker can secretly transmit information without arousing suspicion. Unlike worms, Trojan horses, and viruses, which are all malicious software, steganography is a method used to hide data rather than directly causing harm to a system.

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45. QUESTION NO: 27
A programmer has decided to alter the server variable in the coding of an authentication function for a proprietary sales application. Before implementing the new routine on the production application server, which of the following processes should be followed?

Explanation

Change management should be followed before implementing the new routine on the production application server. Change management is a process that ensures any changes made to an IT system, such as altering the server variable in this case, are properly planned, tested, approved, and documented. This process helps to minimize the risk of introducing errors or disruptions to the system and ensures that changes are implemented in a controlled and organized manner. By following change management, the programmer can ensure that the alteration to the server variable is properly reviewed, approved, and implemented in a way that aligns with the organization's policies and procedures.

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46. QUESTION NO: 28
When deploying 50 new workstations on the network, which of following should be completed FIRST?

Explanation

The first step when deploying new workstations on the network should be to apply the baseline configuration. This ensures that all workstations have a consistent and standardized setup, including settings, software, and security measures. By applying the baseline configuration first, it establishes a solid foundation for the deployment of the workstations and ensures that they are ready for further tasks such as installing a word processor, running spyware, and running OS updates.

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47. QUESTION NO: 90
Which of the following is a way to logically separate a network through a switch?

Explanation

VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a way to logically separate a network through a switch. It allows for the creation of multiple virtual networks within a single physical network, enabling different groups of devices to communicate with each other as if they were on separate physical networks. This separation provides enhanced security and flexibility, as well as improved network performance by reducing broadcast traffic. VLANs can be configured based on various criteria such as port, MAC address, or protocol, allowing for efficient network management and organization.

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48. QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following improves security in a wireless system?

Explanation

MAC filtering improves security in a wireless system by allowing or denying access to the network based on the MAC address of the device. This prevents unauthorized devices from connecting to the network, as only devices with approved MAC addresses are allowed access.

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49. QUESTION NO: 48
Which of the following allows an attacker to embed a rootkit into a picture?

Explanation

Steganography is the technique of hiding information within another file or medium, such as embedding data within a picture. In this case, an attacker can use steganography to hide a rootkit within a picture, making it difficult to detect. A rootkit is a malicious software that provides unauthorized access to a computer system, allowing the attacker to control it remotely. By using steganography, the attacker can hide the rootkit within the picture file, making it appear harmless while still gaining control over the targeted system.

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50. QUESTION NO: 79
Which of the following is an example of security personnel that administer access control functions, but do not administer audit functions?

Explanation

Separation of duties refers to the practice of dividing responsibilities among different individuals to prevent fraud and ensure accountability. In the context of security personnel, this means that some personnel are responsible for administering access control functions, such as granting or revoking access to systems or resources, while others are responsible for administering audit functions, such as monitoring and reviewing access logs and conducting security audits. Therefore, separation of duties is an example of security personnel who administer access control functions but do not administer audit functions.

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51. QUESTION NO: 98
Which of the following properly describes penetration testing?

Explanation

Penetration testing is a method used to identify vulnerabilities in a system by simulating an attack. It involves actively testing the system's security measures to determine if there are any weaknesses that could be exploited by an attacker. The purpose of penetration testing is to demonstrate these weaknesses and then provide documentation on them, allowing the organization to understand and address the vulnerabilities before they can be exploited by malicious actors.

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52. QUESTION NO: 3 Which of the following type of attacks would allow an attacker to capture HTTP requests and send back a spoofed page?  

Explanation

TCP/IP hijacking is a type of attack where an attacker intercepts and manipulates TCP/IP packets to gain unauthorized access to a network. In this scenario, the attacker can capture HTTP requests and send back a spoofed page to the victim. This allows the attacker to deceive the victim into believing that they are interacting with a legitimate website or service, leading to potential data theft or other malicious activities.

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53. QUESTION NO: 69
Which of the following redundancy solutions contains hardware systems similar to the affected organization, but does not provide live data?

Explanation

A warm site is a redundancy solution that contains hardware systems similar to the affected organization, but does not provide live data. It is a backup facility that is partially equipped with hardware and infrastructure, but it does not have real-time data replication or synchronization. In the event of a disaster, the warm site can be quickly activated and the data can be restored from backups to resume operations. This solution offers a balance between cost and recovery time, as it provides a faster recovery compared to a cold site, but does not have the immediate availability of live data like a hot site.

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54. QUESTION NO: 7
An administrator has implemented a new SMTP service on a server. A public IP address translates to the internal SMTP server. The administrator notices many sessions to the server, and gets notification that the servers public IP address is now reported in a spam real-time block list.Which of the following is wrong with the server?

Explanation

The correct answer is "SMTP open relaying is enabled". This means that the server is allowing anyone to use it as a relay to send emails, which can be exploited by spammers to send spam emails. This is why the server's public IP address is reported in a spam real-time block list.

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55. QUESTION NO: 40
Which of the following may be an indication of a possible system compromise?

Explanation

A recent and ongoing drop in speed, disk space or memory utilization from the baseline can be an indication of a possible system compromise. This could be caused by malware or unauthorized processes running on the system, which can consume resources and slow down the system's performance. It is important to investigate and address this issue promptly to prevent further compromise and potential damage to the system.

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56. QUESTION NO: 58 Which of the following is the LEAST intrusive way of checking the environment for known software flaws?   Which of the following is the LEAST intrusive way of checking the environment for known software   flaws?

Explanation

A vulnerability scanner is the least intrusive way of checking the environment for known software flaws. Unlike a protocol analyzer, which captures and analyzes network traffic, a vulnerability scanner specifically scans for vulnerabilities in software and systems. It does not actively interact with the environment like a penetration test, which attempts to exploit vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access. Similarly, a port scanner focuses on scanning for open ports on a network, rather than identifying software flaws. Therefore, a vulnerability scanner is the least intrusive option for checking known software flaws.

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57. QUESTION NO: 59
If a certificate has been compromised, which of the following should be done?

Explanation

When a certificate has been compromised, the appropriate action to take is to put the certificate on the Certificate Revocation List (CRL). This is a list of certificates that have been revoked and should no longer be trusted. By adding the compromised certificate to the CRL, it ensures that any systems or entities relying on the certificate will be notified and can take appropriate action to stop trusting it. This helps to maintain the security and integrity of the system.

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58. QUESTION NO: 41
An administrator suspects that files are being copied to a remote location during off hours. The file server does not have logging enabled. Which of the following logs would be the BEST place to look for information?

Explanation

Firewall logs would be the best place to look for information in this scenario because they record all incoming and outgoing network traffic. By analyzing the firewall logs, the administrator can determine if any files were transferred to a remote location during off hours. The logs will provide information about the source and destination IP addresses, as well as the protocols and ports used for the transfer. This will help the administrator identify any suspicious or unauthorized activity.

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59. QUESTION NO: 85
User A is a member of the payroll security group. Each member of the group should have read/write permissions to a share. User A was trying to update a file but when the user tried to access the file the user was denied. Which of the following would explain why User A could not access the file?

Explanation

The reason why User A could not access the file is that the rights or permissions for the file were not set correctly. This means that User A does not have the necessary permissions to read or write to the file.

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60. QUESTION NO: 92
Which of the following is an exploit against a device where only the hardware model and manufacturer are known?

Explanation

Default passwords are an exploit that can be used against a device where only the hardware model and manufacturer are known. Many devices come with default passwords that are well-known and easily accessible. Attackers can use these default passwords to gain unauthorized access to the device and potentially exploit its vulnerabilities. It is important for users to change default passwords to ensure the security of their devices.

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61. QUESTION NO: 25
Which of the following is a list of discrete entries that are known to be benign?

Explanation

A whitelist is a list of discrete entries that are known to be benign. It is used to allow only specific, trusted entities or actions while blocking all others. Unlike a blacklist, which contains entries that are known to be malicious or unwanted, a whitelist only includes entries that are considered safe and authorized. By using a whitelist, organizations can enhance security by restricting access to only known and trusted sources, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or malicious activities.

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62. QUESTION NO: 42
Which of the following access control methods gives the owner control over providing permissions?

Explanation

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is the access control method that gives the owner control over providing permissions. In DAC, the owner of a resource has the authority to determine who can access that resource and what level of access they have. The owner can grant or revoke permissions for other users or groups, giving them the discretion to control access to their resources. This is in contrast to other access control methods like Role-Based Access Control (RBAC), where access is determined based on predefined roles, and Mandatory Access Control (MAC), where access is determined by system administrators or security policies.

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63. QUESTION NO: 68 Which of the following actions should be performed upon discovering an unauthorized wireless access point attached to a network?

Explanation

Upon discovering an unauthorized wireless access point attached to a network, the recommended action is to unplug the Ethernet cable from the wireless access point. This will disconnect the unauthorized device from the network and prevent any potential unauthorized access or security breaches. Enabling MAC filtering or running a ping against the wireless access point are not effective solutions in this scenario.

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64.                 QUESTION NO: 1 All of the following provide confidentiality protection as part of the underlying protocol EXCEPT:

Explanation

L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) does not provide confidentiality protection as part of the underlying protocol. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer), SSH (Secure Shell), and IPSeC (Internet Protocol Security) all have mechanisms in place to ensure confidentiality of data transmitted over the network. However, L2TP is primarily used for creating virtual private networks (VPNs) and does not include built-in encryption for data confidentiality.

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65. QUESTION NO: 64
After implementing file auditing, which of the following logs would show unauthorized usage attempts?

Explanation

The Security log would show unauthorized usage attempts after implementing file auditing. This log records events related to security, such as failed login attempts, access control changes, and unauthorized access attempts. By monitoring the Security log, administrators can identify and investigate any unauthorized usage attempts on the system.

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66. QUESTION NO: 62
Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the number of accounts a user must maintain?

Explanation

SSO (Single Sign-On) is the best way to reduce the number of accounts a user must maintain. SSO allows users to authenticate themselves once and gain access to multiple systems and applications without needing to enter separate login credentials for each one. This simplifies the user experience, increases productivity, and reduces the risk of password fatigue or forgetting passwords. With SSO, users only need to remember one set of login credentials, making it more convenient and efficient for them to access various resources.

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67. QUESTION NO: 10  
  Which of the following BEST describes ARP?

Explanation

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a protocol used to discover the MAC address of a device from its IP address. It is commonly used in local area networks to map an IP address to its corresponding MAC address. This mapping is necessary for devices to communicate with each other on the network. By sending an ARP request, a device can determine the MAC address of another device on the same network, allowing for successful communication between them.

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68. QUESTION NO: 17
On which of the following is a security technician MOST likely to find usernames?

Explanation

A security technician is most likely to find usernames on application logs. Application logs record information about the activities and events that occur within an application, including user interactions. Usernames are often logged as part of the authentication process when users log in or access certain features within an application. By reviewing the application logs, a security technician can track and monitor user activities, identify any suspicious or unauthorized access, and investigate any security incidents or breaches.

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69. QUESTION NO: 55
An administrator wants to proactively collect information on attackers and their attempted methods of gaining access to the internal network. Which of the following would allow the administrator to do this?

Explanation

A honeypot is a security mechanism that is designed to attract and deceive attackers. It appears to be a legitimate target but is actually isolated and closely monitored. By deploying a honeypot, the administrator can gather valuable information about attackers and their techniques without putting the actual internal network at risk. This allows for proactive monitoring and analysis of potential threats, enabling the administrator to better protect the network and identify any vulnerabilities that may need to be addressed.

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70. QUESTION NO: 70
During the implementation of LDAP, which of the following will typically be changed within the organizations software programs?

Explanation

During the implementation of LDAP, organizations will typically change the authentication credentials within their software programs. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a protocol used to access and manage directory information, such as user authentication credentials. By implementing LDAP, organizations can centralize and standardize the authentication process, which often requires updating and changing the authentication credentials used in their software programs. This ensures that the software programs can communicate and authenticate with the LDAP server correctly.

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71. QUESTION NO: 76
An executive uses PKI to encrypt sensitive emails sent to an assistant. In addition to encrypting the body of the email, the executive wishes to encrypt the signature so that the assistant can verify that the email actually came from the executive. Which of the following asymmetric keys should the executive use to encrypt the signature?

Explanation

The executive should use the private key to encrypt the signature. In asymmetric encryption, the private key is used for encryption and decryption. By encrypting the signature with the private key, the assistant can use the corresponding public key to verify the authenticity of the email and ensure that it came from the executive.

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72. QUESTION NO: 65 Which of the following type of attacks requires an attacker to sniff the network?

Explanation

A Man-in-the-Middle attack requires an attacker to sniff the network in order to intercept and manipulate communication between two parties. The attacker positions themselves between the sender and receiver, allowing them to eavesdrop on the communication and potentially alter the messages being exchanged. This type of attack is often used to steal sensitive information, such as login credentials or financial data.

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73. QUESTION NO: 35
Which of the following is a best practice for coding applications in a secure manner?

Explanation

Input validation is a best practice for coding applications in a secure manner because it ensures that any user input is properly validated and sanitized before it is processed by the application. This helps to prevent various types of attacks, such as SQL injection and cross-site scripting, which can exploit vulnerabilities in the application and compromise its security. By validating and sanitizing input, developers can ensure that only expected and safe data is accepted by the application, reducing the risk of security breaches.

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74. QUESTION NO: 74
Which of the following algorithms is the LEAST secure?

Explanation

LANMAN is the least secure algorithm among the given options. It uses a weak encryption method that divides the password into two 7-character halves and encrypts them separately. This makes it vulnerable to brute force attacks and dictionary attacks. NTLM, MD5, and SHA-1 are more secure algorithms compared to LANMAN and provide stronger encryption methods.

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75. QUESTION NO: 94
Which of the following tools will allow the technician to find all open ports on the network?

Explanation

A network scanner is a tool that allows a technician to find all open ports on a network. It scans the network and identifies the ports that are currently open and available for communication. This information is useful for network administrators to ensure the security of the network by identifying any potential vulnerabilities. Additionally, it can help troubleshoot network connectivity issues by identifying any blocked or closed ports that may be causing problems.

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76. QUESTION NO: 8
Which of the following is MOST efficient for encrypting large amounts of data?

Explanation

Symmetric key algorithms are the most efficient for encrypting large amounts of data because they use the same key for both encryption and decryption. This eliminates the need for complex mathematical operations and reduces the processing time. Additionally, symmetric key algorithms are faster than asymmetric key algorithms because they do not require the use of large key sizes. Hashing algorithms are not suitable for encrypting large amounts of data as they are one-way functions used for verifying data integrity, while ECC algorithms are efficient for encryption but are not specifically designed for large amounts of data.

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77. QUESTION NO: 45
Which of the following authentication methods would MOST likely prevent an attacker from being able to successfully deploy a replay attack?

Explanation

Kerberos is a network authentication protocol that uses tickets to verify the identities of users and services. It employs a timestamp and a session key to prevent replay attacks. By using timestamps, Kerberos ensures that each ticket is only valid for a specific period of time, making it difficult for an attacker to capture and reuse the authentication data. This makes Kerberos the most likely authentication method to prevent a replay attack.

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78. QUESTION NO: 100
Which of the following is a reason to implement security logging on a DNS server?

Explanation

Implementing security logging on a DNS server allows for the monitoring of unauthorized zone transfers. This is important because unauthorized zone transfers can lead to unauthorized access to sensitive information and potential security breaches. By logging and monitoring these transfers, administrators can identify and respond to any unauthorized activity, helping to maintain the security and integrity of the DNS server and its associated data.

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79. QUESTION NO: 81
Taking into account personal safety, which of the following types of fire suppression substances would BEST prevent damage to electronic equipment?

Explanation

CO2 (carbon dioxide) is the best fire suppression substance for preventing damage to electronic equipment because it is a clean agent that does not leave any residue or conduct electricity. It is effective in extinguishing fires by displacing oxygen, which starves the fire of the oxygen it needs to burn. This makes it ideal for use in areas with sensitive electronic equipment, as it does not cause any damage or leave behind any harmful substances that could further harm the equipment.

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80. QUESTION NO: 6
When should a technician perform penetration testing?

Explanation

Penetration testing should only be performed when the technician has permission from the owner of the network. This is because penetration testing involves actively attempting to exploit vulnerabilities in a network to identify potential security weaknesses. Without proper authorization, performing penetration testing can be considered illegal and unethical. Therefore, it is crucial for the technician to obtain permission from the owner of the network before conducting any penetration testing activities.

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81. QUESTION NO: 61
Which of the following would be the MOST secure choice to implement for authenticating remote connections?

Explanation

RADIUS would be the most secure choice to implement for authenticating remote connections. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a networking protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting management for users connecting to remote networks. It offers strong security measures such as encryption and mutual authentication, ensuring that only authorized users can access the network. Additionally, RADIUS supports a variety of authentication methods, including two-factor authentication, making it a robust and secure choice for remote connections.

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82. QUESTION NO: 75
Which of the following algorithms is MOST closely associated with the signing of email messages?

Explanation

PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is an encryption and decryption program that provides cryptographic privacy and authentication for data communication. It is commonly used for signing and encrypting email messages. PGP uses a combination of symmetric-key cryptography and public-key cryptography to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of email messages. It is widely recognized as a secure and reliable method for signing and encrypting email messages, making it the most closely associated algorithm with email message signing.

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83. QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following logs might reveal the IP address and MAC address of a rogue device within the local network?

Explanation

DHCP logs might reveal the IP address and MAC address of a rogue device within the local network. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is responsible for assigning IP addresses to devices on a network. By analyzing the DHCP logs, network administrators can identify any unauthorized devices that have obtained an IP address from the DHCP server. The logs will contain information about the IP address and MAC address of each device that has requested an IP address, allowing the identification of any rogue device present on the network.

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84. QUESTION NO: 78
An administrator suspects that multiple PCs are infected with a zombie. Which of the following tools could be used to confirm this?

Explanation

An antivirus tool can be used to confirm if multiple PCs are infected with a zombie. Antivirus software is designed to detect and remove malicious software, including zombies. By running a scan on the suspected PCs, the antivirus tool can identify any malware or zombie infections present on the systems. This will help the administrator confirm their suspicions and take appropriate actions to mitigate the threat.

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85. QUESTION NO: 20
Which of the following network filtering devices will rely on signature updates to be effective?

Explanation

A Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) relies on signature updates to be effective. NIDS monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and compares it against a database of known attack signatures. By regularly updating the signature database, the NIDS can detect and alert on new or emerging threats. This ensures that the NIDS can keep up with the latest attack techniques and provide effective protection for the network.

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86. QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following requires an update to the baseline after installing new software on a machine?

Explanation

Behavior-based HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) monitors the behavior of a system to detect any suspicious or malicious activity. When new software is installed on a machine, it can potentially change the behavior of the system. Therefore, an update to the baseline is required in order for the behavior-based HIDS to accurately detect and identify any abnormal behavior that may be caused by the newly installed software. This ensures that the HIDS remains effective in detecting any potential security threats.

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87. QUESTION NO: 12
A small call center business decided to install an email system to facilitate communications in the office. As part of the upgrade the vendor offered to supply anti-malware software for a cost of $5,000 per year. The IT manager read there was a 90% chance each year that workstations would be compromised if not adequately protected. If workstations are compromised it will take three hours to restore services for the 30 staff. Staff members in the call center are paid $90 per hour. If the anti-malware software is purchased, which of the following is the expected net savings?

Explanation

By purchasing the anti-malware software for $5,000 per year, the call center can prevent workstations from being compromised with a 90% probability. If workstations are compromised, it will take three hours to restore services for the 30 staff, resulting in a cost of $90 per hour per staff member. Without the software, there is a 10% chance of workstations being compromised, which would result in a cost of $90 per hour per staff member for three hours. Therefore, the expected net savings from purchasing the software can be calculated as follows: (0.9 * 0) - (0.1 * 30 * 3 * 90) = $2,290.

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88. QUESTION NO: 73
An administrator has been asked to encrypt credit card data. Which of the following algorithms would be the MOST secure with the least CPU utilization?

Explanation

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) would be the most secure algorithm with the least CPU utilization for encrypting credit card data. AES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses a block cipher with a fixed block size of 128 bits. It is widely considered to be secure and is used by the US government for encrypting sensitive information. AES is also efficient in terms of CPU utilization, making it a suitable choice for encrypting large amounts of data, such as credit card information. On the other hand, 3DES, SHA-1, and MD5 are older and less secure algorithms that may not provide the same level of security or efficiency as AES.

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89. QUESTION NO: 16
A user wants to implement secure LDAP on the network. Which of the following port numbers secure LDAP use by default?

Explanation

Secure LDAP (LDAPS) uses port number 636 by default. LDAPS is a protocol that provides secure communication between clients and directory servers. It uses SSL/TLS encryption to protect the data transmitted over the network. By default, LDAPS uses port 636 instead of the standard LDAP port (389) to ensure that the communication is encrypted. This helps to prevent unauthorized access and protect sensitive information, such as user credentials, from being intercepted or tampered with during transmission.

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90. QUESTION NO: 26
Which of the following increases the collision resistance of a hash?

Explanation

Salt increases the collision resistance of a hash by adding a random value to the input before hashing. This ensures that even if two inputs are identical, their hash values will be different due to the added salt. This makes it more difficult for attackers to precompute hashes or use rainbow tables to reverse engineer the original input. Increasing the input length, using a larger key space, and rainbow tables can also contribute to collision resistance, but salt specifically addresses the issue of identical inputs producing the same hash value.

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91. QUESTION NO: 89
Which of the following can an attacker use to gather information on a system without having a user ID or password?

Explanation

An attacker can use a null session to gather information on a system without having a user ID or password. A null session is an unauthenticated connection to a Windows system that allows an attacker to query the system for information such as user accounts, group memberships, and shared resources. This can be done by establishing a connection to the IPC$ share on the target system and using certain Windows administrative tools or scripts to extract information.

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92. QUESTION NO: 72
Which of the following security policies is BEST to use when trying to mitigate the risks involved with allowing a user to access company email via their cell phone?

Explanation

Requiring a password after a set period of inactivity is the best security policy to mitigate the risks involved with allowing a user to access company email via their cell phone. This policy ensures that if the cell phone is left unattended or lost, unauthorized individuals cannot access the email without the password. It adds an extra layer of protection to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive company information.

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93. QUESTION NO: 77
A technician needs to detect staff members that are connecting to an unauthorized website. Which of the following could be used?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a tool that can capture and analyze network traffic. By using a protocol analyzer, the technician can monitor the network and identify any staff members who are connecting to unauthorized websites. The protocol analyzer will capture the packets sent between the staff members' devices and the websites they are accessing, allowing the technician to see the destination IP addresses and URLs being accessed. This information can then be used to identify any unauthorized connections and take appropriate action.

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94. QUESTION NO: 24
Which of the following is a way to manage operating system updates?

Explanation

Change management is a way to manage operating system updates. It involves a systematic approach to implementing changes in an organization's IT infrastructure, including updates to the operating system. Change management ensures that updates are planned, tested, and implemented in a controlled manner to minimize disruption and ensure the stability and security of the system. It includes processes for assessing the impact of changes, obtaining approvals, and communicating and coordinating with stakeholders.

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95. QUESTION NO: 95
An organization is installing new servers into their infrastructure. A technician is responsible for making sure that all new servers meet security requirements for uptime. In which of the following is the availability requirements identified?

Explanation

The availability requirements are identified in the service level agreement. A service level agreement is a contract between the organization and the service provider that defines the level of service expected, including uptime and availability requirements. It outlines the agreed-upon metrics and targets for performance, availability, and response times. Therefore, the service level agreement is the document that specifies the availability requirements for the new servers.

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96. QUESTION NO: 22

Which of the following encryption algorithms is decrypted in the LEAST amount of time?

Explanation

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is decrypted in the least amount of time compared to the other encryption algorithms listed. AES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses a fixed key length of 128, 192, or 256 bits. It is widely used and considered to be highly secure and efficient. RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) is an asymmetric encryption algorithm that involves complex mathematical calculations, making it slower to decrypt. 3DES (Triple Data Encryption Standard) is a symmetric encryption algorithm that applies the DES algorithm three times, making it slower than AES. L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) is a network protocol, not an encryption algorithm, so it is not applicable to this question.

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97. QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following would allow for secure key exchange over an unsecured network without a pre-shared key?

Explanation

DH-ECC (Diffie-Hellman Elliptic Curve Cryptography) would allow for secure key exchange over an unsecured network without a pre-shared key. DH-ECC is a cryptographic algorithm that allows two parties to establish a shared secret key over an insecure channel. It uses the mathematics of elliptic curves to provide a high level of security. Unlike 3DES, AES, and MD5, which are encryption algorithms, DH-ECC specifically addresses the secure exchange of keys.

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98. QUESTION NO: 37
Which of the following network tools would provide the information on what an attacker is doing to compromise a system?

Explanation

A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. It acts as a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the Internet. By examining network packets, a firewall can detect and block suspicious or malicious activity, including attempts by attackers to compromise a system. Therefore, a firewall can provide information on what an attacker is doing to compromise a system by identifying and blocking their malicious actions.

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99. QUESTION NO: 38
Assigning proper security permissions to files and folders is the primary method of mitigating which of the following?

Explanation

Assigning proper security permissions to files and folders is the primary method of mitigating Trojan attacks. By setting appropriate permissions, access to sensitive files and folders can be restricted, preventing unauthorized individuals or malware from tampering with or stealing important data. This helps to protect against Trojan horses, which are malicious programs that appear harmless but can exploit security vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access and cause damage to a system.

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100. QUESTION NO: 36
Which of the following technologies can be used as a means to isolate a host OS from some types of security threats?

Explanation

Cloning can be used as a means to isolate a host OS from some types of security threats. Cloning involves creating an exact copy or replica of the host OS, which can be used as a backup or for testing purposes. By isolating the host OS in this way, any security threats or vulnerabilities that may exist in the original OS can be mitigated or avoided altogether. This can help to ensure the integrity and security of the host OS, protecting it from potential attacks or compromises.

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