SEC+ Study Guide B

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1. QUESTION NO: 192
A user complains that the color laser printer continuously gives an access denied message while attempting to print a text document. The administrator logs onto the PC and prints successfully. Which of the following should the administrator check FIRST?

Explanation

The administrator should check if the user has sufficient rights to print to the printer. This is because the user is receiving an access denied message, indicating that they may not have the necessary permissions to print. By verifying the user's rights, the administrator can determine if this is the root cause of the issue and take appropriate action to grant the user the necessary printing permissions.

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About This Quiz
SEC+ Study Guide B - Quiz

Sec+ Study Guide B focuses on enhancing cybersecurity skills, covering secure virtualization, access controls, patch management, and encryption. It prepares technicians for Security+ certification, emphasizing practical security measures and infrastructure protection.

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2. QUESTION NO: 115
Which of the following might an attacker resort to in order to recover discarded company documents?

Explanation

Dumpster diving is a method that an attacker might resort to in order to recover discarded company documents. This refers to the act of searching through trash or recycling bins to find valuable information. Attackers may target companies that do not properly dispose of sensitive documents, such as financial records, customer data, or intellectual property. By retrieving these discarded documents, attackers can gain valuable insights or use the information for malicious purposes, such as identity theft or corporate espionage.

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3. QUESTION NO: 128
After registering an email address on a website, a user starts receiving messages from unknown sources. The email account is new, and therefore the user is concerneD. This type of message traffic is referred to as:

Explanation

After registering an email address on a website, if a user starts receiving messages from unknown sources, it is referred to as spam. Spam refers to unsolicited and unwanted emails that are sent in bulk to a large number of recipients. These messages are often promotional in nature or contain malicious content. In this scenario, the user is concerned because they are receiving messages from unknown sources, indicating that it is spam.

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4. QUESTION NO: 135
Which of the following is the primary purpose of a honeypot?

Explanation

A honeypot is a security mechanism used to deceive attackers by providing a decoy target on the network. It is designed to attract and monitor unauthorized access attempts, allowing security professionals to gather information about the attackers' tactics, techniques, and intentions. By diverting attackers' attention to the honeypot, organizations can protect their actual systems and networks from potential harm.

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5. QUESTION NO: 166
Which of the following is a collection of patches?

Explanation

A service pack is a collection of patches that are released by a software vendor to update and improve their software. It typically includes a combination of bug fixes, security updates, and new features. Service packs are usually released periodically and can be installed to ensure that the software is up to date and running smoothly.

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6. QUESTION NO: 102
A technician is reviewing the logical access control method an organization uses. One of the senior managers requests that the technician prevent staff members from logging on during nonworking days. Which of the following should the technician implement to meet managements request?

Explanation

To meet the senior manager's request of preventing staff members from logging on during nonworking days, the technician should implement time of day restrictions. This control allows the organization to define specific time periods during which users are allowed to log in to the system. By configuring the system to restrict access during nonworking days, the technician can ensure that staff members are unable to log in during those times. This control helps enforce the organization's policy and prevents unauthorized access to the system outside of working hours.

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7. QUESTION NO: 174
Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive redundancy for an entire site with the least downtime?

Explanation

A hot site provides the most comprehensive redundancy for an entire site with the least downtime. A hot site is a fully equipped and operational secondary site that is ready to take over operations immediately in the event of a disaster or failure at the primary site. It has all the necessary hardware, software, and data backups to ensure minimal disruption to business operations. This makes it the ideal solution for minimizing downtime and ensuring business continuity.

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8. QUESTION NO: 111
Which of the following is a true statement with regards to a NIDS?

Explanation

A NIDS, or Network Intrusion Detection System, is a security tool that monitors and analyzes network traffic in order to detect and prevent possible intrusions. It does this by examining packets of data that are transmitted across the network, looking for any suspicious or malicious activity. By monitoring network traffic, a NIDS can identify and alert administrators to potential threats or attacks, allowing them to take appropriate action to protect the network. Unlike the other options listed, a NIDS is not installed on a proxy server, does not prevent certain types of traffic from entering a network, and is not typically installed on an email server.

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9. QUESTION NO: 119
Which of the following specifies a set of consistent requirements for a workstation or server?

Explanation

A configuration baseline refers to a set of consistent requirements for a workstation or server. It outlines the desired configuration settings and standards that should be followed to ensure the system's security, stability, and performance. By establishing a configuration baseline, organizations can maintain consistency across their IT infrastructure, reduce vulnerabilities, and simplify management processes. It serves as a reference point to compare the current configuration against the desired state, allowing for identification and remediation of any deviations.

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10. QUESTION NO: 151
Which of the following type of fire suppression tools would cause the MOST damage to electrical equipment?

Explanation

Water would cause the most damage to electrical equipment because water is a conductor of electricity. When water comes into contact with electrical equipment, it can short circuit the equipment and cause damage or even start a fire. Therefore, using water as a fire suppression tool on electrical equipment would be counterproductive and potentially cause more harm than good.

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11. QUESTION NO: 176
Which of the following allows for notification when a hacking attempt is discovered?

Explanation

A Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) allows for notification when a hacking attempt is discovered. NIDS monitors network traffic and analyzes it for suspicious activities or patterns that may indicate a hacking attempt. When such an attempt is detected, the NIDS can generate notifications or alerts to inform the network administrators or security personnel about the potential security breach. This helps in timely response and mitigation of the attack, ensuring the security of the network.

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12. QUESTION NO: 187
Which of the following media is the LEAST likely to be successfully tapped into?

Explanation

Fiber optic cable is the least likely to be successfully tapped into because it uses light to transmit data, which makes it difficult to intercept without interrupting the signal. Unlike other cables, fiber optic cables do not emit electromagnetic signals that can be easily intercepted, making them more secure against tapping.

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13. QUESTION NO: 190
A DMZ has a fake network that a hacker is attacking. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This scenario is an example of a honeypot. A honeypot is a decoy system or network that is intentionally designed to attract hackers or malicious activity. It is set up to gather information about the attackers' methods, techniques, and motives. In this case, the DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) has a fake network that is being targeted by a hacker, which fits the definition of a honeypot.

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14. QUESTION NO: 195
A user is denied access to a file. The user had access to the file yesterday. Which of the following is the FIRST action for the technician to take?

Explanation

The first action for the technician to take is to verify that the user's permissions are correct. This is because the user had access to the file yesterday, so it is likely that there may have been a change in their permissions or an error in their access rights. By verifying the user's permissions, the technician can determine if there are any issues with the user's access and take appropriate steps to resolve the problem.

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15. QUESTION NO: 162
Which of the following is a best practice to prevent users from being vulnerable to social engineering?

Explanation

Providing thorough and frequent user awareness training is a best practice to prevent users from being vulnerable to social engineering. This training helps educate users about the various tactics used by social engineers, such as phishing emails, phone scams, and impersonation. It teaches them how to recognize and respond to these threats, ensuring that they do not fall victim to social engineering attacks. By regularly updating and reinforcing this training, users can stay informed and vigilant, reducing the risk of being manipulated by social engineers.

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16. QUESTION NO: 163
The RAS logs on a server show 100 errors in a two minute time period from an attempt to access an account. The error log shows unknown username or password. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

The given answer, "An unauthorized attempt to access the server," is the correct explanation for the situation described in the question. The RAS logs on the server show 100 errors in a two-minute time period from an attempt to access an account, and the error log indicates an unknown username or password. This suggests that someone is trying to gain unauthorized access to the server by repeatedly attempting to log in with incorrect credentials.

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17. QUESTION NO: 116
Which of the following creates a security buffer zone between two rooms?

Explanation

A mantrap creates a security buffer zone between two rooms. A mantrap is a physical security device that consists of two interlocking doors or gates. It allows only one person to pass through at a time and ensures that the first door is closed before the second door is opened, creating a secure space between the two rooms. This helps to prevent unauthorized access and provides an additional layer of security.

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18. QUESTION NO: 129
A technician is testing the security of a new database application with a website front-end. The technician notices that when certain characters are input into the application it will crash the server. Which of the following does the technician need to do?

Explanation

The technician needs to implement input validation. Input validation is a process of checking the user input to ensure that it meets the required criteria and does not contain any malicious or unexpected characters. By implementing input validation, the technician can prevent certain characters from crashing the server and ensure the security and stability of the database application.

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19. QUESTION NO: 133
A user has decided that they do not want an internal LAN segment to use public IP addresses. The user wants to translate them as private IP addresses to a pool of public IP addresses to identify them on the Internet. Which of the following does the user want to implement?

Explanation

The user wants to implement NAT (Network Address Translation). NAT allows the user to translate internal LAN segment's private IP addresses to a pool of public IP addresses. This allows the internal devices to be identified on the Internet using the public IP addresses, while keeping the private IP addresses hidden from the public network.

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20. QUESTION NO: 188
Which of the following allows a person to find public wireless access points?

Explanation

SSID broadcast allows a person to find public wireless access points. When a wireless access point broadcasts its SSID (Service Set Identifier), it makes itself visible to nearby devices. This allows users to easily identify and connect to the network. While disabling SSID broadcast can provide some level of security by making the network less visible, it does not prevent determined individuals from finding and connecting to the network. Therefore, enabling SSID broadcast is commonly used to make public wireless access points easily discoverable.

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21. QUESTION NO: 138
Which of the following is the primary purpose of a CA?

Explanation

The primary purpose of a CA (Certificate Authority) is to issue private/public keys. A CA is responsible for verifying the identity of individuals, organizations, or devices requesting digital certificates. These certificates contain a public key that is used for encryption and a private key that is used for decryption. By issuing these keys, a CA ensures the security and authenticity of digital communications by enabling encryption and authentication processes.

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22. QUESTION NO: 154
While conducting a review of the system logs, a user had attempted to log onto the network over 250 times. Which of the following type of attacks is MOST likely occurring?

Explanation

The correct answer is brute force. Brute force is a type of attack where an attacker systematically tries all possible combinations of passwords or encryption keys until the correct one is found. In this scenario, the user attempting to log onto the network over 250 times suggests that they are trying different combinations to gain unauthorized access. This behavior is indicative of a brute force attack.

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23. QUESTION NO: 178
Which of the following allows a technician to scan for missing patches on a device without actually attempting to exploit the security problem?

Explanation

A vulnerability scanner is a tool that allows a technician to scan for missing patches on a device without actually attempting to exploit the security problem. It helps identify vulnerabilities in a system by scanning for known security weaknesses and provides a report on the missing patches or vulnerabilities found. This allows the technician to proactively address security issues before they can be exploited by attackers. Security baselines, port scanners, and group policy are not specifically designed for scanning and identifying missing patches on a device.

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24. QUESTION NO: 108
When is the BEST time to update antivirus definitions?

Explanation

The best time to update antivirus definitions is when they become available from the vendor. This ensures that the antivirus software has the latest information about new viruses and can effectively protect the system. Updating definitions regularly is crucial to stay ahead of emerging threats and maintain a high level of security.

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25. QUESTION NO: 123
Which of the following is the BEST tool for allowing users to go to approved business-related websites only?

Explanation

An internet content filter is the best tool for allowing users to go to approved business-related websites only. This tool helps in restricting access to certain websites based on predefined criteria, such as content category or website reputation. By filtering out unauthorized websites, it ensures that users can only access approved and relevant websites, improving productivity and security within the organization. Firewalls, ACLs, and caching servers may have some level of website blocking capabilities, but they are not specifically designed for this purpose and may not provide the same level of control and customization as an internet content filter.

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26. QUESTION NO: 142
An administrator is implementing a public website and they want all client connections to the server to be encrypted via their web browser. Which of the following should be implemented?

Explanation

SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) should be implemented to encrypt all client connections to the server via their web browser. SSL is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over the internet. It ensures that the data transmitted between the client and the server is encrypted and cannot be easily intercepted or tampered with by unauthorized parties. SSL certificates are commonly used to enable HTTPS (HTTP Secure) connections, which encrypt the data exchanged between the client's web browser and the server.

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27. QUESTION NO: 156
A user was trying to update an open file but when they tried to access the file they were denied. Which of the following would explain why the user could not access the file?

Explanation

The user could not access the file because the rights are not set correctly. This means that the user does not have the necessary permissions or privileges to access and modify the file. It could be that the user does not have the appropriate read or write permissions, or they may not be a member of the required user group. To resolve this issue, the rights need to be properly configured to grant the user the necessary access to the file.

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28. QUESTION NO: 103
How would a technician implement a security patch in an enterprise environment?

Explanation

In order to implement a security patch in an enterprise environment, a technician would need to download the patch from the vendor's secure website. However, before installing it on all workstations, it is important to test the patch to ensure compatibility and effectiveness. This step is crucial in order to prevent any potential issues or conflicts that may arise from the installation. Once the patch has been successfully tested, it can then be installed on all workstations to ensure that the enterprise environment is protected from any vulnerabilities.

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29. QUESTION NO: 112
A technician suspects that a piece of malware is consuming too many CPU cycles and slowing down a system. Which of the following will help determine the amount of CPU cycles that are being consumed?

Explanation

Running a performance monitor will help determine the amount of CPU cycles that are being consumed. Performance monitor provides real-time data and statistics about the system's performance, including CPU usage. By monitoring the CPU usage, the technician can identify any abnormal spikes or high usage that may indicate malware consuming excessive CPU cycles and slowing down the system. This will help in identifying and troubleshooting the issue.

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30. QUESTION NO: 184
Which of the following would use a group of bots to stop a web server from accepting new requests?

Explanation

A DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack involves the use of a group of bots or compromised computers to flood a web server with an overwhelming amount of traffic, rendering it unable to accept new requests from legitimate users. This type of attack overwhelms the server's resources and causes it to become unresponsive or crash. Unlike a DoS (Denial of Service) attack, which is carried out by a single source, a DDoS attack utilizes multiple sources, making it more difficult to mitigate and defend against. The correct answer is DDoS.

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31. QUESTION NO: 114
Which of the following is the MOST secure alternative for administrative access to a router?

Explanation

SSH (Secure Shell) is the most secure alternative for administrative access to a router. Unlike Telnet, rlogin, and HTTP, SSH provides encrypted communication, ensuring that data transmitted between the router and the administrator is protected from eavesdropping and unauthorized access. SSH also supports authentication mechanisms, such as public-key cryptography, making it more secure than the other options listed.

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32. QUESTION NO: 131
A user is redirected to a different website when the user requests the DNS record www.xyz.comptiA. com. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This is an example of DNS poisoning, where the user is redirected to a different website than the one they intended to visit. DNS poisoning occurs when an attacker maliciously alters the DNS records to redirect traffic to a different IP address, often leading to phishing or malware-infected websites.

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33. QUESTION NO: 155
Users do not want to enter credentials to each server or application to conduct their normal work. Which of the following type of strategies will resolve this issue?

Explanation

Single Sign-On (SSO) is a strategy that allows users to authenticate once and then access multiple servers or applications without having to enter their credentials again. This resolves the issue of users having to enter credentials for each server or application they need to access, making it more convenient for them to conduct their normal work. SSO provides a seamless and secure authentication process, enhancing user experience and productivity.

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34. QUESTION NO: 109
Why would a technician use a password cracker?

Explanation

A technician would use a password cracker to identify weak passwords on the network. This tool helps in testing the strength of passwords by attempting to crack or guess them. By using a password cracker, the technician can identify any passwords that are easily guessable or too weak, which could pose a security risk to the network. This allows the technician to take appropriate measures to strengthen the passwords and enhance the overall security of the network.

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35. QUESTION NO: 110
Users on a network report that they are receiving unsolicited emails from an email address that does not change. Which of the following steps should be taken to stop this from occurring?

Explanation

To stop receiving unsolicited emails from a specific email address that remains constant, the best solution is to install an anti-spam filter on the domain mail servers and filter the email address. This will allow the filter to scan incoming emails and block any emails from the specified address. Configuring rules on individual routers or hosts would not be effective in stopping these emails, as they would still reach the network. Similarly, installing an ACL on the firewall to block traffic from the sender might not be sufficient as the emails could still bypass the firewall. Therefore, the most appropriate solution is to implement an anti-spam filter on the domain mail servers.

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36. QUESTION NO: 120
A companys website allows customers to search for a product and display the current price and quantity available of each product from the production database. Which of the following would invalidate an SQL injection attack launched from the lookup field at the web server level?

Explanation

Input validation would invalidate an SQL injection attack launched from the lookup field at the web server level. Input validation is the process of ensuring that user input is clean and safe before it is processed by the application. In the context of this question, input validation would involve checking and sanitizing the user's search query to prevent any malicious SQL code from being executed. By implementing proper input validation, the website can effectively prevent SQL injection attacks and protect the production database from unauthorized access or manipulation.

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37. QUESTION NO: 136
An administrator wants to ensure that that no equipment is damaged when there is a fire or false alarm in the server room. Which of the following type of fire suppression systems should be used?

Explanation

Carbon Dioxide fire suppression systems should be used in the server room to ensure that no equipment is damaged during a fire or false alarm. Carbon Dioxide is a clean agent that does not leave residue or cause damage to electronic equipment. It works by displacing oxygen, effectively suffocating the fire. This type of fire suppression system is commonly used in areas where water or other agents could cause damage to sensitive equipment.

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38. QUESTION NO: 179
Which of the following allows for proof that a certain person sent a particular email?

Explanation

Non-repudiation allows for proof that a certain person sent a particular email. Non-repudiation is a security measure that ensures that the sender of a message cannot deny sending it. It provides evidence that the sender is who they claim to be, and that the message has not been altered during transmission. This is typically achieved through the use of digital signatures or certificates, which can be used to verify the authenticity and integrity of the email.

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39. QUESTION NO: 182
Sending a patch through a testing and approval process is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

Sending a patch through a testing and approval process is an example of change management. Change management refers to the process of controlling and managing changes to a system or environment in a structured and systematic way. In this case, the patch is considered a change, and it is being managed by going through a testing and approval process to ensure that it is implemented correctly and does not cause any negative impacts on the system.

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40. QUESTION NO: 198
An intrusion has been detected on a company's network from the Internet. Which of the following should be checked FIRST?

Explanation

The correct answer is the firewall logs. When an intrusion is detected on a company's network from the Internet, the first thing to check is the firewall logs. Firewall logs contain information about incoming and outgoing network traffic, including details about any unauthorized access attempts or suspicious activities. By analyzing the firewall logs, the security team can identify the source of the intrusion, the methods used, and take appropriate actions to mitigate the threat. Checking other logs such as DNS logs, access logs, or performance logs may also be necessary, but the firewall logs should be the first priority.

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41. QUESTION NO: 137
Which of the following is a CRL composed of?

Explanation

A Certificate Revocation List (CRL) is a component of a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) system. It is a list of digital certificates that have been revoked or expired before their validity period. The CRL is maintained by Certificate Authorities (CAs) and is used to verify the validity of certificates during the authentication process. Therefore, the correct answer is "Expired or revoked certificates" because a CRL is composed of these certificates.

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42. QUESTION NO: 157
Accessing a system or application using permissions from another users account is a form of which of the following?

Explanation

Privilege escalation refers to the act of gaining elevated privileges or access to a system or application beyond what is originally granted to a user. In this scenario, accessing a system or application using permissions from another user's account can be considered a form of privilege escalation. By using another user's account, the attacker can bypass their own limited privileges and gain unauthorized access to resources or perform actions that they would not normally be able to do.

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43. QUESTION NO: 168
Which of the following is the BEST place where the disaster recovery plan should be kept?

Explanation

The disaster recovery plan should be kept at multiple offsite locations because in the event of a disaster, having the plan stored in multiple offsite locations ensures that it is easily accessible and not vulnerable to being destroyed or inaccessible at a single location. This helps to ensure that the organization can quickly recover and resume operations following a disaster.

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44. QUESTION NO: 175
Which of the following allows devices attached to the same switch to have separate broadcast domains?

Explanation

VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) allows devices attached to the same switch to have separate broadcast domains. VLANs divide a physical network into multiple logical networks, allowing devices in different VLANs to communicate with each other as if they were on separate physical networks. This helps to reduce network congestion and improve network performance by limiting the scope of broadcast traffic.

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45. QUESTION NO: 191
A company decides that the purchasing agent and the accounts receivable agent should exchange positions in order to allow for more oversight of past transactions. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

Job rotation is the correct answer because it refers to the practice of employees switching roles or positions within an organization. In this scenario, the purchasing agent and the accounts receivable agent are exchanging positions, which allows for a fresh perspective and increased oversight of past transactions. Job rotation can help prevent fraud, improve employee skills, and enhance overall organizational knowledge and understanding.

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46. QUESTION NO: 199
A user needs to verify that a patch file downloaded from a third party has not been modified since the time that the original manufacturer released the patch. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify that the file has not been modified?

Explanation

Comparing the final MD5 hash with the original is the best way to verify that the patch file has not been modified. The MD5 hash is a unique value generated by a hashing algorithm that is based on the contents of the file. If the file has been modified in any way, even a small change, the MD5 hash will be different. By comparing the final MD5 hash with the original, the user can ensure the integrity of the patch file and confirm that it has not been tampered with since its release by the original manufacturer.

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47. QUESTION NO: 127
An administrator has developed an OS install that will implement the tightest security controls possible. In order to quickly replicate these controls on all systems, which of the following should be established?

Explanation

Creating an image from the OS install is the best option for quickly replicating the tightest security controls on all systems. By creating an image, the administrator can capture the entire configuration and settings of the OS install, including the security controls. This image can then be easily deployed to multiple systems, ensuring consistent security measures are implemented across all of them. Taking screen shots of the configuration options may not capture all the necessary settings and can be time-consuming to replicate. Creating a boot disk for the operating system may not include all the security controls, and implementing OS hardening procedures would require manual configuration on each system.

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48. QUESTION NO: 140
A user is attempting to receive digitally signed and encrypted email messages from a remote office. Which of the following protocols does the system need to support?

Explanation

The user needs to support S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) in order to receive digitally signed and encrypted email messages. S/MIME is a protocol that provides a secure method for sending and receiving email messages, ensuring confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation of the messages. It uses public key cryptography to digitally sign and encrypt the messages, providing a secure communication channel between the sender and the recipient.

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49. QUESTION NO: 150
Antivirus software products detect malware by comparing the characteristics of known instances against which of the following type of file sets?

Explanation

Antivirus software products detect malware by comparing the characteristics of known instances against signature file sets. Signature files contain unique patterns or signatures of known malware, allowing the antivirus software to identify and remove them from a system. By comparing the characteristics of files against these signatures, the antivirus software can determine if a file is malicious or not.

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50. QUESTION NO: 159
Which of the following is a software bundle containing multiple security fixes?

Explanation

A service pack is a software bundle that contains multiple security fixes. It is a collection of updates, bug fixes, and enhancements for a specific software product. Service packs are released periodically by software vendors to address known vulnerabilities and improve the overall stability and security of the software. They are typically larger in size compared to individual patches or hotfixes, as they include a comprehensive set of updates and fixes for the software.

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51. QUESTION NO: 164
An administrator notices that former temporary employees accounts are still active on a domain. Which of the following can be implemented to increase security and prevent this from happening?

Explanation

Implementing an account expiration date for temporary employees would increase security and prevent former temporary employees' accounts from remaining active on the domain. By setting an expiration date for these accounts, they will automatically be deactivated after a specified period, ensuring that only current employees have access to the domain resources. This measure helps to minimize the risk of unauthorized access and potential security breaches.

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52. QUESTION NO: 181
Which of the following allows for the highest level of security at time of login?

Explanation

Two-factor authentication allows for the highest level of security at the time of login because it requires the user to provide two different types of identification factors to verify their identity. This typically includes something the user knows, such as a password, and something the user has, such as a fingerprint or a security token. By requiring two factors, it significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access, as an attacker would need to possess both factors to gain entry. This provides an additional layer of security compared to one-factor authentication, which only requires a single factor for authentication. Single sign-on and NTLMv2 are not specifically designed to provide the highest level of security at login.

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53. QUESTION NO: 186
Using an asymmetric key cryptography system, where can a technician generate the key pairs?

Explanation

In an asymmetric key cryptography system, a certificate authority is responsible for generating the key pairs. A certificate authority is a trusted entity that verifies the identity of individuals or organizations and issues digital certificates that contain the public key. The certificate authority generates the key pairs by creating a private key and a corresponding public key. The private key is kept secure and is used for encryption and digital signing, while the public key is made available to others for encryption and verification purposes.

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54. QUESTION NO: 125
An unauthorized user intercepted a users password and used this information to obtain the companys administrator password. The unauthorized user can use the administrators password to access sensitive information pertaining to client data. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This scenario is an example of privilege escalation. Privilege escalation refers to the unauthorized elevation of user privileges, allowing an individual to access resources or perform actions that they are not authorized to do. In this case, the unauthorized user gained access to the company's administrator password, which grants them higher privileges than they should have. With the administrator password, they can now access sensitive client data, which is a clear example of privilege escalation.

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55. QUESTION NO: 130
An administrator in a small office environment has implemented an IDS on the network perimeter to detect malicious traffic patterns. The administrator still has a concern about traffic inside the network originating between client workstations. Which of the following could be implemented?

Explanation

A HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) could be implemented to address the concern about traffic originating between client workstations. HIDS is a security solution that monitors and analyzes the activity on individual hosts or endpoints, such as client workstations. It can detect and alert on any suspicious or malicious activity occurring on these hosts, providing an additional layer of security within the network.

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56. QUESTION NO: 183
Sending continuous TCP requests to a device and ignoring the return information until the device ceases to accept new connections is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

Sending continuous TCP requests to a device and ignoring the return information until the device ceases to accept new connections is an example of a Denial of Service (DoS) attack. In this type of attack, the attacker overwhelms the target device with a flood of requests, causing it to become unresponsive or crash. By ignoring the return information, the attacker ensures that the device cannot handle any legitimate requests, effectively denying service to legitimate users.

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57. QUESTION NO: 106
Which of the following BEST describes the term war driving?

Explanation

War driving refers to the act of driving around with a laptop and an antenna to locate unsecured wireless access points. This practice is often done with the intention of gaining unauthorized access to these networks or collecting information about them. By identifying unsecured access points, individuals can potentially exploit them for malicious purposes or use them to connect to the internet without permission.

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58. QUESTION NO: 101
A technician is rebuilding the infrastructure for an organization. The technician has been tasked with making sure that the virtualization technology is implemented securely. Which of the following is a concern when implementing virtualization technology?

Explanation

When implementing virtualization technology, it is important to ensure that the virtual servers and the host have the latest service packs and patches applied. This is because virtualization technology can introduce vulnerabilities and security risks, and keeping the software up to date with the latest patches and service packs helps to mitigate these risks. By regularly updating the software, the technician can ensure that any known security vulnerabilities are addressed, reducing the likelihood of a successful attack on the virtualized infrastructure.

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59. QUESTION NO: 104
Which of the following is considered the weakest encryption?

Explanation

DES (Data Encryption Standard) is considered the weakest encryption among the options provided. DES uses a 56-bit key, which is relatively small compared to modern encryption standards. This makes it more vulnerable to brute-force attacks, where an attacker systematically tries all possible keys until the correct one is found. Additionally, DES has been around since the 1970s and has been extensively studied, leading to the discovery of various vulnerabilities and weaknesses. As a result, it is no longer considered secure for most applications and has been largely replaced by more robust encryption algorithms like AES (Advanced Encryption Standard).

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60. QUESTION NO: 139
An administrator wants to replace telnet with a more secure protocol to manage a network device. Which of the following should be implemented on the network?

Explanation

SSH (Secure Shell) should be implemented on the network to replace telnet as it provides a more secure protocol for managing network devices. Telnet is an unencrypted protocol, while SSH encrypts the data transmitted between the client and the server, ensuring confidentiality and integrity of the communication. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is also a secure protocol for file transfer, but it does not provide the same level of management capabilities as SSH. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) and SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) are not suitable replacements for telnet as they are used for email and network management respectively, not device management.

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61. QUESTION NO: 169
Which of the following is established immediately upon evidence seizure?

Explanation

Chain of custody is established immediately upon evidence seizure. This refers to the chronological documentation of the handling, transfer, and storage of evidence. It ensures the integrity and admissibility of the evidence in a legal proceeding. By establishing the chain of custody, it becomes possible to track the possession of the evidence from the moment it is seized, ensuring that it is not tampered with or compromised in any way. This is a critical step in maintaining the credibility and reliability of the evidence throughout the investigation and legal process.

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62. QUESTION NO: 171
Which of the following algorithms have the smallest key space?

Explanation

DES (Data Encryption Standard) has the smallest key space among the given algorithms. This means that DES has the fewest possible number of unique keys that can be used for encryption and decryption. The key space for DES is 56 bits, which is significantly smaller compared to the key spaces of IDEA (128 bits), SHA-1 (160 bits), and AES (128, 192, or 256 bits). A smaller key space can make DES more vulnerable to brute force attacks, where an attacker tries all possible keys to decrypt the encrypted data.

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63. QUESTION NO: 126
Users are utilizing thumb drives to connect to USB ports on company workstations. A technician is concerned that sensitive files can be copied to the USB drives. Which of the following mitigation techniques would address this concern? (Select TWO).

Explanation

To address the concern of sensitive files being copied to USB drives, two mitigation techniques can be implemented. Firstly, disabling the USB root hub within the operating system will prevent any USB devices from being recognized and accessed by the workstation. Secondly, disabling USB within the workstation's BIOS will further restrict the ability to connect USB devices at a hardware level. These measures effectively limit the use of USB drives and prevent unauthorized copying of sensitive files.

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64. QUESTION NO: 149
Which of the following is done to ensure appropriate personnel have access to systems and networks? (Select TWO).

Explanation

To ensure appropriate personnel have access to systems and networks, conducting periodic personnel employment verifications is necessary. This helps to ensure that only authorized individuals who are currently employed by the organization have access to the systems and networks. Additionally, conducting rights review of users and groups is important to ensure that access privileges are appropriately assigned and that there are no unauthorized or excessive privileges granted to individuals or groups. These two measures help to maintain the security and integrity of the systems and networks by controlling access and preventing unauthorized access or misuse of resources.

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65. QUESTION NO: 105
Which of the following encryption schemes is the public key infrastructure based on?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Asymmetric." Public key infrastructure (PKI) is based on asymmetric encryption schemes, which use a pair of keys - a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. This allows secure communication between parties without the need to share a secret key. Asymmetric encryption is widely used in various applications, such as secure email, digital signatures, and SSL/TLS for secure web browsing.

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66. QUESTION NO: 147
Which of the following can reduce the risk associated with password guessing attacks? (Select TWO).

Explanation

Implementing account-lockout thresholds can reduce the risk associated with password guessing attacks by locking out an account after a certain number of unsuccessful login attempts. This prevents attackers from repeatedly guessing passwords and gaining unauthorized access.

Implementing stronger password complexity policies can also reduce the risk of password guessing attacks. By requiring users to create passwords that are more complex and difficult to guess, such as using a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters, it becomes harder for attackers to guess or crack passwords through brute force or dictionary attacks.

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67. QUESTION NO: 177
When dealing with a 10BASE5 network, which of the following is the MOST likely security risk?

Explanation

A vampire tap is the most likely security risk when dealing with a 10BASE5 network. A vampire tap is a device that can be used to tap into a network cable and intercept data without being detected. This can lead to unauthorized access to the network and potential security breaches.

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68. QUESTION NO: 160
A company uses a policy of assigning passwords to users, by default the passwords are based off of the word $ervicexx, where xx is the last two numbers of the users cell phone number. The users are not required to change this password. Which of the following is this an example of?

Explanation

This is an example of weak passwords because the passwords are based off of a predictable pattern (the word $ervicexx, where xx is the last two numbers of the user's cell phone number). This makes it easier for someone to guess or crack the passwords, as they can easily determine the pattern and try different combinations based on the users' phone numbers.

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69. QUESTION NO: 194
Which of the following allows a technician to view the security permissions of a file?

Explanation

The access control list allows a technician to view the security permissions of a file. The access control list is a list of permissions associated with an object, such as a file or folder, that specifies which users or groups are granted access and the type of access they have. By viewing the access control list, a technician can see which users or groups have permission to read, write, or modify the file, providing insight into the file's security settings.

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70. QUESTION NO: 134
An administrator has been studying stateful packet inspection and wants to implement this security technique on the network. Which of the following devices could the administrator use to BEST utilize stateful packet inspection?

Explanation

A firewall is the best device to utilize stateful packet inspection. Stateful packet inspection is a security technique that examines the contents of packets and tracks the state of network connections. It analyzes the data packets in the context of the entire communication session, allowing the firewall to make more informed decisions about whether to allow or block the packets. Firewalls are specifically designed to perform this function and provide a higher level of security compared to other devices like hubs, IDS, or switches, which do not have the same capabilities for deep packet inspection and connection tracking.

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71. QUESTION NO: 158
Which of the following is an important reason for password protecting the BIOS?

Explanation

Password protecting the BIOS is important to keep a user from changing the boot order of the system. By setting a password on the BIOS, unauthorized users are prevented from accessing the BIOS settings and changing the boot order, which can help protect the system from potential security threats. This ensures that the system boots up in the intended order and prevents any unauthorized changes that may compromise the system's functionality or security.

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72. QUESTION NO: 200
A technician suspects that one of the network cards on the internal LAN is causing a broadcast storm. Which of the following would BEST diagnose which NIC is causing this problem?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer would be the best tool to diagnose which NIC is causing a broadcast storm. A protocol analyzer captures and analyzes network traffic, allowing the technician to identify the source of the excessive broadcast traffic. By examining the network packets and their source addresses, the technician can pinpoint the specific NIC that is generating the broadcast storm. The NIDS log file, local security log file, and local firewall log file may provide some information about network activity, but they would not provide the level of detail and visibility that a protocol analyzer offers.

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73. QUESTION NO: 107
Which of the following statements BEST describes the implicit deny concept?

Explanation

The implicit deny concept refers to the default behavior of denying access to all resources or actions unless they are explicitly granted permission. This means that by default, no access is allowed and only specific permissions that have been explicitly granted will be permitted.

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74. QUESTION NO: 117
Which of the following tools would be used to review network traffic for clear text passwords?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is used to review network traffic and analyze the data packets being transmitted. It can capture and examine the contents of these packets, including any clear text passwords that may be sent over the network. By analyzing the network traffic, a protocol analyzer can identify any security vulnerabilities and help in the detection of clear text passwords being transmitted, allowing for appropriate security measures to be implemented.

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75. QUESTION NO: 148
Which of the following is a common practice in forensic investigation?

Explanation

Performing a binary copy of the system's storage media is a common practice in forensic investigation. This involves creating an exact replica of the storage media, including all files, folders, and system data, at the binary level. It ensures that the original evidence is preserved and allows forensic experts to analyze the copied data without altering or damaging the original source. This method is crucial in maintaining the integrity of the evidence and ensuring that any findings or conclusions drawn from the investigation are reliable and admissible in court.

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76. QUESTION NO: 152
Which of the following is the BEST process of removing PII data from a disk drive before reuse?

Explanation

Sanitization is the best process of removing PII (Personally Identifiable Information) data from a disk drive before reuse. Sanitization refers to the process of permanently and irreversibly removing all data from a storage device, ensuring that it cannot be recovered by any means. This process involves overwriting the entire disk with random data patterns multiple times, effectively erasing all traces of the original data. Destruction, reformatting, and degaussing do not guarantee complete data removal and can still leave traces of sensitive information that can be recovered. Therefore, sanitization is the most secure method for protecting PII data.

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77. QUESTION NO: 197
A user reports that a web based application is not working after a browser upgrade. Before the upgrade, a login box would appear on the screen and disappear after login. The login box does not appear after the upgrade. Which of the following BEST describes what to check FIRST?

Explanation

The correct answer is "That the pop-up blocker application trusts this site." This is because the user reports that the login box does not appear after a browser upgrade, indicating that the pop-up blocker may be blocking the login box from appearing. Therefore, checking if the pop-up blocker application trusts this site would be the best first step to troubleshoot the issue.

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78. QUESTION NO: 121
Which of the following virtual machine components monitors and manages the various virtual instances?

Explanation

The correct answer is Hypervisor. The hypervisor is a virtual machine monitor that manages and monitors the various virtual instances running on a physical server. It is responsible for allocating and managing the resources of the physical server, such as CPU, memory, and storage, among the virtual machines. The hypervisor also ensures that the virtual machines are isolated from each other and that they have access to the necessary resources to run efficiently.

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79. QUESTION NO: 124
Which of the following is a security trait of a virtual machine?

Explanation

A virtual machine provides a restricted environment for executing code. This means that the virtual machine creates a secure and isolated environment where code can be executed without affecting the host system or other virtual machines. This restriction helps to prevent malicious code from accessing or modifying sensitive data or resources on the host system. It also allows for better control and management of the virtual machine's behavior, ensuring that it operates within defined boundaries and does not pose a security risk to the overall system.

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80. QUESTION NO: 161
Which of the following is an installable package that includes several patches from the same vendor for various applications?

Explanation

A service pack is an installable package that includes several patches from the same vendor for various applications. It is a comprehensive update that contains all previously released patches, fixes, and updates for a specific software product. Service packs are typically released periodically to address known issues, improve performance, and enhance functionality. They provide a convenient way for users to update their software to the latest version without having to individually install multiple patches or updates.

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81. QUESTION NO: 193
Which of the following uses a sandbox to manage a programs ability to access system resources?

Explanation

Java uses a sandbox to manage a program's ability to access system resources. A sandbox is a security mechanism that restricts the actions a program can perform, preventing it from accessing sensitive resources or executing potentially harmful operations. By running Java programs in a sandboxed environment, Java ensures that they cannot access or modify system files, network resources, or other potentially dangerous operations without explicit permission. This helps to protect the system from malicious or unintended actions by the program.

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82. QUESTION NO: 132
A company wants to host public servers on a new network. These servers will include a website and mail server.Which of the following should be implemented on the network to isolate these public hosts from the rest of the network?

Explanation

To isolate the public hosts from the rest of the network, a DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) should be implemented on the network. A DMZ is a separate network segment that sits between the internal network and the external network (Internet). By placing the public servers in the DMZ, they are separated from the internal network, providing an additional layer of security. This helps to prevent unauthorized access to the internal network if the public servers are compromised.

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83. QUESTION NO: 122
A smurf attack is an example of which of the following threats?

Explanation

A smurf attack is a type of Denial of Service (DoS) attack. In this attack, the attacker sends a large number of ICMP echo request packets (ping) to a broadcast IP address, with the source IP address spoofed to be the victim's IP address. The broadcast address causes the ping replies to be sent to all hosts on the network, overwhelming the victim's network and causing it to become inaccessible. Therefore, a smurf attack falls under the category of DoS threats, as it aims to disrupt the availability of a network or system.

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84. QUESTION NO: 165
Which of the following is the primary security risk with coaxial cable?

Explanation

Coaxial cables are commonly used for transmitting data signals, and one of the primary security risks associated with them is data emanation from the core. This means that the data being transmitted through the cable can potentially leak or be intercepted by unauthorized individuals. This can lead to a breach of sensitive information and compromise the security of the network. Therefore, it is important to implement proper security measures, such as encryption, to protect against data emanation from the core of coaxial cables.

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85. QUESTION NO: 167
Which of the following would allow an administrator to find weak passwords on the network?

Explanation

A rainbow table is a precomputed table that contains a list of encrypted passwords and their corresponding plaintext values. It allows an administrator to find weak passwords on the network by comparing the encrypted passwords in the table with the encrypted passwords stored on the network. If a match is found, it means that the password is weak and can be easily cracked.

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86. QUESTION NO: 172
Which of the following is the MOST recent addition to cryptography?

Explanation

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is the most recent addition to cryptography. It was selected as the replacement for the outdated Data Encryption Standard (DES) in 2001. AES is a symmetric encryption algorithm that is widely used for securing sensitive information. It offers a higher level of security and efficiency compared to DES and 3DES (Triple DES). PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is a hybrid encryption program that has been around since 1991 and is not as recent as AES.

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87. QUESTION NO: 185
Which of the following is the MOST likely to generate static electricity?

Explanation

Low humidity and high temperature are most likely to generate static electricity because static electricity is more likely to build up when the air is dry (low humidity) and the temperature is high. In these conditions, the air is less conductive, meaning that it does not easily allow the flow of electrons. As a result, when two objects come into contact or rub against each other, electrons can be transferred, causing a buildup of static electricity.

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88. QUESTION NO: 143
Which of the following is MOST likely provided by asymmetric key cryptography?

Explanation

Asymmetric key cryptography is a cryptographic method that uses two different keys, a public key and a private key. The public key is used for encryption, while the private key is used for decryption. This ensures that only the intended recipient can decrypt the message. Therefore, the most likely benefit provided by asymmetric key cryptography is confidentiality, as it ensures that the information remains secure and cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties.

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89. QUESTION NO: 153
When assigning permissions, which of the following concepts should be applied to enable a person to perform their job task?

Explanation

Least privilege is the concept that should be applied when assigning permissions to enable a person to perform their job task. This concept ensures that individuals are only given the minimum level of access necessary to perform their specific job responsibilities. By implementing least privilege, organizations can reduce the risk of unauthorized access, limit the potential damage caused by insider threats, and maintain a more secure and controlled environment.

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90. QUESTION NO: 170
Which of the following is a required privilege that an administrator must have in order to restore a public/private key set on a certificate authority (CA)?

Explanation

A recovery agent is a required privilege that an administrator must have in order to restore a public/private key set on a certificate authority (CA). A recovery agent is responsible for recovering encrypted data when the original encryption key is lost or unavailable. In the context of a certificate authority, the recovery agent would have the necessary permissions and capabilities to restore a public/private key set if needed. This privilege ensures that the administrator can perform necessary key recovery operations to maintain the security and functionality of the CA.

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91. QUESTION NO: 173
Which of the following requires a common pre-shared key before communication can begin?

Explanation

Symmetric key cryptography requires a common pre-shared key before communication can begin. In this encryption method, the same key is used for both encryption and decryption. This means that both the sender and the receiver must possess the same key in order to encrypt and decrypt messages. This key needs to be securely shared between the two parties before they can start communicating using symmetric key cryptography.

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92. QUESTION NO: 196
A user is convinced that someone is attempting to use their user account at night. Which of the following should an administrator check FIRST in order to prove or disprove this claim?

Explanation

To prove or disprove the claim that someone is attempting to use the user account at night, the administrator should check the local security logs first. The local security logs contain information about login attempts, including the time and source IP address. By reviewing these logs, the administrator can determine if there have been any unauthorized login attempts during the specified time period and identify any potential security breaches.

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93. QUESTION NO: 180
Which of the following uses a key ring?

Explanation

PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) uses a key ring. A key ring in PGP is a collection of encryption keys that are used for secure communication. The key ring includes both the public and private keys of the user. The public key is used for encryption, while the private key is used for decryption. PGP is a widely used encryption program that provides privacy and authentication for data communication.

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94. QUESTION NO: 144
All of the following are symmetric key algorithms EXCEPT:

Explanation

The correct answer is ECC. ECC stands for Elliptic Curve Cryptography, which is a type of asymmetric key algorithm. Unlike symmetric key algorithms such as Rijndael, 3DES, and RC4, which use the same key for both encryption and decryption, ECC uses a pair of keys (public and private) for encryption and decryption.

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95. QUESTION NO: 145
Which of the following is true about ECC algorithms?

Explanation

ECC algorithms are implemented in portable devices. This means that these algorithms are designed and optimized to be used on devices such as smartphones, tablets, and other mobile devices. The use of ECC algorithms in portable devices allows for efficient and secure communication and data encryption on these devices, ensuring the privacy and integrity of the information being transmitted or stored.

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96. QUESTION NO: 146
Which of the following is a way to encrypt session keys using SSL?

Explanation

Session keys are encrypted using an asymmetric algorithm in SSL. This is done to ensure the security of the session keys during transmission. Asymmetric encryption involves the use of a public key to encrypt the session key, which can then only be decrypted using the corresponding private key. This provides a secure way to transmit the session keys without exposing them to potential attackers.

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97. QUESTION NO: 141
An administrator does not want anyone to VPN from inside the network to a remote office or network. Which of the following protocols should be blocked outbound on the network?

Explanation

ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol) should be blocked outbound on the network. ISAKMP is used for establishing security associations and exchanging keying material for VPN connections. By blocking ISAKMP outbound, the administrator ensures that no one from inside the network can establish a VPN connection to a remote office or network.

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98. QUESTION NO: 118
Kerberos uses which of the following trusted entities to issue tickets?

Explanation

Kerberos uses the Key Distribution Center (KDC) to issue tickets. The KDC is a trusted entity that is responsible for authenticating users and granting them tickets, which they can then use to access various resources within the network. The KDC consists of two components: the Authentication Server (AS) and the Ticket Granting Server (TGS). The AS verifies the user's identity and issues a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT), while the TGS uses the TGT to issue service tickets for specific resources. Therefore, the correct answer is Key Distribution Center.

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99. QUESTION NO: 189
Which of the following allows a file to have different security permissions for users that have the same roles or user groups?

Explanation

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) allows a file to have different security permissions for users that have the same roles or user groups. This means that the owner of the file can grant or restrict access to specific users or groups based on their individual needs or requirements. DAC provides flexibility and allows for more granular control over file permissions, ensuring that different users with the same roles or group affiliations can have different levels of access to the file.

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100. QUESTION NO: 113
Which of the following are characteristics of a hash function? (Select TWO).

Explanation

A hash function is a mathematical function that takes an input (or "message") and returns a fixed-length string of characters, which is known as the hash value or hash code. One-way means that it is easy to compute the hash value from the input, but it is computationally infeasible to determine the original input from the hash value. This ensures data integrity and security. Additionally, a hash function may require a key to provide additional security and prevent unauthorized access or tampering with the data.

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QUESTION NO: 192 A user complains that the color laser printer...
QUESTION NO: 115 Which of the following might an attacker resort to in...
QUESTION NO: 128 After registering an email address on a website, a...
QUESTION NO: 135 Which of the following is the primary purpose of a...
QUESTION NO: 166 Which of the following is a collection of patches?
QUESTION NO: 102 A technician is reviewing the logical access control...
QUESTION NO: 174 Which of the following provides the MOST...
QUESTION NO: 111 Which of the following is a true statement with...
QUESTION NO: 119 Which of the following specifies a set of consistent...
QUESTION NO: 151 Which of the following type of fire suppression tools...
QUESTION NO: 176 Which of the following allows for notification when...
QUESTION NO: 187 Which of the following media is the LEAST likely to...
QUESTION NO: 190 A DMZ has a fake network that a hacker is attacking....
QUESTION NO: 195 A user is denied access to a file. The user had...
QUESTION NO: 162 Which of the following is a best practice to prevent...
QUESTION NO: 163 The RAS logs on a server show 100 errors in a two...
QUESTION NO: 116 Which of the following creates a security buffer...
QUESTION NO: 129 A technician is testing the security of a new...
QUESTION NO: 133 A user has decided that they do not want an internal...
QUESTION NO: 188 Which of the following allows a person to find...
QUESTION NO: 138 Which of the following is the primary purpose of a...
QUESTION NO: 154 While conducting a review of the system logs, a user...
QUESTION NO: 178 Which of the following allows a technician to scan...
QUESTION NO: 108 When is the BEST time to update antivirus...
QUESTION NO: 123 Which of the following is the BEST tool for allowing...
QUESTION NO: 142 An administrator is implementing a public website and...
QUESTION NO: 156 A user was trying to update an open file but when...
QUESTION NO: 103 How would a technician implement a security patch in...
QUESTION NO: 112 A technician suspects that a piece of malware is...
QUESTION NO: 184 Which of the following would use a group of bots to...
QUESTION NO: 114 Which of the following is the MOST secure...
QUESTION NO: 131 A user is redirected to a different website when the...
QUESTION NO: 155 Users do not want to enter credentials to each server...
QUESTION NO: 109 Why would a technician use a password cracker?
QUESTION NO: 110 Users on a network report that they are receiving...
QUESTION NO: 120 A companys website allows customers to search for a...
QUESTION NO: 136 An administrator wants to ensure that that no...
QUESTION NO: 179 Which of the following allows for proof that a...
QUESTION NO: 182 Sending a patch through a testing and approval...
QUESTION NO: 198 An intrusion has been detected on a company's network...
QUESTION NO: 137 Which of the following is a CRL composed of?
QUESTION NO: 157 Accessing a system or application using permissions...
QUESTION NO: 168 Which of the following is the BEST place where the...
QUESTION NO: 175 Which of the following allows devices attached to the...
QUESTION NO: 191 A company decides that the purchasing agent and the...
QUESTION NO: 199 A user needs to verify that a patch file downloaded...
QUESTION NO: 127 An administrator has developed an OS install that...
QUESTION NO: 140 A user is attempting to receive digitally signed and...
QUESTION NO: 150 Antivirus software products detect malware by...
QUESTION NO: 159 Which of the following is a software bundle...
QUESTION NO: 164 An administrator notices that former temporary...
QUESTION NO: 181 Which of the following allows for the highest level...
QUESTION NO: 186 Using an asymmetric key cryptography system, where...
QUESTION NO: 125 An unauthorized user intercepted a users password and...
QUESTION NO: 130 An administrator in a small office environment has...
QUESTION NO: 183 Sending continuous TCP requests to a device and...
QUESTION NO: 106 Which of the following BEST describes the term war...
QUESTION NO: 101 A technician is rebuilding the infrastructure for an...
QUESTION NO: 104 Which of the following is considered the weakest...
QUESTION NO: 139 An administrator wants to replace telnet with a more...
QUESTION NO: 169 Which of the following is established immediately...
QUESTION NO: 171 Which of the following algorithms have the smallest...
QUESTION NO: 126 Users are utilizing thumb drives to connect to USB...
QUESTION NO: 149 Which of the following is done to ensure appropriate...
QUESTION NO: 105 Which of the following encryption schemes is the...
QUESTION NO: 147 Which of the following can reduce the risk associated...
QUESTION NO: 177 When dealing with a 10BASE5 network, which of the...
QUESTION NO: 160 A company uses a policy of assigning passwords to...
QUESTION NO: 194 Which of the following allows a technician to view...
QUESTION NO: 134 An administrator has been studying stateful packet...
QUESTION NO: 158 Which of the following is an important reason for...
QUESTION NO: 200 A technician suspects that one of the network cards...
QUESTION NO: 107 Which of the following statements BEST describes the...
QUESTION NO: 117 Which of the following tools would be used to review...
QUESTION NO: 148 Which of the following is a common practice in...
QUESTION NO: 152 Which of the following is the BEST process of...
QUESTION NO: 197 A user reports that a web based application is not...
QUESTION NO: 121 Which of the following virtual machine components...
QUESTION NO: 124 Which of the following is a security trait of a...
QUESTION NO: 161 Which of the following is an installable package that...
QUESTION NO: 193 Which of the following uses a sandbox to manage a...
QUESTION NO: 132 A company wants to host public servers on a new...
QUESTION NO: 122 A smurf attack is an example of which of the...
QUESTION NO: 165 Which of the following is the primary security risk...
QUESTION NO: 167 Which of the following would allow an administrator...
QUESTION NO: 172 Which of the following is the MOST recent addition...
QUESTION NO: 185 Which of the following is the MOST likely to...
QUESTION NO: 143 Which of the following is MOST likely provided by...
QUESTION NO: 153 When assigning permissions, which of the following...
QUESTION NO: 170 Which of the following is a required privilege that...
QUESTION NO: 173 Which of the following requires a common pre-shared...
QUESTION NO: 196 A user is convinced that someone is attempting to use...
QUESTION NO: 180 Which of the following uses a key ring?
QUESTION NO: 144 All of the following are symmetric key algorithms...
QUESTION NO: 145 Which of the following is true about ECC algorithms?
QUESTION NO: 146 Which of the following is a way to encrypt session...
QUESTION NO: 141 An administrator does not want anyone to VPN from...
QUESTION NO: 118 Kerberos uses which of the following trusted...
QUESTION NO: 189 Which of the following allows a file to have...
QUESTION NO: 113 Which of the following are characteristics of a hash...
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