1.
Range cards are a record of
Correct Answer
B. Firing Data
Explanation
Range cards are a record of firing data. Firing data includes information such as the distance to the target, the type of ammunition used, the elevation and azimuth settings for the weapon, and any adjustments made during firing. Range cards are used by military personnel to keep track of this data for future reference and to ensure accurate and effective firing during training or combat situations.
2.
What does the acronym FPL stand for?
Correct Answer
A. Final Protective Line
Explanation
The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military tactics and refers to a line of defense that is established as a last resort to protect a position or to halt an enemy's advance. The Final Protective Line is typically heavily fortified and manned by troops ready to engage the enemy.
3.
Who assigns the final protective line (FPL) if the terrain supports grazing fire?
Correct Answer
A. Your leader
Explanation
In a situation where the terrain supports grazing fire, the responsibility of assigning the final protective line (FPL) falls on "Your leader." This implies that the leader of the group or team is responsible for determining and designating the FPL based on the terrain conditions and the specific tactical requirements of the situation. The leader's experience and knowledge of the terrain and the capabilities of their team make them the most suitable person to make this decision.
4.
What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?
Correct Answer
A. Prominent natural and manmade features where there are likely targets
Explanation
On the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, you should include prominent natural and manmade features where there are likely targets. This means identifying and marking on the sketch any significant natural or artificial elements that could potentially serve as targets for your firing position. By including these features on the sketch, you can better assess the tactical situation and plan your firing strategy accordingly.
5.
Targets in your primary area are labeled according to
Correct Answer
D. Priority
Explanation
Targets in your primary area are labeled according to priority. This means that each target is assigned a level of importance or urgency based on factors such as its potential impact, the level of threat it poses, or its strategic value. By prioritizing targets, it helps to allocate resources and attention effectively, ensuring that the most critical targets are addressed first.
6.
The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to
Correct Answer
A. Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon
Explanation
The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. This means that when clearing fields of fire, the objective is to have a clear line of sight and range to be able to identify and engage any potential threats or targets that may be within that field. It emphasizes the importance of maintaining situational awareness and being prepared to take action if necessary.
7.
When clearing fields of fire, start at your position and work forward at least how many meters?
Correct Answer
B. 35
Explanation
When clearing fields of fire, it is recommended to start at your position and work forward for at least 35 meters. This distance ensures that any potential threats within that range are identified and neutralized. It allows for a safe and effective clearing of the area, minimizing the risk of surprise attacks or ambushes. Starting at a shorter distance may leave potential hiding spots unchecked, putting the individual or group at greater risk.
8.
What do you do with the material you clear from your field of fire?
Correct Answer
B. Camouflage your position
Explanation
Clearing the material from your field of fire and then camouflaging your position is important for maintaining concealment and minimizing the chances of being detected by the enemy. By removing any debris or objects that could give away your position and then camouflaging it, you increase your chances of remaining hidden and maintaining a tactical advantage.
9.
What is the maximum range of the m4 carbine for a point target?
Correct Answer
C. 500 meters
Explanation
The maximum range of the M4 carbine for a point target is 500 meters. This means that the weapon is effective in accurately engaging and hitting a specific target at distances up to 500 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the M4 carbine may decrease, making it less reliable for engaging point targets.
10.
What is the maximum range of the M4 Carbine for an area target ?
Correct Answer
B. 600 meters
Explanation
The maximum range of the M4 Carbine for an area target is 600 meters. This means that the rifle is capable of accurately hitting a target within a radius of 600 meters. Beyond this distance, the effectiveness and accuracy of the rifle may decrease, making it less reliable for hitting targets.
11.
What is the function of the forward assist?
Correct Answer
B. Lock the bolt forward
Explanation
The forward assist is a feature on firearms, typically found on rifles, that allows the user to manually lock the bolt forward. This is useful in situations where the bolt does not fully close or lock on its own, ensuring that the firearm is ready to fire. It provides an extra level of security and reliability by ensuring that the bolt is fully in place and ready for action.
12.
When should you conduct a function check of your weapon?
Correct Answer
C. Whenever you reassemble it
Explanation
Whenever you reassemble your weapon, it is important to conduct a function check. This is because during disassembly and reassembly, there is a possibility of parts being misaligned or not properly seated, which can affect the functioning of the weapon. By conducting a function check after reassembly, you ensure that all components are in the correct position and the weapon is functioning properly before use. Conducting a function check at this point helps to ensure the safety and reliability of the weapon.
13.
While performing preventive maintenance checks and services, which rail adapter assembly (RAS) can the user remove?
Correct Answer
C. Lower
Explanation
During preventive maintenance checks and services, the user can remove the lower rail adapter assembly (RAS). This suggests that the lower RAS is designed to be easily removable for maintenance purposes. It is likely that the upper RAS is not meant to be removed or requires more complex procedures to do so. The right and left options do not provide any relevant information in this context.
14.
What accessories can be mounted on the bottom rail of the M4 Rail Adapter System?
Correct Answer
D. Only accessories that do not require zero retention
Explanation
The correct answer is "only accessories that do not require zero retention." This means that only accessories that do not need to be adjusted for zero retention can be mounted on the bottom rail of the M4 Rail Adapter System. This suggests that accessories that require adjustments or zeroing, such as sights, cannot be mounted on the bottom rail.
15.
What rail must be removed first before installing the pistol grip?
Correct Answer
D. Rail cover / heat shield
Explanation
Before installing the pistol grip, the rail cover/heat shield must be removed first. This is because the rail cover/heat shield is located on top of the rail assembly and covers the area where the pistol grip needs to be installed. Removing the rail cover/heat shield allows for easy access to the rail assembly and facilitates the installation of the pistol grip.
16.
What is the standard round for the M4 series weapon?
Correct Answer
A. M855 Ball
Explanation
The M855 Ball is the standard round for the M4 series weapon. This round is commonly used by the military and law enforcement agencies. It is a 5.56x45mm NATO cartridge with a lead core and a steel penetrator. The M855 Ball round is designed to provide reliable performance and effective penetration against various targets. It is widely used for training and combat purposes due to its consistent performance and compatibility with the M4 series weapon.
17.
The Air Force's primary use for the 5.56mm frangible cartridge is training
Correct Answer
D. On ranges with strict surface danger zone restrictions
Explanation
The Air Force primarily uses the 5.56mm frangible cartridge on ranges with strict surface danger zone restrictions. This suggests that the cartridge is specifically designed to minimize the risk of ricochets or fragments causing damage or injury outside of the designated range area. It is likely that the frangible cartridge breaks apart upon impact, reducing the chances of dangerous projectiles traveling beyond the intended target area.
18.
What is the maximum range for the M9 Pistol?
Correct Answer
D. 1800 meters
Explanation
The M9 Pistol has a maximum range of 1800 meters. This means that the pistol is capable of accurately firing a projectile up to a distance of 1800 meters. This range allows for effective use of the pistol in a variety of combat scenarios, providing the user with the ability to engage targets at a significant distance.
19.
The front sight of the M9 pistol is
Correct Answer
C. Fixed
Explanation
The front sight of the M9 pistol is fixed. This means that it is permanently attached to the pistol and cannot be adjusted or moved. A fixed front sight is commonly used in firearms to provide a consistent point of aim and ensure accuracy. It is designed to be reliable and not easily affected by external factors such as recoil or handling.
20.
When the slide is fully forward, what is the first step in the immediate actions procedures for the M-9 pistol?
Correct Answer
C. Ensure that decocking / safety lever is in the fire (up) position
Explanation
The first step in the immediate actions procedures for the M-9 pistol when the slide is fully forward is to ensure that the decocking/safety lever is in the fire (up) position. This is important to ensure that the pistol is ready to be fired and that the safety mechanism is disengaged.
21.
Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part(s) of the M9 pistol to prevent rusting?
Correct Answer
D. Steel
Explanation
The cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on the steel parts of the M9 pistol to prevent rusting. Steel is susceptible to rusting when exposed to moisture, so applying a CLP or LSA helps to protect the steel from corrosion and keep it in good condition. The aluminum, rubber, and plastic parts of the pistol do not require the same level of protection against rusting.
22.
What is the standard cartridge used with the M9 Pistol?
Correct Answer
C. M882
Explanation
The standard cartridge used with the M9 Pistol is the M882.
23.
Which M9 Pistol ammunition round is restricted to law enforcement use?
Correct Answer
A. MK243 MOD 0
Explanation
The MK243 MOD 0 ammunition round is restricted to law enforcement use.
24.
The M203 is classified as what type of weapon?
Correct Answer
D. Anti-personnel
Explanation
The M203 is classified as an anti-personnel weapon. This type of weapon is specifically designed to target and engage enemy personnel, rather than armored vehicles, aircraft, or being operated by a crew. The M203 is a single-shot grenade launcher that is mounted under the barrel of a rifle, typically the M16 or M4. It is used to launch explosive grenades at a target, making it an effective weapon for engaging and neutralizing enemy personnel in combat situations.
25.
In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging a fire-ream sized are target?
Correct Answer
B. 350
Explanation
The maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging a fire-team sized area target is 350 meters. This means that the M203 can accurately engage and hit targets within a range of 350 meters.
26.
When the M203 fails to fire during training, how many seconds should you wait before opening the barrel assembly?
Correct Answer
C. 30
Explanation
When the M203 fails to fire during training, it is important to wait for 30 seconds before opening the barrel assembly. This waiting period allows for any potential hangfire, which is a delay in the ignition of the round, to occur. Opening the barrel assembly too soon could result in a dangerous situation if the round eventually ignites. Therefore, waiting for 30 seconds ensures safety and proper handling of the weapon.
27.
What is the kill radius for an M406, high-explosive round?
Correct Answer
A. 5 meters
Explanation
The kill radius for an M406 high-explosive round is 5 meters. This means that within a 5-meter radius of the explosion, the round is capable of causing lethal damage to targets.
28.
Which M203 round is used to mark the location of personnel for others to see from the ground or the air?
Correct Answer
B. Ground marker
Explanation
The ground marker round is used to mark the location of personnel for others to see from the ground or the air. This round is specifically designed to create a visible and easily identifiable marker on the ground, making it easier for personnel to locate the designated area. Unlike the other options, such as the white star cluster or high explosive rounds, the ground marker round is specifically intended for marking purposes rather than causing damage or illumination.
29.
What is the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?
Correct Answer
C. 20 meters
Explanation
The danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203 is 20 meters. This means that within a radius of 20 meters from the point of impact, there is a potential danger to personnel or objects. It is important to be aware of this danger radius and take necessary precautions when using the M781 practice round to ensure the safety of individuals and surroundings.
30.
What is the M249 AR maximum effective range for a point target using a bipod?
Correct Answer
B. 600 meters
Explanation
The correct answer is 600 meters. The M249 AR has a maximum effective range of 600 meters for a point target when using a bipod. This means that the weapon is designed to accurately engage and hit individual targets at distances up to 600 meters when the bipod is deployed to provide stability and support.
31.
When firing the M249 AR at a rapid rate of fire, how often must you change the barrel?
Correct Answer
A. Every 2 minutes
Explanation
When firing the M249 AR at a rapid rate of fire, it is necessary to change the barrel every 2 minutes. This is because continuous firing causes the barrel to heat up, which can lead to overheating and decreased accuracy. Changing the barrel frequently helps to prevent these issues and ensures optimal performance of the weapon.
32.
What assembly is the support for all major components on the M249 AR?
Correct Answer
B. Receiver
Explanation
The receiver is the correct answer because it is the main body of the M249 AR that houses and supports all the major components. It is where the barrel, trigger mechanism, and return rod and transfer are attached. Without the receiver, the other components would not be able to function properly or be securely connected.
33.
What are the M249 AR elevation knob drum range settings?
Correct Answer
C. 300-1,000 meters
Explanation
The M249 AR elevation knob drum range settings are used to adjust the elevation of the weapon for different target distances. The correct answer is 300-1,000 meters, indicating that this range of distances can be effectively targeted using the M249 AR.
34.
What type of M249 AR ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks?
Correct Answer
A. M199 Dummy
Explanation
The M199 Dummy ammunition is used during mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks. This type of ammunition does not contain any explosive or propellant material, making it safe for these training purposes. It is designed to simulate the weight and dimensions of live ammunition, allowing soldiers to practice weapon handling and familiarize themselves with the M249 AR without the risk of firing live rounds.
35.
Which round is used during training to simulate live fire?
Correct Answer
C. M200
Explanation
The M200 round is used during training to simulate live fire.
36.
Which round has a gliding , metal-jacketed , lead alloy core bullet with a steel penetrator?
Correct Answer
A. M855
Explanation
The correct answer is M855. M855 is a round that is commonly known as the "green tip" due to its green-colored tip. It is a 5.56x45mm NATO round used by the United States military. The round features a gliding, metal-jacketed, lead alloy core bullet with a steel penetrator. This steel penetrator enhances the round's ability to penetrate barriers and armor.
37.
Ammunition is fed into the M240B from a
Correct Answer
B. 100-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic split link belt
Explanation
The correct answer is 100-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic split link belt. A bandoleer is a type of ammunition belt that is used to feed rounds into a firearm. The M240B is a machine gun that is typically fed ammunition from a 100-round bandoleer. The disintegrating metallic split link belt refers to the type of belt that holds the ammunition together. It is designed to easily break apart as the rounds are fired, allowing for smooth feeding of the ammunition into the gun.
38.
What is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?
Correct Answer
D. 800 meters
Explanation
The M240B has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for a point target with a tripod. This means that the weapon can accurately engage and hit a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod. The tripod provides stability and support, allowing for more precise aiming and increased effective range compared to firing the weapon without a tripod.
39.
When firing the M240B at a sustained rate of fire, you must change your barrel every
Correct Answer
C. 10 minutes
Explanation
When firing the M240B at a sustained rate of fire, it is necessary to change the barrel every 10 minutes. This is because sustained firing causes the barrel to heat up rapidly, which can lead to overheating and a decrease in accuracy. Changing the barrel allows for proper cooling and prevents any potential malfunctions or damage to the weapon.
40.
When firing the M240B at a rapid rate of fire, you must change the barrel every
Correct Answer
A. 2 minutes
Explanation
When firing the M240B at a rapid rate of fire, the barrel heats up quickly due to the high volume of rounds being fired. This rapid heating can cause the barrel to become damaged or even warp, leading to a loss of accuracy and potential malfunctions. To prevent this, it is necessary to change the barrel every 2 minutes to allow it to cool down and maintain optimal performance.
41.
How many ways can the M40B be loaded?
Correct Answer
B. 2
Explanation
The given question is asking for the number of ways the M40B can be loaded. The answer is 2, indicating that there are two possible ways to load the M40B.
42.
How many steps does the M240B have in the cycle of operations?
Correct Answer
C. 8
Explanation
The M240B has 8 steps in its cycle of operations.
43.
What type of ammunition is used for observation of fire, incendiary effects, signaling, and training?
Correct Answer
C. M62
Explanation
The correct answer is M62. M62 ammunition is used for observation of fire, incendiary effects, signaling, and training. It is commonly used by military forces for these purposes.
44.
What type of ammunition is used against light materials and personnel and for range training?
Correct Answer
B. M80
Explanation
The M80 ammunition is used against light materials and personnel and for range training. It is a 7.62x51mm NATO cartridge that is commonly used by the military. It is effective against unarmored targets and is suitable for training purposes due to its availability and affordability.
45.
Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?
Correct Answer
D. MK19
Explanation
The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.
46.
What is the maximum effective range of the MK19 for an area target?
Correct Answer
D. 2,212 meters
Explanation
The maximum effective range of the MK19 for an area target is 2,212 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting targets within this distance. It indicates the maximum distance at which the MK19 can effectively deliver its firepower and engage multiple targets in an area.
47.
What is the maximum effective range of the MK19 for a point target?
Correct Answer
B. 1,500 meters
Explanation
The maximum effective range of the MK19 for a point target is 1,500 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 1,500 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the weapon may significantly decrease.
48.
Which tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?
Correct Answer
C. M3 tripod
Explanation
The M3 tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19.
49.
Which ammunition is an inert training practice round with a propellant charge?
Correct Answer
A. MK385A1
Explanation
The MK385A1 is the correct answer because it is an inert training practice round with a propellant charge. This means that it is designed specifically for training purposes and does not contain explosive or live ammunition. The propellant charge allows for realistic training scenarios without the danger of causing harm or damage.
50.
What is the direct fire support maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?
Correct Answer
A. 1,830 meters
Explanation
The direct fire support maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun is 1,830 meters.