Hazard Identification And Control Policy: Trivia Quiz!

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  • 1/77 Questions

    (001) Who will review the AF Form 457 for completeness and accuracy once it is completed?

    • Individual.
    • Supervisor
    • Commander
    • Functional manager
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About This Quiz

Hazard identification and control policy are put in place to safeguard people in their place of work or environment they operate in. It is an important course for people to undertake to ensure that people perform to the best of their ability in a safe place. The quiz below is designed to test your understanding of it. Give it a See moreshot!

Hazard Identification And Control Policy: Trivia Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Who should be informed first when a hazard is discovered

    • Other individuals in the work center

    • Supervisor of the area involved

    • Functional managers for the work center

    • Squadron or flight commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor of the area involved
    Explanation
    The supervisor of the area involved should be informed first when a hazard is discovered. They are directly responsible for the safety and well-being of their team and have the authority to take immediate action to mitigate the hazard. By informing the supervisor, they can assess the situation, determine the appropriate course of action, and communicate the hazard to other relevant individuals such as functional managers or squadron commanders if necessary. This ensures that the appropriate steps are taken promptly to address the hazard and prevent any potential harm or accidents.

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  • 3. 

    Who reviews a Hazard Report (HR) to determine whether it is a valid hazard and whether any immediate interim control measures are necessary?

    • Supervisor

    • Functional manager

    • Individual writing the report.

    • Base safety office.

    Correct Answer
    A. Base safety office.
    Explanation
    The base safety office is responsible for reviewing a Hazard Report (HR) to determine its validity as a hazard and to assess whether any immediate interim control measures are required. This office is specifically designated to handle safety-related matters and has the authority to make decisions regarding hazard identification and control measures. Supervisors, functional managers, and the individual writing the report may have input or involvement in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the base safety office.

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  • 4. 

    Within how many days should a hazard be investigated if there is immediate danger

    • One.

    • Three

    • Five

    • Seven

    Correct Answer
    A. One.
    Explanation
    If there is immediate danger, a hazard should be investigated within one day to ensure prompt action is taken to mitigate the risk and prevent any harm or accidents. This urgency is necessary to prioritize the safety of individuals and prevent any further harm or damage.

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  • 5. 

    How many days does the person responsible for making sure corrective actions are completed have to return a Hazard Report (HR) to base safety?

    • Three

    • Five

    • Seven

    • Ten

    Correct Answer
    A. Ten
    Explanation
    The person responsible for making sure corrective actions are completed has ten days to return a Hazard Report (HR) to base safety. This allows them sufficient time to thoroughly investigate the hazard, implement necessary corrective actions, and document their findings before submitting the report.

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  • 6. 

    Into what sections are Services Training and Education Plan (STEP) folders broken down?

    • Major command and air staff

    • Conus and O-Conus

    • Military and civilian duty

    • Active duty and Guard or Reserve

    Correct Answer
    A. Military and civilian duty
    Explanation
    The Services Training and Education Plan (STEP) folders are broken down into sections based on military and civilian duty. This means that the folders are organized according to whether the individual is serving in the military or as a civilian.

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  • 7. 

    What tool was developed to present information in checklist format that tests individuals to a Go/No-Go level?

    • Services Training Aid (STA)

    • Specialty Training Standard (STS)

    • Services Training and Education Plan (STEP)

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Services Training Aid (STA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Services Training Aid (STA). The STA is a tool that was developed to present information in checklist format. It is used to test individuals to a Go/No-Go level, meaning it determines whether they meet the required standards or not. The other options listed, Specialty Training Standard (STS), Services Training and Education Plan (STEP), and Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP), are not specifically designed to present information in checklist format or to test individuals to a Go/No-Go level.

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  • 8. 

    What part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is not required to be in each individual training record?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. I
  • 9. 

    How do you identify all duty position requirements in the master task listing (MTL)?

    • Circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement

    • Highlight the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement

    • List the duty position requirements on the AF Form797, Job Qualification Standard (JQS)

    • List the duty position requirements on the AF IMT 623A, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    Correct Answer
    A. Circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement
    Explanation
    To identify all duty position requirements in the master task listing (MTL), one should circle the sub-paragraph numbers next to the task statement. This allows for easy reference and identification of the specific requirements associated with each task.

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  • 10. 

    What does the new supervisor do each time an Airman changes duty positions?

    • Orders new Career Development Courses (CDC) and enters the Airman into training

    • Creates a new AF Form 623, OJT Record for the new section

    • Records the position change on the AF Form797, Job Qualification Standard (JQS)

    • Performs an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasks

    Correct Answer
    A. Performs an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasks
    Explanation
    The new supervisor performs an initial evaluation that includes a review of all previously certified tasks each time an Airman changes duty positions. This is important to ensure that the Airman is qualified and competent to perform the tasks required in their new position. It allows the supervisor to assess the Airman's skills and identify any additional training or support that may be needed. This evaluation helps to maintain the overall proficiency and readiness of the unit.

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  • 11. 

    Within how many days must supervisors transcribe training records when a revised Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is published?

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 120
    Explanation
    Supervisors must transcribe training records within 120 days when a revised Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is published.

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  • 12. 

    Who determines that an Airman is not qualified in a particular task?

    • Trainee

    • Task Certifier

    • Trainer

    • Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor determines that an Airman is not qualified in a particular task. As the person responsible for overseeing the Airman's performance and progress, the supervisor has the authority to assess the Airman's abilities and determine if they are not qualified in a specific task. The supervisor's decision is based on their knowledge of the task requirements and the Airman's performance and training progress.

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  • 13. 

    Who is responsible for writing the workcenter Master Training Plan (WTP)?

    • Workcenter NCOIC

    • Activity manager

    • Unit training manager

    • Major command training manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Activity manager
    Explanation
    The activity manager is responsible for writing the workcenter Master Training Plan (WTP). This individual oversees the overall operations and activities of the workcenter and has the authority to develop and implement training plans. They have a comprehensive understanding of the workcenter's training needs and requirements, and are in the best position to create a tailored and effective training plan for the personnel in the workcenter.

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  • 14. 

    Who identifies training needs within their work center?

    • Trainee

    • Trainer

    • Supervisor

    • Task Certifier

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor is responsible for identifying training needs within their work center. As a supervisor, they have a comprehensive understanding of the tasks and responsibilities of their team members. They can assess the skills and knowledge gaps and determine the training required to improve performance and ensure that employees are equipped to carry out their duties effectively. The supervisor plays a crucial role in identifying training needs and coordinating the necessary training programs to enhance the skills and capabilities of their team.

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  • 15. 

    Who is required to maintain task qualifications when conducting training?

    • Trainee

    • Trainer

    • Supervisor

    • Task Certifier

    Correct Answer
    A. Trainer
    Explanation
    Trainers are required to maintain task qualifications when conducting training. This means that trainers must have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively train others in specific tasks. They need to stay updated and proficient in the tasks they are training on in order to provide accurate and relevant information to trainees. By maintaining their qualifications, trainers ensure that they are capable of delivering high-quality training and promoting a safe and productive learning environment.

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  • 16. 

    Who is the focal point of the Air Force training program?

    • Trainee

    • Trainer

    • Supervisor

    • Task Certifier.

    Correct Answer
    A. Trainee
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Trainee. In the Air Force training program, the trainee is the central focus. They are the individuals who are undergoing the training and learning the necessary skills and knowledge required for their role in the Air Force. The program is designed to provide the trainees with the necessary training and guidance to become competent and efficient in their duties. The trainers, supervisors, and task certifiers are all involved in supporting and guiding the trainees, but ultimately, the trainee is the main focus of the program.

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  • 17. 

    Who controls manpower by authorizing end strengths and appropriating civilian work years and military grade distributions

    • Congress

    • Department of Defense (DOD)

    • Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)

    • Major commands (MAJCOM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Congress
    Explanation
    Congress controls manpower by authorizing end strengths and appropriating civilian work years and military grade distributions. As the legislative branch of the United States government, Congress has the power to make decisions regarding the size and composition of the military. They are responsible for setting the overall number of personnel and determining how many civilian work years and military grades are allocated. This control allows Congress to shape the manpower resources of the military and ensure that it aligns with national defense priorities and budgetary considerations.

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  • 18. 

    Who establishes policies and procedures to define creditable manpower requirements?

    • Congress

    • Department of defense (DOD)

    • Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)

    • Major commands (MAJCOM)

    Correct Answer
    A. Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)
    Explanation
    Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) establishes policies and procedures to define creditable manpower requirements. This means that HQ USAF is responsible for determining the necessary number of personnel and the specific qualifications and skills they must possess in order to meet the manpower needs of the Air Force. They develop and implement these policies and procedures to ensure that the Air Force has the appropriate number and type of personnel to effectively carry out its missions and operations.

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  • 19. 

    Who develops manpower standards to provide an affordable level of service?

    • Head Quarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)

    • Air Force Manpower

    • Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) functional managers

    • Major command (MAJCOM) functional managers

    Correct Answer
    A. Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) functional managers
    Explanation
    HQ USAF functional managers develop manpower standards to provide an affordable level of service. These managers are responsible for creating and implementing guidelines and standards for the allocation of manpower resources within the United States Air Force. They ensure that the level of service provided is both effective and cost-efficient, taking into account budgetary constraints and operational requirements. By developing these standards, HQ USAF functional managers help to ensure that the Air Force can meet its manpower needs while also maintaining fiscal responsibility.

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  • 20. 

    Wartime man-hour availability factors are reviewed

    • Annually

    • On even numbered years

    • Every three years

    • Every four years

    Correct Answer
    A. Every three years
    Explanation
    Wartime man-hour availability factors, which refer to the availability of manpower during times of war, are reviewed every three years. This means that the factors are assessed and evaluated for any changes or updates every three years. This regular review allows for adjustments to be made based on any changes in manpower availability, ensuring that accurate and up-to-date information is used in wartime planning and decision-making.

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  • 21. 

    Who authorizes the activation of Air Reserve Component (ARC) units?

    • Secretary of the Air Force

    • Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • Head Quarters Air Force Reserve (HQ AFRES)

    • Air Education and Training Command (AETC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretary of the Air Force
    Explanation
    The Secretary of the Air Force authorizes the activation of Air Reserve Component (ARC) units. This is because the Secretary of the Air Force is responsible for overseeing and managing the operations and activities of the United States Air Force, including the activation of reserve units. The Secretary of the Air Force has the authority to make decisions regarding the readiness and deployment of ARC units based on the needs and requirements of the Air Force.

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  • 22. 

    How many days annually can the Air Force use non-extended active duty (EAD) officers and Airmen military personnel appropriation (MPA) man-days to meet short term needs?

    • 89

    • 139

    • 179

    • 365

    Correct Answer
    A. 139
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 139. This means that the Air Force can use non-extended active duty officers and Airmen military personnel appropriation man-days for 139 days annually to meet short term needs.

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  • 23. 

    How many types of manpower does the Air Force rely on to do its mission?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    The Air Force relies on three types of manpower to accomplish its mission.

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  • 24. 

    What do base-level planners use to determine wartime in-place requirements and resources?

    • Operational plans (OPlan)

    • Base-level planning process (BLPP)

    • Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)

    • Contingency Operation/Mobility Planning and Execution System (COMPES)

    Correct Answer
    A. Base-level planning process (BLPP)
    Explanation
    Base-level planners use the base-level planning process (BLPP) to determine wartime in-place requirements and resources. The BLPP is a systematic approach that helps in identifying and analyzing the resources and capabilities available at the base level during wartime. It involves assessing the current state of resources, evaluating potential threats and scenarios, and developing plans to allocate and utilize resources effectively. By using the BLPP, base-level planners can ensure that they have the necessary resources and capabilities to support military operations during wartime.

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  • 25. 

    What are emergency essential (EE) positions?

    • Civilian positions required for direct support of combat operations

    • Military positions required for direct support of contingency duties

    • Civilian positions required to be on call 24 hours per day seven days per week

    • Military positions required to be on call 24 hours per day seven days per week

    Correct Answer
    A. Civilian positions required for direct support of combat operations
    Explanation
    Emergency essential (EE) positions are civilian positions that are necessary for providing direct support to combat operations. These positions play a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of military operations during emergencies or contingencies. They are responsible for providing essential services and support to military personnel in combat situations. These positions are critical for maintaining the operational readiness and effectiveness of military forces during times of crisis.

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  • 26. 

    What office develops, coordinates, and executes nonappropriated fund (NAF) civilian personnel policy and approves essential procedural guidance for Air Force NAF program management?

    • Head Quarters Air Force personnel Center (HQ AFPC)

    • Head Quarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA)

    • Head Quarters United States Air Force Installations and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV)

    • Major command services (MAJCOM/SV)

    Correct Answer
    A. Head Quarters United States Air Force Installations and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV)
    Explanation
    Headquarters United States Air Force Installations and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV) is the office that develops, coordinates, and executes nonappropriated fund (NAF) civilian personnel policy and approves essential procedural guidance for the Air Force NAF program management. This office is responsible for managing the civilian personnel within the NAF program and ensuring that appropriate policies and procedures are in place for their employment and management. The other options listed are not specifically responsible for NAF civilian personnel policy and program management.

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  • 27. 

    Who approves a nonappropriated fund (NAF) Instrumentalities Memorandum of Agreement (NAFI MOA)?

    • Major command services (MAJCOM/SV) director

    • Installation commander

    • Base contracting officer

    • Base Services commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander
    Explanation
    The installation commander approves a nonappropriated fund (NAF) Instrumentalities Memorandum of Agreement (NAFI MOA). This individual is responsible for overseeing the operations and management of the installation, including the approval of agreements related to nonappropriated fund instrumentalities.

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  • 28. 

    What allows continued in-house operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower?

    • Air Force Reserve backfills

    • National Guard backfills

    • Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA)

    • Non-strategic source MOAs

    Correct Answer
    A. Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA)
    Explanation
    Strategic source memorandums of agreement (MOA) allow continued in-house operation of activities despite the loss of appropriated fund (APF) manpower. These agreements provide a way for organizations to obtain necessary resources and support from other sources, such as other departments or agencies, to ensure the continuity of operations. By leveraging these agreements, organizations can maintain their in-house operations even when facing a loss of APF manpower.

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  • 29. 

    At what level are non-strategic memorandums of agreement (MOA) approved?

    • Head Quarters United States Air Force Installations and Logistics (HQ USAF/ILV).

    • Head Quarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA)

    • Major command services (MAJCOM/SV)

    • Wing

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing
    Explanation
    Non-strategic memorandums of agreement (MOA) are approved at the Wing level. This means that the decision to approve these MOAs lies with the leadership of the specific Air Force Wing. The other options listed, such as HQ USAF/ILV, HQ AFSVA, and MAJCOM/SV, are higher levels of authority within the Air Force, but they do not have the responsibility of approving non-strategic MOAs.

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  • 30. 

    A regular non-appropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed how many hours a week?

    • 10 to 15

    • 15 to 20

    • 20 to 40

    • Over 40

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 to 40
    Explanation
    A regular non-appropriated funds (NAF) employee is guaranteed to work between 20 to 40 hours per week. This means that they will have a minimum of 20 hours of work each week and a maximum of 40 hours. The actual number of hours they work within this range may vary depending on the specific job requirements and scheduling needs.

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  • 31. 

    What document is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into a finite structure of authorizations by work center?

    • Unit authorization file

    • Unit manpower document (UMD)

    • Unit personnel management roster (UPMR)

    • Alpha roster

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit manpower document (UMD)
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is a detailed manpower listing that reflects the distribution of manpower allocations into a finite structure of authorizations by work center. It provides a comprehensive overview of the manpower resources within a unit, including information on the number of personnel allocated to each work center. The UMD is an essential document for personnel management and resource allocation within a unit.

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  • 32. 

    What is the primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission?

    • Unit Manpower Document (UMD

    • Authorized Manning Document (AMD)

    • Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)

    • Unit Manning and Personnel Management Roster (UMPMR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD
    Explanation
    The primary document that reflects positions authorized to accomplish the mission is the Unit Manpower Document (UMD). This document outlines the specific positions and manpower requirements needed for a unit to carry out its mission effectively. It provides a comprehensive overview of the authorized positions within the unit, including job titles, ranks, and responsibilities. The UMD is an essential tool for unit leaders to manage and allocate manpower resources efficiently.

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  • 33. 

    What type funds are used to support day to day operations?

    • Operation and maintenance (O&M)

    • Procurement

    • Fallout

    • Non-appropriated

    Correct Answer
    A. Operation and maintenance (O&M)
    Explanation
    Operation and maintenance (O&M) funds are used to support day to day operations. These funds cover expenses such as salaries, utilities, supplies, and other costs necessary for the regular functioning of an organization or project. O&M funds are typically allocated annually and are essential for the smooth operation and maintenance of facilities, equipment, and personnel.

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  • 34. 

    What funds are used primarily to procure equipment with an initial cost of $50,000 or more?

    • Operation and maintenance (O&M)

    • Procurement

    • Fallout

    • Non-appropriated

    Correct Answer
    A. Procurement
    Explanation
    Procurement funds are primarily used to procure equipment with an initial cost of $50,000 or more. These funds are specifically allocated for the purpose of purchasing equipment and ensuring that the necessary resources are available to acquire the required equipment.

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  • 35. 

    What funds are from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress?

    • Operation and maintenance (O&M)

    • Procurement

    • Fallout

    • Non-appropriated

    Correct Answer
    A. Fallout
    Explanation
    Supplemental appropriations passed by Congress refer to additional funds allocated for specific purposes beyond what was originally budgeted. The term "fallout" in this context likely refers to funds designated for emergency or unforeseen situations, such as natural disasters or military operations. These funds are typically used for immediate response and recovery efforts. Therefore, "fallout" can be considered as one of the funds from supplemental appropriations passed by Congress.

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  • 36. 

    What funds are self-generated from sources other than congressional appropriation?

    • Operation and maintenance (O&M)

    • Procurement

    • Fallout

    • Non-appropriated

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-appropriated
    Explanation
    Non-appropriated funds are generated from sources other than congressional appropriation. These funds are typically generated through activities such as fees, charges, and sales of goods or services. Unlike appropriated funds, which are provided by Congress for specific purposes, non-appropriated funds are generated by the organization itself and can be used for various purposes as determined by the organization. These funds provide organizations with additional flexibility and autonomy in funding their operations and programs.

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  • 37. 

    What is the first step in the budget process?

    • Write a budget

    • Identify your unit’s mission

    • Establish the requirements of your operation

    • Establish and write down the activity’s goals

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify your unit’s mission
    Explanation
    The first step in the budget process is to identify your unit's mission. This is important because it sets the overall direction and purpose of your unit, which will then guide the budgeting decisions and priorities. By understanding the mission, you can determine the specific goals and objectives that need to be achieved, and allocate resources accordingly. This step ensures that the budget aligns with the overall mission and objectives of your unit.

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  • 38. 

    What is the second step in the budget process?

    • Write a budget

    • Identify your unit’s mission

    • Establish the requirements of your operation

    • Establish and write down the activity’s goals

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish and write down the activity’s goals
    Explanation
    The second step in the budget process is to establish and write down the activity's goals. This step is important because it helps to determine the specific objectives and targets that the budget will support. By clearly defining the goals, it becomes easier to allocate resources and make budget decisions that align with the overall mission and objectives of the organization. This step also ensures that the budget is focused on achieving specific outcomes and can be used as a guide for evaluating performance and progress towards those goals.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is not one of the three budgeting responsibility categories?

    • Operational

    • Administrative

    • Personnel

    • Policy

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel
    Explanation
    The three budgeting responsibility categories are typically operational, administrative, and policy. Personnel is not considered one of these categories because it refers to the individuals within an organization rather than a specific area of responsibility for budgeting purposes.

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  • 40. 

    Which budget responsibility does the resource management flight chief (RMFC) execute

    • Operational

    • Administrative

    • Personnel.

    • Policy.

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrative
    Explanation
    The resource management flight chief (RMFC) executes administrative budget responsibilities. This means that they are responsible for managing and overseeing the financial aspects of the organization, including budget planning, tracking and reporting, and ensuring compliance with financial policies and regulations. They may also be involved in resource allocation and procurement processes.

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  • 41. 

    Within the Force Support Squadron (FSS), who is solely responsible for establishing budgetary policy?

    • Resource management flight chief (RMFC)

    • Supervisor

    • Activity Manager

    • FSS Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. FSS Commander
    Explanation
    The FSS Commander is solely responsible for establishing budgetary policy within the Force Support Squadron (FSS). This means that they have the authority and decision-making power to determine how funds will be allocated and managed within the squadron. As the commander, they have the overall responsibility for the financial management of the FSS and ensuring that resources are used effectively and efficiently. The RMFC, supervisor, and activity manager may have roles in supporting the budgetary process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the FSS Commander.

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  • 42. 

    What budget is prepared to forecast all income and expenses for each cost center in every Services activity with income and expenses?

    • Appropriated

    • Cash flow

    • Operating

    • Requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Operating
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Operating". An operating budget is prepared to forecast all income and expenses for each cost center in every services activity with income and expenses. This budget helps in planning and managing the financial resources of the organization, ensuring that there is enough funding for the day-to-day operations and activities.

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  • 43. 

    In order to be responsive to mission needs and requirements, the contracting system must award contracts that are in the best interest of the

    • Individual

    • Contractor

    • Government

    • Activity the contract supports

    Correct Answer
    A. Government
    Explanation
    The contracting system must award contracts that are in the best interest of the government. This means that the contracts should align with the goals and objectives of the government and support the activities that the contract is intended for. By prioritizing the government's interests, the contracting system ensures that the awarded contracts contribute to the overall mission needs and requirements of the government.

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  • 44. 

    Who must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on Air Force installations?

    • Air Force

    • Contractor

    • Employees

    • Facility manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force
    Explanation
    The Air Force must remain neutral in dealing with contract-related labor disputes that may occur on Air Force installations. As the governing body and employer, it is important for the Air Force to maintain impartiality and ensure fair treatment for all parties involved in the dispute. Taking a neutral stance allows for a balanced and unbiased resolution process, promoting a harmonious working environment and upholding the principles of justice and equality.

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  • 45. 

    Who determines fair and reasonable pricing when commercial entertainment is purchased non-competitively?

    • Contracting officer

    • Marketing director

    • Services commander

    • Entertainment market

    Correct Answer
    A. Contracting officer
    Explanation
    The contracting officer is responsible for determining fair and reasonable pricing when commercial entertainment is purchased non-competitively. They are responsible for negotiating and managing contracts on behalf of the government or organization, ensuring that the pricing is reasonable and in line with market standards. They have the expertise and authority to evaluate the pricing and make an informed decision on behalf of the organization.

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  • 46. 

    What type contract is awarded to specified individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)?

    • Unique skill

    • One-time service

    • Individual service

    • On-call service

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual service
    Explanation
    Individual service contracts are awarded to specified individuals for their unique skills, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for the nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI). This type of contract is specifically tailored to the individual's abilities and expertise, ensuring that they can provide the necessary service effectively. It allows NAFI to access the specialized skills they require without the need for a long-term commitment or a full-time employee.

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  • 47. 

    In what situation do you not use individual service contracts?

    • When the contract is less than one year

    • When the service will only be provided one time

    • When the contract will be paid on a per job basis

    • For services that the individual is obligated to provide the NAFI as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position

    Correct Answer
    A. For services that the individual is obligated to provide the NAFI as a result of his or her military or civilian employee position
  • 48. 

    The type of contract that is designed as a motivational tool for contractors is called

    • Concessionaire

    • Incentive

    • Individual service

    • Nonpersonal service

    Correct Answer
    A. Incentive
    Explanation
    An incentive contract is designed to motivate contractors by offering them rewards or incentives based on their performance or achievement of specific goals. This type of contract provides contractors with a financial or non-financial incentive to meet or exceed the expectations set by the contract. It encourages contractors to perform at their best and achieve the desired outcomes, ultimately benefiting both parties involved in the contract.

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  • 49. 

    After how many days should major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations when developing a contract contingency clause?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    In order to be prepared to expand their operations when developing a contract contingency clause, major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases should be ready after 30 days. This means that within 30 days, they should have the necessary plans, resources, and protocols in place to effectively expand their operations as needed.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 17, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Feb 14, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Gs1r1

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