Srg Feb2017 Compre Week 1 (Basic Kines And Renal/Git)
- 1.
Increase in potassium concentration in the extracellular fluid stimulates ___, which then stimulates secretion of K into the collecting duct via aldosterone stimulation of Na-K ATPase pumps in the cortical collecting duct cells.
- A.
Renin
- B.
Angiotensin II
- C.
Aldosterone
- D.
Insulin
Correct Answer
B. Angiotensin IIExplanation
An increase in potassium concentration in the extracellular fluid stimulates the release of renin. Renin then acts on angiotensinogen to produce angiotensin I, which is converted to angiotensin II by the enzyme ACE. Angiotensin II stimulates the secretion of aldosterone. Aldosterone, in turn, acts on the Na-K ATPase pumps in the cortical collecting duct cells to increase the reabsorption of sodium and the secretion of potassium into the collecting duct. Therefore, the correct answer is angiotensin II.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Hydrogen secreted in the proximal tubule in exchange for sodium combines with ___ to form carbonic acid.
- A.
Bicarbonate
- B.
Carbonic anhydrase
- C.
Uric acid
- D.
Calcium
Correct Answer
A. BicarbonateExplanation
Hydrogen ions are secreted in the proximal tubule in exchange for sodium ions. These hydrogen ions then combine with bicarbonate ions to form carbonic acid. Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that catalyzes this reaction, facilitating the formation of carbonic acid. Uric acid and calcium are not directly involved in this process. Therefore, the correct answer is bicarbonate.Rate this question:
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- 3.
SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate ADH release) is an example of what type of shift?
- A.
Hyperosmotic volume expansion
- B.
Isosomotic volume expansion
- C.
Hyposmotic volume expansion
- D.
AOTA
Correct Answer
C. Hyposmotic volume expansionExplanation
SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate ADH release) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to increased water retention by the kidneys. This results in dilution of the blood and hyposmotic (lower osmolarity) volume expansion.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What percentage of cardiac output is renal blood flow (RBF)?
- A.
100%
- B.
75%
- C.
50%
- D.
25%
Correct Answer
D. 25%Explanation
Renal blood flow (RBF) refers to the volume of blood that passes through the kidneys per unit of time. The correct answer is 25% because approximately 25% of the cardiac output, which is the total volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute, is directed towards the kidneys. This is necessary for the kidneys to perform their vital functions of filtering waste products and regulating fluid and electrolyte balance in the body.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What class of drugs dilate efferent arterioles and produce a decrease in GFR, thereby reducing hyperfiltration and the occurrence of diabetic nephropathy in diabetes mellitus?
- A.
ARB (Angiotensin Receptor Blockers)
- B.
ACE inhibitors (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme)
- C.
Calcium-channel blockers
- D.
Renin Inhibitors
Correct Answer
B. ACE inhibitors (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme)Explanation
ACE inhibitors (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme) dilate efferent arterioles and produce a decrease in GFR, thereby reducing hyperfiltration and the occurrence of diabetic nephropathy in diabetes mellitus. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which is a potent vasoconstrictor. By blocking the production of angiotensin II, ACE inhibitors help to relax and widen the efferent arterioles, reducing the pressure in the glomerulus and decreasing hyperfiltration. This can help to protect the kidneys from damage and slow the progression of diabetic nephropathy.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is a trigger for the RAAS to function?
- A.
Dec Na+
- B.
Dec Ca2+
- C.
Inc blood pressure
- D.
Inc blood volume
Correct Answer
A. Dec Na+Explanation
A decrease in sodium levels (Dec Na+) is a trigger for the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) to function. When sodium levels in the body decrease, it signals the release of renin, an enzyme that initiates a cascade of reactions leading to the production of angiotensin II. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and stimulates the release of aldosterone, which promotes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. This mechanism helps to restore sodium balance and regulate blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What type of muscle is this based on its insertion and origin?
- A.
Spurt
- B.
Shunt
- C.
Mobilizer
- D.
Prime Mover
Correct Answer
A. SpurtExplanation
Based on its insertion and origin, the muscle is classified as a "spurt" muscle. This type of muscle is responsible for producing quick and powerful movements by initiating rapid acceleration. It acts as the primary force generator during a specific movement, providing the initial burst of energy required.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Mechanics related to the forces of nature
- A.
Kinetics
- B.
Kinematics
- C.
Kinetodynamics
- D.
Kinesiology
Correct Answer
A. KineticsExplanation
Kinetics is the branch of physics that deals with the study of motion and the forces that cause motion. It focuses on the relationship between the motion of an object and the forces acting upon it. In this context, kinetics is related to the mechanics of the forces of nature as it involves the analysis of the forces and their effects on the motion of objects. Therefore, out of the given options, kinetics is the most appropriate term that relates to the mechanics of the forces of nature.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A motion in which the net motion of a moving body move toward the same direction although the path follows a curved line.
- A.
Linear
- B.
Curvilinear
- C.
Curved
- D.
Inverse
Correct Answer
B. CurvilinearExplanation
A curvilinear motion refers to the movement of a body in which the net motion is in the same direction, even though the path followed by the body is curved. This means that the body is moving in a curved trajectory, but its overall direction of motion remains consistent. This is different from linear motion, where the path followed by the body is a straight line. In curvilinear motion, the body may be subject to forces that cause it to deviate from a straight path, but the net motion remains in the same direction.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which plane is shown in the picture?
- A.
Sagittal
- B.
Transverse
- C.
Frontal
- D.
Parasagittal
Correct Answer
B. TransverseExplanation
The correct answer is Transverse. In the picture, the plane shown is dividing the body into upper and lower sections. This is characteristic of a transverse plane, also known as a horizontal or cross-sectional plane.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which plane is shown in the picture?
- A.
Sagittal
- B.
Transverse
- C.
Frontal
- D.
Parasagittal
Correct Answer
A. SagittalExplanation
The correct answer is Sagittal because the picture shows a plane that divides the body into left and right halves. The sagittal plane runs vertically from front to back and is perpendicular to the ground.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Axis of rotation in the sagittal plane
- A.
X-axis
- B.
Y-axis
- C.
Z-axis
- D.
NOTA
Correct Answer
A. X-axisExplanation
The correct answer is X-axis because the sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves. The X-axis is the horizontal axis that runs from side to side, perpendicular to the sagittal plane. This axis represents rotation around the left-right axis, making it the appropriate choice for the axis of rotation in the sagittal plane.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Axis of rotation of the transverse plane
- A.
X-axis
- B.
Y-axis
- C.
Z-axis
- D.
NOTA
Correct Answer
B. Y-axisExplanation
The Y-axis is the correct answer because it is the axis of rotation for the transverse plane. The transverse plane is a horizontal plane that divides the body into superior and inferior halves. When rotating around the Y-axis, the body or object would be rotating horizontally, parallel to the ground. This axis is commonly used in anatomy and biomechanics to describe movements such as rotation of the head or trunk.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Axis of rotation in the frontal plane
- A.
X-axis
- B.
Y-axis
- C.
Z-axis
- D.
NOTA
Correct Answer
C. Z-axisExplanation
The Z-axis is the correct answer because it represents the axis of rotation in the frontal plane. In three-dimensional space, the X-axis represents the horizontal axis, the Y-axis represents the vertical axis, and the Z-axis represents the axis that is perpendicular to both the X and Y axes. In the frontal plane, which divides the body into front and back halves, rotation occurs around the Z-axis. Therefore, the Z-axis is the axis of rotation in the frontal plane.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What type of joint is shown in the picture?
- A.
Condyloid
- B.
Ginglymus
- C.
Trochoid
- D.
Enarthrodial
Correct Answer
D. EnarthrodialExplanation
The correct answer is Enarthrodial. Enarthrodial joints, also known as ball-and-socket joints, allow for a wide range of motion in multiple directions. This type of joint consists of a rounded end of one bone fitting into a cup-shaped socket of another bone. The picture likely shows a joint with a rounded head fitting into a concave socket, which is characteristic of an enarthrodial joint.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Type of joint of the structure shown in the picture:
- A.
Diarthrodial
- B.
Synarthrodial
- C.
Amphiarthrodial
- D.
Enarthrodial
Correct Answer
C. AmpHiarthrodialExplanation
The structure shown in the picture is likely a joint that allows limited movement, such as a symphysis joint or a syndesmosis joint. These types of joints are classified as amphiarthrodial joints.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What sign is this?
- A.
Kehr's Sign
- B.
Jump Sign
- C.
Grey-Turner Sign
- D.
Cullen's Sign
Correct Answer
C. Grey-Turner SignExplanation
The Grey-Turner Sign refers to the appearance of bruising or discoloration around the flanks or lower back, indicating retroperitoneal bleeding. This sign is often associated with severe conditions such as acute pancreatitis or ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysms. It is named after the physicians George Grey Turner and Edward Turney.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What sign is this?
- A.
Cullen's Sign
- B.
Battle Sign
- C.
Kehr's Sign
- D.
Grey-Turner Sign
Correct Answer
A. Cullen's SignExplanation
Cullen's Sign refers to the presence of periumbilical ecchymosis, which is bruising around the belly button. It is typically associated with bleeding in the abdomen, such as from pancreatitis or ruptured ectopic pregnancy. This sign is named after Thomas Stephen Cullen, an American gynecologist who first described it in 1918.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Contains a digestive enzyme called amylase, ions and IgA
- A.
Peroxisomes
- B.
Saliva
- C.
Lysosomes
- D.
Pepsin
Correct Answer
B. SalivaExplanation
Saliva is the correct answer because it contains a digestive enzyme called amylase, which helps in the breakdown of starches into smaller molecules. It also contains ions that help maintain the pH balance in the mouth and aid in the process of digestion. Additionally, saliva contains immunoglobulin A (IgA), an antibody that helps protect against infections in the mouth and throat.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The region of the stomach that connects to the duodenum. Known as the "Gate Keeper".
- A.
Mesentery
- B.
Omentum
- C.
Pylorus
- D.
Sphincter
Correct Answer
C. PylorusExplanation
The correct answer is Pylorus. The pylorus is the region of the stomach that connects to the duodenum. It acts as a gatekeeper by regulating the flow of food from the stomach into the small intestine. The pylorus contains a circular muscle called the pyloric sphincter, which controls the opening and closing of the passage between the stomach and the duodenum. This sphincter helps to regulate the digestion and movement of food through the digestive system.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Middle and longest section of small intestines:
- A.
Duodenum
- B.
Jejunum
- C.
Ileum
- D.
NOTA
Correct Answer
B. JejunumExplanation
The correct answer is Jejunum. The small intestine is divided into three sections: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The jejunum is the middle section of the small intestine and is responsible for the majority of nutrient absorption. It has a larger diameter and a thicker wall compared to the other sections, allowing for increased surface area for absorption. The duodenum is the first section of the small intestine, while the ileum is the final section.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The part of the large intestine that extends across the abdominal cavity and joins the ascending to the descending colon:
- A.
Ascending Colon
- B.
Transverse Colon
- C.
Descending Colon
- D.
Rectum
Correct Answer
B. Transverse ColonExplanation
The transverse colon is the part of the large intestine that extends across the abdominal cavity and connects the ascending colon to the descending colon. It is located in the upper abdomen and plays a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of nutrients.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Accessory organ that is an elongated gland located beneath the stomach and attached to the duodenum. It has endocrine and exocrine functions. The exocrine functions produce digestive enzymes.
- A.
Pancreas
- B.
Gall bladder
- C.
Liver
- D.
Sigmoid colon
Correct Answer
A. PancreasExplanation
The pancreas is an elongated gland located beneath the stomach and attached to the duodenum. It has both endocrine and exocrine functions. The exocrine functions of the pancreas involve the production of digestive enzymes. Therefore, the pancreas is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Massive dilation of the colon which if left untreated may result in perforation and peritonitis.
- A.
Hypercolon
- B.
Mega Colon
- C.
Colonitis
- D.
Hyperplastic Colon
Correct Answer
B. Mega ColonExplanation
Mega Colon refers to a condition where there is a massive dilation of the colon. If this condition is not treated, it can lead to perforation and peritonitis. Perforation occurs when there is a hole or tear in the colon, and peritonitis is the inflammation of the lining of the abdominal cavity. Therefore, Mega Colon is the correct answer as it accurately describes the condition and its potential complications.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Trypsin breaks down _______ into _______
- A.
Fats into lipids
- B.
Protein into amino acids
- C.
Carbohydrates into glucose
- D.
NOTA
Correct Answer
B. Protein into amino acidsExplanation
Trypsin is a digestive enzyme that specifically breaks down proteins into amino acids. It is produced in the pancreas and released into the small intestine where it helps in the digestion and absorption of proteins. This process is essential for the body to obtain the necessary amino acids for various biological processes including the synthesis of new proteins and other important molecules.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Strongest acid known and existent in the human system:
- A.
HCl
- B.
KHO
- C.
KCl
- D.
H2SO4
Correct Answer
A. HClExplanation
HCl, also known as hydrochloric acid, is the strongest acid known and existent in the human system. It is naturally produced in the stomach to aid in the digestion of food. HCl has a low pH level, which means it is highly acidic and can break down proteins and other substances in the stomach. It is essential for the proper functioning of the digestive system and helps maintain a healthy pH balance in the body.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Type of joint of the anatomical structure shown below
- A.
Ball and socket
- B.
Pivot
- C.
Saddle
- D.
Plane
Correct Answer
C. SaddleExplanation
The anatomical structure shown in the image appears to have a concave surface on one end and a convex surface on the other end. This type of joint is known as a saddle joint. Saddle joints allow movement in multiple directions, including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction. They are commonly found in the thumb, enabling the thumb to move in a wide range of motions.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Type of joint of this structure shown in the picture:
- A.
Pivot
- B.
Ball and socket
- C.
Hinge
- D.
Modified plane
Correct Answer
C. HingeExplanation
The correct answer for the type of joint of the structure shown in the picture is hinge. A hinge joint allows for movement in only one plane, like a door hinge, enabling rotation and flexion/extension. This type of joint is commonly found in the elbow and knee joints, allowing for bending and straightening movements.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Type of joint of the structure shown in the picture:
- A.
Saddle
- B.
Plane
- C.
Double plane
- D.
NOTA
Correct Answer
A. SaddleExplanation
The structure shown in the picture is a saddle joint. A saddle joint is a type of synovial joint in which the articulating surfaces of the bones are shaped like a saddle. This allows for movement in multiple directions, including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction. The joint is named after its resemblance to a saddle, with one bone concave in one direction and the other bone convex in the opposite direction. This unique shape allows for a wide range of motion and stability in the joint.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Type of lever in which the Fulcrum is between the Weight and Effort:
- A.
1st class
- B.
2nd class
- C.
3rd class
- D.
4th clas
Correct Answer
A. 1st classExplanation
In a first-class lever, the fulcrum is located between the weight and the effort. This means that the load or weight is on one side of the fulcrum, and the effort or force is applied on the other side of the fulcrum. When the effort is applied, it causes the lever to rotate around the fulcrum, resulting in the movement or displacement of the load. This type of lever is commonly seen in tools like scissors or pliers, where the fulcrum is located at the joint and the effort applied by squeezing the handles causes the load to be cut or gripped.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Type of lever in which the Effort is in between the Fulcrum and Weight:
- A.
1st class
- B.
2nd class
- C.
3rd class
- D.
4th class
Correct Answer
C. 3rd classExplanation
A third-class lever is a type of lever where the effort is applied between the fulcrum and the weight. In this type of lever, the effort arm is shorter than the load arm, which means that the effort applied is less than the weight being lifted. This type of lever is commonly found in everyday objects like tweezers or a hammer, where a small effort can be used to lift a larger weight.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A patient presents with an LOM towards ankle inversion of the midtarsal joint. As a PT/OT who is knowledgeable of the concavo-convex rule, you should mobilize this peripheral joint into which motion to alleviate the LOM?
- A.
Lateral glide
- B.
Medial glide
- C.
Superior glide
- D.
Inferior glide
Correct Answer
A. Lateral glideExplanation
In this case, the patient is experiencing limited range of motion (LOM) towards ankle inversion of the midtarsal joint. According to the concavo-convex rule, which states that convex joint surfaces glide in the opposite direction of the joint motion, mobilizing the joint with a lateral glide would help alleviate the LOM. By applying a lateral glide, the therapist would be encouraging the convex joint surfaces to glide in the opposite direction of ankle inversion, thus promoting improved range of motion and reducing the patient's symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A patient who had total knee arthroplasty was assessed to have LOM towards knee flexion. You included in your treatment plan the mobilization of the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral joints. You should mobilize the joints in which direction/s to increase knee flexion ROM?
- A.
PF joint: superior glide; TF joint: anterior glide
- B.
PF joint: lateral glide; TF joint: posterior glide
- C.
PF joint: inferior glide; TF joint: anterior glide
- D.
PF joint: inferior glide; TF joint: posterior glide
Correct Answer
D. PF joint: inferior glide; TF joint: posterior glideExplanation
To increase knee flexion range of motion (ROM), mobilization of the patellofemoral (PF) joint should be done with an inferior glide, while mobilization of the tibiofemoral (TF) joint should be done with a posterior glide. This combination of mobilizations helps to improve the alignment and movement of the knee joint, allowing for increased flexion. By applying an inferior glide to the PF joint, the patella is encouraged to move downward, creating more space for flexion. Simultaneously, a posterior glide on the TF joint helps to promote posterior translation of the tibia, further facilitating knee flexion.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A patient was found to have adhesive capsulitis. Knowing the disease mechanism and its pathophysiology, you should mobilize the shoulder joint into which direction?
- A.
Anterior glide
- B.
Posterior glide
- C.
Lateral glide
- D.
Medial glide
Correct Answer
A. Anterior glideExplanation
Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is characterized by inflammation and thickening of the shoulder joint capsule, leading to limited range of motion. To mobilize the shoulder joint and improve the range of motion, the shoulder should be mobilized in the direction of an anterior glide. This helps to stretch the tightened joint capsule and restore movement. Mobilizing the shoulder joint in other directions, such as posterior, lateral, or medial glides, may not be as effective in addressing the specific pathology of adhesive capsulitis.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What will happen to an individual who had an acute hemorrhage?
- A.
The individual will probably die due to renal failure
- B.
The individual will probably die due to multiple organ failure
- C.
The individual will probably die due to hypoxia
- D.
The individual will probably die due to myocardial infarction
Correct Answer
A. The individual will probably die due to renal failureExplanation
An acute hemorrhage refers to a sudden and severe loss of blood. This can lead to a decrease in blood volume, which can result in decreased blood flow to the kidneys. When the kidneys do not receive enough blood, they may not be able to filter waste products effectively, leading to renal failure. Renal failure can cause a buildup of toxins in the body, leading to organ dysfunction and ultimately death. Therefore, it is likely that the individual will die due to renal failure.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The picture shows the referred pain distribution of which organ?
- A.
Stomach
- B.
Gall bladder
- C.
Liver
- D.
Heart
- E.
Large intestine
- F.
Large intestine
- G.
Small intestine
- H.
Small intestine
- I.
Jugular vein
- J.
Jugular vein
- K.
Carotid artery
- L.
Carotid artery
- M.
Brachial plexus
- N.
Brachial plexus
- O.
Transverse aorta
- P.
Transverse aorta
Correct Answer
D. HeartExplanation
The referred pain distribution shown in the picture corresponds to the organ of the heart. Referred pain is a phenomenon where pain is felt in a different area of the body than the actual source of the pain. In the case of the heart, it is common for individuals experiencing a heart attack or angina to feel pain in the chest, left arm, jaw, or upper back. This is because the nerves that transmit pain signals from the heart also overlap with nerves in these other areas, leading to the sensation of pain in those locations.Rate this question:
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- 37.
This is the referred pain pattern of which organ?
- A.
Gall bladder
- B.
Liver
- C.
Stomach
- D.
Pancreas
Correct Answer
A. Gall bladderExplanation
The referred pain pattern of the gall bladder typically presents as pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, radiating towards the right shoulder or back. This pain pattern is often experienced during a gall bladder attack or inflammation, such as in cases of gallstones or cholecystitis. The liver, stomach, and pancreas may also cause abdominal pain, but their referred pain patterns are different from that of the gall bladder.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A patient sustained a stab wound on the left flank. Patient bled profusely at a rate of about 2 L/min. Physiologically, what will happen to the individual's system to prevent him from dying?
- A.
The kidneys will start the RAAS and command the hormones (renin, angiotensin, aldosterone) to decrease blood pressure and blood volume
- B.
The baroreceptor reflex will sense a decrease in arterial pressure sending signals to the CNS to go into sympathetic mode and increase HR and contractility to compensate for the decreased cardiac output.
- C.
The brain will be hypoperfused and will make the nervous system go into parasympathetic mode to conserve blood volume.
- D.
AOTA
Correct Answer
B. The baroreceptor reflex will sense a decrease in arterial pressure sending signals to the CNS to go into sympathetic mode and increase HR and contractility to compensate for the decreased cardiac output.Explanation
When a patient sustains a stab wound and bleeds profusely, it leads to a decrease in blood pressure and blood volume. In order to prevent the individual from dying, the baroreceptor reflex comes into play. The baroreceptors sense the decrease in arterial pressure and send signals to the central nervous system (CNS) to activate the sympathetic mode. This activation results in an increase in heart rate (HR) and contractility to compensate for the decreased cardiac output. By increasing HR and contractility, the body tries to maintain an adequate blood flow to vital organs and prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 39.
ACE inhibitors:
- A.
Inhibits completion of RAAS and decreases blood pressure
- B.
Inhibits completion of RAAS and increases blood pressure
- C.
Stimulates RAAS and decreases blood pressure
- D.
Stimulates RAAS and increases blood pressure
Correct Answer
A. Inhibits completion of RAAS and decreases blood pressureExplanation
ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the completion of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS). The RAAS is a hormone system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. By inhibiting the RAAS, ACE inhibitors prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, and also reduce the secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes water and sodium retention. This leads to vasodilation and decreased blood volume, ultimately resulting in a decrease in blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Passive insufficiency:
- A.
Stretched on the origin, stretched on the insertion
- B.
Stretched on the origin, contracted on the insertion
- C.
Contracted on the origin, stretched on the insertion
- D.
Contracted on the origin, contracted on the insertion
Correct Answer
A. Stretched on the origin, stretched on the insertionExplanation
Passive insufficiency refers to the inability of a muscle to stretch fully across both its origin and insertion simultaneously. In this case, the correct answer "stretched on the origin, stretched on the insertion" indicates that the muscle is stretched and lengthened both at its origin (the point where it attaches to a stationary bone) and insertion (the point where it attaches to a movable bone). This suggests that the muscle is not limited in its ability to stretch and can fully extend across both points.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Active insufficiency:
- A.
Stretched on both origin and insertion
- B.
Stretched on origin, contracted on insertion
- C.
Contracted on origin, stretched on insertion
- D.
Contracted on both origin and insertion
Correct Answer
D. Contracted on both origin and insertionExplanation
The correct answer is "contracted on both origin and insertion". This means that the muscle is shortened or contracted at both its origin (the point where it attaches to a stationary bone) and its insertion (the point where it attaches to a movable bone). When a muscle is contracted on both ends, it is unable to generate as much force as it would if it were at its optimal length. This phenomenon is known as active insufficiency.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Optimal sufficiency:
- A.
Stretched on both insertion and origin
- B.
Stretched on origin and contracted on insertion or vice versa
- C.
Contracted on both insertion and origin
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
B. Stretched on origin and contracted on insertion or vice versaExplanation
The correct answer is "Stretched on origin and contracted on insertion or vice versa." This means that the muscle is lengthened or stretched at its origin while being shortened or contracted at its insertion point, or vice versa. This type of muscle action is commonly seen during movements where the muscle is being actively controlled to produce force or movement.Rate this question:
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- 43.
An individual in the gym is observed to be performing very low repetitions of triceps resistance training (with shoulder extension and elbow extensions) despite his body build. This is due to:
- A.
The passive insufficiency of the triceps
- B.
The active insufficiency of the triceps
- C.
The passive insufficiency of the biceps
- D.
The active insufficiency of the triceps
Correct Answer
B. The active insufficiency of the tricepsExplanation
The individual is observed to be performing very low repetitions of triceps resistance training despite his body build. This suggests that the triceps muscle is unable to generate enough force to perform the exercise effectively. The active insufficiency of the triceps occurs when the muscle becomes shortened and is unable to generate optimal force due to its length-tension relationship. In this case, the individual's triceps may be reaching a shortened position during the exercise, limiting its ability to contract and generate force efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 44.
To isolate the supinator muscle, the biceps femoris should be put into:
- A.
Active insufficiency
- B.
Passive insufficiency
- C.
Optimal sufficiency
- D.
NOTA
Correct Answer
A. Active insufficiencyExplanation
Active insufficiency refers to a state where a muscle is unable to generate enough tension or force due to being shortened to its maximum extent across two joints. In this case, to isolate the supinator muscle, the biceps femoris, which is a muscle that crosses both the knee and hip joints, should be put into active insufficiency. This means that the biceps femoris should be shortened across both joints to limit its ability to generate force, allowing the supinator muscle to be isolated and targeted effectively.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The passive insufficiency of the hamstrings muscle is:
- A.
Hip extension and knee extension
- B.
Hip flexion and knee flexion
- C.
Hip extension and knee flexion
- D.
Hip flexion and knee extension
Correct Answer
D. Hip flexion and knee extensionExplanation
The passive insufficiency of the hamstrings muscle refers to its inability to stretch fully when both the hip is flexed and the knee is extended. This means that when the hip is flexed (bent forward) and the knee is extended (straightened), the hamstrings muscle cannot lengthen fully. This limitation in flexibility can affect movements such as reaching down to touch the toes with straight legs, as the hamstrings are unable to stretch adequately in this position.Rate this question:
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Mar 18, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 30, 2016Quiz Created by
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