Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Pg59-73 CST Exam Prep
Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange Surgical Technology Examination Appleton & Lange pg59-73 CST exam prep
- 1.
394. Room temperature for infants and children should be maintained as warm as
- A.
70°
- B.
80°
- C.
85°
- D.
95°
Correct Answer
C. 85°Explanation
The correct answer is 85° because infants and children have a higher metabolic rate and are less able to regulate their body temperature compared to adults. Keeping the room temperature at 85° helps to ensure that they stay warm and comfortable, reducing the risk of hypothermia or other temperature-related issues. However, it is important to note that this is just a general guideline and individual preferences and needs may vary.Rate this question:
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- 2.
395. Areas needing special cleaning attention on a weekly or monthly routine would include
- A.
Furniture
- B.
Air conditioning grills and walls
- C.
Ceiling and wall mounted fixtures and tracks
- D.
Kick buckets
Correct Answer
B. Air conditioning grills and wallsExplanation
The areas needing special cleaning attention on a weekly or monthly routine would include air conditioning grills and walls. This is because air conditioning grills can accumulate dust and debris over time, which can affect the air quality and efficiency of the system. Walls can also collect dust, dirt, and stains, especially in high traffic areas. Regular cleaning of these areas helps to maintain a clean and healthy environment.Rate this question:
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- 3.
396. A glass suction bottles should ideally be
- A.
Rinsed with tap water between each case
- B.
Cleaned with a disinfectant solution and autoclaved before reuse
- C.
Rinsed with sterile distilled water between each use
- D.
Autoclaved daily
Correct Answer
B. Cleaned with a disinfectant solution and autoclaved before reuseExplanation
Glass suction bottles should ideally be cleaned with a disinfectant solution and autoclaved before reuse. This is because glass suction bottles can become contaminated with various microorganisms during use, and cleaning them with a disinfectant solution helps to eliminate any potential pathogens. Autoclaving the bottles further ensures that they are thoroughly sterilized and safe for reuse. Rinsing with tap water or sterile distilled water may not be sufficient to remove all contaminants and may not provide the necessary level of sterilization. Autoclaving the bottles daily is not necessary unless they have been used in a particularly high-risk case.Rate this question:
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- 4.
397. Storage shelves must be cleaned with the germicide
- A.
Each case
- B.
Each day
- C.
Each week
- D.
Each month
Correct Answer
C. Each weekExplanation
Storage shelves must be cleaned with the germicide each week. This ensures that any potential germs or bacteria that may have accumulated on the shelves are eliminated regularly, maintaining a clean and hygienic storage environment. Cleaning the shelves on a weekly basis helps prevent the spread of contaminants and reduces the risk of contamination of stored items. Regular cleaning also promotes good sanitation practices and helps maintain the overall cleanliness and organization of the storage area.Rate this question:
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- 5.
398. While a surgical case is in progress
- A.
Doors remain open so staff can easily move in or out
- B.
Doors should remain closed
- C.
Doors remain open to circulate air
- D.
Doors may be open or closed
Correct Answer
B. Doors should remain closedExplanation
During a surgical case, it is important for the doors to remain closed. This is because closed doors help maintain a sterile environment in the operating room by preventing the entry of contaminants from outside. Closed doors also help in controlling the temperature and humidity levels, which are crucial for the comfort and safety of the surgical team and the patient. Additionally, closed doors minimize noise and distractions, allowing the surgical team to focus on the procedure at hand.Rate this question:
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- 6.
399. When cleaning the floor between cases
- A.
A clean mop head must be used each time
- B.
A two-bucket system, one detergent and one clear water, is used
- C.
Buckets must be emptied and cleaned between each case
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "all of the above." This means that all of the given statements are true and should be followed when cleaning the floor between cases. A clean mop head must be used each time to ensure proper cleanliness. A two-bucket system, with one containing detergent and the other clear water, should be used to effectively clean the floor. Additionally, the buckets must be emptied and cleaned between each case to maintain hygiene standards.Rate this question:
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- 7.
400. a dropped sterile item may only be used if the
- A.
Wrapper is muslin
- B.
Wrapper is impervious and contact area is dry
- C.
Wrapper is impervious with contact area wet or dry
- D.
Wrapper is dusted off thoroughly
Correct Answer
B. Wrapper is impervious and contact area is dryExplanation
A dropped sterile item may only be used if the wrapper is impervious and the contact area is dry. This is because an impervious wrapper prevents any contamination from reaching the sterile item, ensuring its sterility is maintained. Additionally, a dry contact area reduces the risk of introducing moisture, which can promote the growth of microorganisms and compromise the sterility of the item. Therefore, both conditions are necessary to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the sterile item.Rate this question:
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- 8.
401. In the event that a child needs emergency surgery, and the parents cannot be located to sign the permission
- A.
No permission is necessary
- B.
Permission is signed by a court of law
- C.
Permission assigned by the physician
- D.
A written consultation by two physicians other than the surgeon will suffice
Correct Answer
D. A written consultation by two pHysicians other than the surgeon will sufficeExplanation
In the event that a child needs emergency surgery and the parents cannot be located to sign the permission, a written consultation by two physicians other than the surgeon will suffice. This means that if the parents cannot be reached, the decision to proceed with the surgery can be made by obtaining written consent from two other physicians who are not directly involved in the surgery. This ensures that there is a consensus among medical professionals regarding the necessity of the surgery and helps protect the child's well-being in an emergency situation.Rate this question:
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- 9.
402. The patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. After completing this procedure the surgeon decides to remove mole from the shoulder while the patient is still under anesthesia. No permission was obtained for this. The circulating nurse should
- A.
Report it to the anesthesiologist
- B.
Report it to the chief of surgery
- C.
Report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authority
- D.
Let the surgeon proceed because it is his or her responsibility to obtain the consent
Correct Answer
C. Report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authorityExplanation
The correct answer is to report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authority because performing an additional procedure without obtaining the patient's consent is a violation of medical ethics and legal requirements. It is important to escalate the issue to the appropriate authority to ensure that the incident is properly addressed and the patient's rights are protected.Rate this question:
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- 10.
403. The surgical consent form can be witnessed by each of the following EXCEPT
- A.
The surgeon
- B.
A nurse
- C.
An authorized hospital employee
- D.
The patient's spouse
Correct Answer
D. The patient's spouseExplanation
The surgical consent form can be witnessed by the surgeon, a nurse, and an authorized hospital employee. However, the patient's spouse cannot be a witness to the consent form. This is because the spouse may have a personal interest in the surgery and their presence as a witness may compromise the impartiality and validity of the consent process. Therefore, it is important to have witnesses who are unbiased and not directly involved in the patient's care or personal life.Rate this question:
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- 11.
404. The patient is premedicated and brought to the operating room for a cystoscopy and an open reduction of the wrist. Upon arrival in the operating room, it is observed that the patient has only signed for the cystoscopy. The correct procedure would be to
- A.
Cancel the surgery until a valid permission can be obtained
- B.
Have the patient sign for the additional procedure in the operating room
- C.
Ask the patient verbally for consent and have witnesses attest to a
- D.
But the surgeon make the decision as to whether the surgery could be done
Correct Answer
A. Cancel the surgery until a valid permission can be obtainedExplanation
The correct answer is to cancel the surgery until a valid permission can be obtained. This is because the patient has only signed for the cystoscopy and not for the open reduction of the wrist. In order to proceed with the additional procedure, it is important to have proper consent from the patient. Without a valid permission, it would be ethically and legally incorrect to proceed with the surgery. Therefore, it is necessary to cancel the surgery until the patient provides consent for the additional procedure.Rate this question:
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- 12.
405. A general consent form is
- A.
A form authorizing all treatments or procedures
- B.
The form for all patients having general anesthesia
- C.
A form for all patients having hazardous therapy
- D.
Another name for an operative permit
Correct Answer
A. A form authorizing all treatments or proceduresExplanation
A general consent form is a document that grants permission for all types of medical treatments or procedures. It is not specific to patients receiving general anesthesia or hazardous therapy, nor is it synonymous with an operative permit. The form is meant to cover all possible treatments or procedures that may be necessary during a patient's medical care.Rate this question:
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- 13.
406. The ultimate responsibility for obtaining consent lives with
- A.
Operating room supervisor
- B.
Circulating nurse
- C.
Surgeon
- D.
Unit charge nurse
Correct Answer
C. SurgeonExplanation
The ultimate responsibility for obtaining consent lives with the surgeon because they are the medical professional performing the procedure and are directly responsible for the patient's care and treatment. The surgeon is the one who will be performing the surgery and has the knowledge and expertise to explain the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the patient, ensuring that they fully understand and give their informed consent. The operating room supervisor, circulating nurse, and unit charge nurse may have roles in the surgical process, but the surgeon is the one who holds the primary responsibility for obtaining consent.Rate this question:
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- 14.
407. The surgical consent is signed
- A.
Before induction
- B.
In the holding area
- C.
The morning of surgery
- D.
Before administration of preoperative medications
Correct Answer
D. Before administration of preoperative medicationsExplanation
The surgical consent is signed before administration of preoperative medications because it is important for the patient to fully understand the risks and benefits of the surgery before any medications are given. By signing the consent form beforehand, the patient has the opportunity to ask any questions and make an informed decision about proceeding with the surgery. Additionally, the consent form ensures that the patient's wishes are documented and legally binding.Rate this question:
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- 15.
408. An informed consent
- A.
Authorizes routine duties carried out at the hospital
- B.
Protects patient from unratified or unwanted procedures
- C.
Protects the surgeon in the hospital from claims of an unauthorized operation
- D.
B and C
Correct Answer
D. B and CExplanation
An informed consent protects the patient from unratified or unwanted procedures by ensuring that they have been fully informed about the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a medical procedure or treatment. It also protects the surgeon in the hospital from claims of an unauthorized operation as it serves as evidence that the patient agreed to the procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C.Rate this question:
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- 16.
409. Implied consent
- A.
Is the preferred option for consents
- B.
Is allowed by law any emergencies when no other authorized person may be contacted
- C.
Is never legally valid
- D.
Is the permission for surgical action
Correct Answer
B. Is allowed by law any emergencies when no other authorized person may be contactedExplanation
Implied consent is allowed by law in emergencies when no other authorized person may be contacted. This means that in certain situations where immediate action is necessary to prevent harm or save a person's life, consent can be assumed based on the circumstances, even if the person is unable to give explicit permission. This is an exception to the general requirement of obtaining explicit consent for any medical or surgical procedures.Rate this question:
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- 17.
410. Which statement regarding the withdrawal of the consent by a patient is NOT true?
- A.
The surgeon informs the patient of the dangers if the procedure is not carried out
- B.
The surgeon informs the hospital administration of the patient's refusal
- C.
Surgeon obtains a written refusal from the patient
- D.
The surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measure
Correct Answer
D. The surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measureExplanation
The statement "the surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measure" is not true. Informed consent is a fundamental principle in medical ethics, and it requires that patients have the right to refuse treatment even if it may be lifesaving. Therefore, the surgeon cannot proceed with the procedure against the patient's refusal, even if they believe it is necessary for the patient's life.Rate this question:
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- 18.
411. Which position would be the most desirable for a pilonidal cystectomy or a hemorrhoidectomy?
- A.
Lithotomy
- B.
Kraske
- C.
Knee-chest
- D.
Modified prone
Correct Answer
B. KraskeExplanation
The most desirable position for a pilonidal cystectomy or a hemorrhoidectomy is the Kraske position. This position involves the patient lying on their abdomen with their hips flexed and their knees bent. The patient's buttocks are elevated, allowing for better access to the surgical site. This position provides optimal exposure and accessibility for the surgeon to perform the procedure effectively and efficiently. The lithotomy position is commonly used for gynecological procedures, the knee-chest position is used for rectal examinations, and the modified prone position is used for certain spinal surgeries.Rate this question:
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- 19.
412. A position often used in cranial procedures is called
- A.
Fowler's
- B.
Kraske
- C.
Trendelenburg
- D.
Lithotomy
Correct Answer
A. Fowler'sExplanation
Fowler's position is a commonly used position in cranial procedures. It involves the patient lying on their back with the head elevated at a 45-degree angle. This position allows for better access to the surgical site and helps to minimize the risk of complications such as bleeding or swelling.Rate this question:
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- 20.
413. In positioning for laminectomy, roles or bolsters are placed
- A.
Horizontally, one under the chest and one under the thighs
- B.
Longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip
- C.
Longitudinally to support the chest from sternum to hip
- D.
Below the knees
Correct Answer
B. Longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hipExplanation
In positioning for laminectomy, roles or bolsters are placed longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip. This positioning provides stability and support to the chest area during the procedure. Placing the roles or bolsters in this manner helps to maintain proper alignment and prevent any unnecessary movement or strain on the patient's chest and upper body.Rate this question:
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- 21.
414. The position used for a patient in hypovolemic shock is
- A.
Modified Trendelenburg
- B.
Reverse Trendelenburg
- C.
Supine
- D.
Dorsal recumbent
Correct Answer
A. Modified TrendelenburgExplanation
The correct answer is modified Trendelenburg. In hypovolemic shock, the body is experiencing a significant loss of blood volume. The modified Trendelenburg position is commonly used to help improve blood flow to vital organs by elevating the patient's legs above the level of the heart. This position promotes venous return and increases cardiac output, helping to stabilize the patient's condition. The reverse Trendelenburg position, supine position, and dorsal recumbent position do not provide the same benefits in terms of improving blood flow and are not typically used in cases of hypovolemic shock.Rate this question:
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- 22.
415. A Mayfield table would be used for which type of surgery?
- A.
Ophthalmic
- B.
Gynecologic
- C.
Neurologic
- D.
Urologic
Correct Answer
C. NeurologicExplanation
A Mayfield table is specifically designed for neurologic surgeries. It is a specialized operating table that allows for precise positioning of the patient's head and neck during neurosurgical procedures. This table provides stability and support, ensuring the surgeon can access the surgical site with accuracy and safety. It is not typically used for ophthalmic, gynecologic, or urologic surgeries, as these procedures do not require the same level of head and neck positioning and stability.Rate this question:
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- 23.
416. Good exposure for thyroid surgery is ensured by all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Modified dorsal recumbent with shoulder roll
- B.
Hyperextension of the neck
- C.
Utilization of the of the skin-stay sutures
- D.
Firm retraction of laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures
Correct Answer
D. Firm retraction of laryngeal nerve and surrounding structuresExplanation
Good exposure for thyroid surgery is ensured by all of the following except firm retraction of laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures. The laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures should not be retracted firmly during thyroid surgery as it can cause damage and lead to complications such as hoarseness or loss of voice. The other options mentioned, such as modified dorsal recumbent with shoulder roll, hyperextension of the neck, and utilization of skin-stay sutures, are techniques that can help provide better visibility and access to the thyroid gland during surgery.Rate this question:
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- 24.
417. A procedure requiring the patient to be positioned supine and modified with lithotomy is
- A.
Colonoscopy
- B.
Abdominoperineal resection (APR)
- C.
Marsupilization of pilonidal cyst
- D.
Ileostomy
Correct Answer
B. Abdominoperineal resection (APR)Explanation
The correct answer is abdominoperineal resection (APR). This procedure requires the patient to be positioned supine and modified with lithotomy. Abdominoperineal resection is a surgical procedure performed to remove the rectum, anus, and part of the sigmoid colon. It is typically done to treat rectal cancer or other conditions that cannot be treated with less invasive methods. The patient is positioned supine (lying on their back) and modified with lithotomy (legs raised and supported in stirrups) to provide the surgeon with better access to the surgical site.Rate this question:
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- 25.
418. In which procedure may the patient be placed in a supine position with the right side slightly elevated by a wedge to tilt the patient to the left?
- A.
Cerclage
- B.
Marsupilization of Bartholin's cyst
- C.
Shirodkar
- D.
Cesarean section
Correct Answer
D. Cesarean sectionExplanation
In a cesarean section procedure, the patient may be placed in a supine position with the right side slightly elevated by a wedge to tilt the patient to the left. This positioning helps to prevent compression of the inferior vena cava by the uterus, ensuring adequate blood flow to the mother and the baby during the surgery.Rate this question:
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- 26.
419. The position for most open bladder surgery would be
- A.
Lithotomy
- B.
Supine, bolster under pelvis
- C.
Reverse Trendelenburg
- D.
Fowler's, modified
Correct Answer
B. Supine, bolster under pelvisExplanation
The correct answer is supine with a bolster under the pelvis. This position allows for better access to the bladder during open surgery. The supine position means lying flat on the back, while the bolster under the pelvis helps to elevate and tilt the pelvis, providing optimal exposure of the surgical site. This position allows the surgeon to have a clear view and easier access to the bladder for the procedure.Rate this question:
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- 27.
420. In which circumstance could the patient sustain injury to the pudendal nerves?
- A.
Positioned on the fracture table
- B.
Positioned in the lateral chest
- C.
Positioned in the lithotomy
- D.
Positioned on the urological table
Correct Answer
A. Positioned on the fracture tableExplanation
The pudendal nerves are responsible for providing sensation to the external genitalia and perineum. When a patient is positioned on the fracture table, there is a risk of compression or stretching of the pudendal nerves due to the pressure applied to the pelvic region. This compression or stretching can potentially cause injury to the nerves, leading to symptoms such as pain, numbness, or loss of sensation in the genital area. Therefore, positioning the patient on the fracture table increases the likelihood of sustaining injury to the pudendal nerves.Rate this question:
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- 28.
421. Which factor is important to consider when positioning the aging patient?
- A.
Skeletal changes
- B.
Limited range of motion of joints
- C.
Tissue fragility
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
When positioning an aging patient, it is important to consider skeletal changes, limited range of motion of joints, and tissue fragility. Skeletal changes, such as osteoporosis or degenerative joint disease, can affect the patient's ability to maintain proper positioning and may require additional support. Limited range of motion of joints can make it difficult for the patient to move or adjust themselves, so proper positioning is crucial to prevent discomfort or injury. Tissue fragility, which is common in aging patients, means that their skin and underlying tissues are more prone to damage or breakdown, so positioning should be gentle and careful to avoid pressure ulcers or skin tears.Rate this question:
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- 29.
422. When positioning the patient for a procedure, which of the following provides maximum patient safety and maximum surgical site exposure?
- A.
Patient's body does not touch metal on table
- B.
Equipment, Mayo stand, or personnel are not resting on the patient
- C.
Bony prominences are padded
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
When positioning a patient for a procedure, maximum patient safety and maximum surgical site exposure can be achieved by ensuring that the patient's body does not touch the metal on the table, that equipment, Mayo stand, or personnel are not resting on the patient, and by padding bony prominences. These measures help prevent injury to the patient, maintain a sterile field, and provide optimal visibility and access to the surgical site.Rate this question:
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- 30.
423. When preparing a patient for a breast biopsy, a breast scrub is either eliminated or done very gently because of
- A.
Patient anxiety
- B.
Dispersal of cancer cells
- C.
Contamination
- D.
Infection
Correct Answer
B. Dispersal of cancer cellsExplanation
During a breast biopsy, a breast scrub is either eliminated or done very gently because of the potential risk of dispersing cancer cells. Scrubbing the breast vigorously can cause the cancer cells to spread to other areas of the breast or even to other parts of the body, increasing the risk of metastasis. Therefore, it is important to handle the breast with care during the biopsy procedure to minimize the risk of cancer cell dispersal.Rate this question:
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- 31.
424. The ideal place to do the shave prep is in the
- A.
Patient's room
- B.
Operating room (OR) suite
- C.
Holding area of the OR
- D.
Room where the surgery will be performed
Correct Answer
C. Holding area of the ORExplanation
The ideal place to do the shave prep is in the holding area of the OR. This is because the holding area is specifically designated for preoperative preparations, including shaving. It is a controlled environment where the necessary equipment and supplies are readily available, ensuring proper hygiene and safety measures are followed. Additionally, performing the shave prep in the holding area allows for better time management and coordination with the surgical team, as the patient can be prepared and ready for surgery before entering the operating room.Rate this question:
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- 32.
425. Any area that is considered contaminated
- A.
Should be scrubbed last or separately
- B.
Should not be scrubbed at all
- C.
Should be scrubbed first
- D.
Needs no special consideration
Correct Answer
A. Should be scrubbed last or separatelyExplanation
When an area is considered contaminated, it is important to ensure that the contamination does not spread to other areas. Therefore, the area should be scrubbed last or separately to prevent cross-contamination. By scrubbing it last or separately, the risk of spreading the contamination to other areas can be minimized, ensuring proper cleaning and safety protocols are followed.Rate this question:
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- 33.
426. In preparation for surgery, skin should be washed and painted
- A.
From the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion
- B.
From the periphery to the incision site in a circular motion
- C.
In a side-to-side
- D.
In the up-and-down motion
Correct Answer
A. From the incision site to the peripHery in a circular motionExplanation
In preparation for surgery, the skin should be washed and painted from the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion. This method ensures that the area around the incision site is thoroughly cleaned and disinfected. Starting from the incision site and moving outward in a circular motion helps to prevent the spread of bacteria or contaminants towards the incision site, reducing the risk of infection.Rate this question:
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- 34.
427. Preliminary preparation of the patient's skin begins
- A.
With preoperative shower
- B.
With the shaved preparation
- C.
In the OR
- D.
In the holding area
Correct Answer
A. With preoperative showerExplanation
The correct answer is "with preoperative shower". This means that the preliminary preparation of the patient's skin is started by giving them a shower before the operation. This is done to ensure that the patient's skin is clean and free from any potential contaminants that could increase the risk of infection during the surgery. The preoperative shower helps to remove bacteria and other microorganisms from the skin, reducing the chances of post-operative complications.Rate this question:
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- 35.
428. Suction tubing is attached to the drapes with a(n)
- A.
Towel clip
- B.
Non-perforating clamp
- C.
Kocher clamp
- D.
Allis clamp
Correct Answer
B. Non-perforating clampExplanation
A non-perforating clamp is used to attach suction tubing to drapes. This type of clamp does not create holes or punctures in the material it is attached to, ensuring that the drapes remain intact and do not leak any fluids. It provides a secure and reliable connection between the suction tubing and the drapes, allowing for effective suction during medical procedures while maintaining a sterile environment.Rate this question:
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- 36.
430. When draping a table, the scrub nurse should drape
- A.
Back to front
- B.
Front to back
- C.
Side to side
- D.
Either A or B
Correct Answer
B. Front to backExplanation
When draping a table, the scrub nurse should drape from front to back. This is because draping from front to back helps to maintain a sterile field by preventing contamination from the nurse's body or clothing. Draping in this direction ensures that any potential contaminants are moved away from the sterile field, reducing the risk of infection during the surgical procedure.Rate this question:
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- 37.
429. All of the following statements regarding sterility are true EXCEPT
- A.
Wrapper edges are unsterile
- B.
Instruments or sutures hanging over the edge of the table are discarded
- C.
Sterile persons pass each other back to back
- D.
A sterile person faces a nonsterile person when passing
Correct Answer
D. A sterile person faces a nonsterile person when passingExplanation
When passing, a sterile person faces a nonsterile person. This statement is not true because a sterile person should always face another sterile person to maintain sterility.Rate this question:
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- 38.
432. Drapes are
- A.
Adjusted after placement for correct position
- B.
Unfolded before being carried to the OR table
- C.
Past across the table to surgeon along with towel clips
- D.
Placed on a dry area
Correct Answer
D. Placed on a dry areaExplanation
The correct answer is placed on a dry area because drapes need to be placed on a dry area to ensure a sterile environment in the operating room. Moisture can harbor bacteria and compromise the effectiveness of the drapes in preventing contamination. Therefore, it is important to place the drapes on a dry surface to maintain a sterile field during surgery.Rate this question:
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- 39.
431. A seamless, stretchable material often used to cover extremities during draping is
- A.
Esmarch
- B.
Ace bandage
- C.
Kling
- D.
Stockinette
Correct Answer
D. StockinetteExplanation
Stockinette is a seamless, stretchable material that is commonly used to cover extremities during draping. It provides a smooth surface and helps to protect the skin during medical procedures. Esmarch is a type of bandage used for exsanguination, Ace bandage is a type of elastic bandage used for compression, and kling is a type of self-adherent wrap used for securing dressings. Therefore, the correct answer is stockinette.Rate this question:
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- 40.
433. which statement demonstrates a break in technique during the draping process?
- A.
Gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient
- B.
Discard a drape that becomes contaminated
- C.
Discard a sheet that falls below table level
- D.
Cover or discarded trait that has a whole
Correct Answer
A. Gloved hands may touch the skin of the patientExplanation
During the draping process, it is essential to maintain a sterile environment. The statement "gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient" demonstrates a break in technique because it introduces the risk of contaminating the sterile field. In order to prevent infection or cross-contamination, healthcare professionals should avoid touching the patient's skin with gloved hands.Rate this question:
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- 41.
434. A head drape consist of
- A.
Medium sheet, towel, towel clip
- B.
Two medium sheets, towel clip
- C.
One small sheet, one medium sheet, towel clip
- D.
Towel, fenestrated sheet
Correct Answer
A. Medium sheet, towel, towel clipExplanation
A head drape consists of a medium sheet, towel, and towel clip. These items are used to cover and secure the patient's head during a medical procedure. The medium sheet provides a barrier and helps to maintain a sterile environment. The towel is used to absorb any fluids or sweat that may occur during the procedure. The towel clip is used to secure the drape in place and prevent it from slipping or falling off.Rate this question:
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- 42.
435. Gowns are considered sterile only from
- A.
Waste to neck level in the front and back, and the sleeves
- B.
Waste to shoulder, front and back, and the sleeves
- C.
Neck to thighs in front, and the sleeves
- D.
Only in the front from chest to sterile field level, and the sleeves from elbow to cuffs
Correct Answer
D. Only in the front from chest to sterile field level, and the sleeves from elbow to cuffsExplanation
Gowns are considered sterile only in the front from chest to sterile field level, and the sleeves from elbow to cuffs. This means that the front of the gown, from the chest area down to the sterile field level, is considered sterile. Additionally, the sleeves of the gown, from the elbow down to the cuffs, are also considered sterile. This is important to maintain aseptic conditions in medical settings, where gowns are worn to prevent the spread of infection.Rate this question:
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- 43.
436. An acceptable action when drying the hands and arms after the surgical scrub is to
- A.
Dry from elbow to fingertip
- B.
Dry thoroughly, cleanest area first
- C.
Keep the hands and arms close to the body, at waist level
- D.
Dry one hand and arm thoroughly before proceeding to the next
Correct Answer
B. Dry thoroughly, cleanest area firstExplanation
When drying the hands and arms after the surgical scrub, it is important to dry thoroughly to ensure that all moisture is removed. Starting with the cleanest area first is a good practice to prevent contamination. By drying from the cleanest area, such as the fingertips, to the dirtier areas, such as the elbows, any potential contaminants are less likely to be spread. This helps maintain a sterile environment during surgery.Rate this question:
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- 44.
437. All of the following statements regarding gowning another person are true EXCEPT
- A.
Open the hand towel and lay it on the person's hand
- B.
Hand the folded gown to the person at the neckband
- C.
Keep hands on the outside of the gown under protective cuff
- D.
Release the gown once the person touches it
Correct Answer
B. Hand the folded gown to the person at the neckbandExplanation
The correct answer is "hand the folded gown to the person at the neckband." This statement is not true because when gowning another person, you should not hand the folded gown to them at the neckband. Instead, you should hold the gown open and allow the person to step into it, then secure it at the neck and waist ties.Rate this question:
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- 45.
438. Which statement regarding the scrub procedure is not true
- A.
Reduces the microbial count
- B.
Leaves in antimicrobial residue
- C.
Renders the skin aseptic
- D.
Removes skin oil
Correct Answer
C. Renders the skin asepticExplanation
The statement "renders the skin aseptic" is not true. The scrub procedure is designed to reduce the microbial count on the skin and remove any dirt or contaminants, but it does not make the skin completely sterile or aseptic. Aseptic techniques involve using sterile equipment and maintaining a sterile environment, which is not achieved through a scrub procedure alone.Rate this question:
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- 46.
439. If the scrub nurse needs to change a glove during an operation
- A.
The scrub must also regown
- B.
The circulator pulls the glove off
- C.
The scrub pulls the glove off
- D.
This scrub uses closed-glove technique to reapply gloves
Correct Answer
B. The circulator pulls the glove offExplanation
During an operation, if the scrub nurse needs to change a glove, the circulator pulls the glove off. This is because the circulator, who is responsible for assisting the scrub nurse, helps in maintaining a sterile field by performing tasks such as removing contaminated items. By having the circulator pull off the glove, it ensures that the scrub nurse's hands remain sterile and prevents any contamination from occurring.Rate this question:
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- 47.
440. which statement regarding the removal of gown and gloves does not be safe criteria?
- A.
The gloves are removed before the gown
- B.
The gown is pulled off inside-out
- C.
The gown is untied by the circulator
- D.
The clothes are removed inside-out
Correct Answer
A. The gloves are removed before the gownExplanation
Removing the gloves before the gown is not a safe criteria because it can lead to contamination. The correct order for removing personal protective equipment (PPE) is to first remove the gown and then the gloves. This helps to prevent any potential contamination on the gown from coming into contact with the hands when removing the gloves.Rate this question:
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- 48.
441. An effective surgical scrub procedure is
- A.
Time method
- B.
Brush-stroke method
- C.
3-minute anatomic method
- D.
A and B
Correct Answer
D. A and BExplanation
The correct answer is A and B. The effective surgical scrub procedure involves using the time method and the brush-stroke method. The time method refers to scrubbing the hands and forearms for a specific duration, usually around 2-6 minutes, to ensure thorough cleaning. The brush-stroke method involves using a specific pattern of scrubbing motions, such as circular or back-and-forth motions, to cover all areas of the hands and forearms. By combining both methods, healthcare professionals can achieve a high level of cleanliness and reduce the risk of infections during surgical procedures.Rate this question:
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- 49.
442. Regarding the surgical scrub, which statement would violate acceptable practice?
- A.
Fingernails should not reach beyond fingertip
- B.
Nail polish may be worn if freshly applied
- C.
Anyone with a cut, abrasion, or hangnail should not scrub
- D.
A non-oil-based hand lotion may be used to the skin
Correct Answer
B. Nail polish may be worn if freshly appliedExplanation
Wearing nail polish, even if it is freshly applied, would violate acceptable practice for surgical scrub. Nail polish can harbor bacteria and interfere with proper hand hygiene. It is important to have clean, bare nails during surgical procedures to minimize the risk of contamination.Rate this question:
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- 50.
443. Eyewear, goggles, and/or face shields should be worn
- A.
On every case
- B.
On orthopedic cases
- C.
On vascular cases
- D.
On positive HIV cases
Correct Answer
A. On every caseExplanation
Eyewear, goggles, and/or face shields should be worn on every case. This means that regardless of the type of case (orthopedic, vascular, positive HIV), it is important to wear protective eyewear. This is because these cases may involve procedures or activities that pose a risk of eye injury or exposure to bodily fluids. Wearing eyewear, goggles, and/or face shields helps to prevent potential eye damage and ensures the safety of healthcare professionals during all cases.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 16, 2010Quiz Created by
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