Take Home Quiz Chapter 11
- 1.
Forensic toxicology is corncerned with
- A.
Deliberate, not accidental toxin contact.
- B.
Legal consequences of toxin exposure.
- C.
Toxin contamination in water resources.
- D.
Treatment for the effects of the toxins.
Correct Answer
B. Legal consequences of toxin exposure.Explanation
Forensic toxicology is a branch of science that deals with the analysis of toxins and their effects on the human body in the context of legal matters. It involves the identification and quantification of toxins in biological samples and the interpretation of the results to determine the possible role of toxins in criminal investigations or legal cases. The focus is on deliberate toxin exposure and its potential legal consequences, rather than accidental contact or treatment for toxin effects.Rate this question:
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- 2.
TB test administration involves:
- A.
Applying pressure right after injection.
- B.
Checking for a reaction in 12 to 24 hours.
- C.
Cleaning the site with povidone-iodine.
- D.
Injecting the antigen just under the skin.
Correct Answer
D. Injecting the antigen just under the skin.Explanation
The correct answer is injecting the antigen just under the skin. This is because the TB test, also known as the Mantoux test, involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin antigen just beneath the skin. This allows for the body's immune response to be assessed by checking for a reaction in 12 to 24 hours. Applying pressure after injection and cleaning the site with povidone-iodine are not specific steps involved in TB test administration.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which one of the following is an unlikely NIDA patient collection requirement for urine drug screens?
- A.
A proctor is required at the collection time to verify the sample.
- B.
Chain of custody is to be followed during the collection process.
- C.
Documentation is carefully maintained from proctor to courier.
- D.
The specimen is placed in a locked container during transport.
Correct Answer
C. Documentation is carefully maintained from proctor to courier.Explanation
The correct answer is "Documentation is carefully maintained from proctor to courier." This requirement is unlikely because the chain of custody is typically followed during the collection process, which ensures that the specimen is properly handled and documented from the time it is collected by the proctor to the time it is received by the courier. The other options are all common requirements for urine drug screens, such as having a proctor present during collection, following chain of custody procedures, and transporting the specimen in a locked container to maintain its integrity.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The correct order in collecting a blood culture is:
- A.
Cleanse bottle tops, select equipment, perform friction scrub, perform venipuncture.
- B.
Perform friction scrub, select equipment, perform venipuncture, cleanse bottle tops.
- C.
Select equipment, cleanse bottle tops, perform friction scrub, perform venipuncture.
- D.
Select equipment, perform friction scrub, cleanse bottle tops, perform venipuncture.
Correct Answer
D. Select equipment, perform friction scrub, cleanse bottle tops, perform venipuncture.Explanation
The correct order in collecting a blood culture is to first select the equipment needed for the procedure. Then, perform a friction scrub to clean the area where the venipuncture will be performed. Next, cleanse the bottle tops to ensure they are free of any contaminants. Finally, perform the venipuncture to collect the blood sample. This order ensures that the equipment is ready, the skin is clean, and the bottle tops are sterile before the blood is collected.Rate this question:
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- 5.
False-positive results of lactose tolerance tests have been found in all of the following conditions other than.
- A.
Congenital cystic fibrosis
- B.
Male multiple myeloma
- C.
Patients with flat GTT's
- D.
Slow gastric emptying.
Correct Answer
B. Male multiple myelomaExplanation
False-positive results of lactose tolerance tests have been found in congenital cystic fibrosis, patients with flat GTT's, and slow gastric emptying. However, male multiple myeloma is not associated with false-positive results of lactose tolerance tests.Rate this question:
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- 6.
If an assumed parent in a paternity case cannot be excluded by abo grouping, which of the following additional tests may be required?
- A.
Alkaline phosphatase
- B.
Buccal sample for dna
- C.
C-reactive protein
- D.
Complete urinalysis
Correct Answer
B. Buccal sample for dnaExplanation
If an assumed parent in a paternity case cannot be excluded by ABO grouping, an additional test that may be required is a buccal sample for DNA. ABO grouping is a blood typing test that determines the ABO blood type of an individual. However, it does not provide conclusive evidence of paternity. DNA testing, on the other hand, can accurately determine the biological relationship between individuals by comparing their genetic profiles. A buccal sample, which is collected from the inside of the cheek, is a common method for obtaining DNA for testing purposes. Therefore, a buccal sample for DNA would be a suitable additional test in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which one of the following should be deleted from the list of those allowed to order paternity testing?
- A.
Child support agent.
- B.
Child who is a minor
- C.
Defense attorney
- D.
Family physician
Correct Answer
B. Child who is a minorExplanation
The child who is a minor should be deleted from the list of those allowed to order paternity testing because minors do not have the legal capacity to make such decisions. Paternity testing involves medical procedures and legal implications, and it is typically the responsibility of the parents or legal guardians to make decisions on behalf of minors. Therefore, allowing a minor to order paternity testing would not be appropriate or legally valid.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is the recommended disinfectant for blood culture sites in infants 2 months and older?
- A.
Isopropyl alcohol swab
- B.
Chlorhexidine gluconate
- C.
Benzalkonium chloride
- D.
Povidone-iodine swab
Correct Answer
B. Chlorhexidine gluconateExplanation
Chlorhexidine gluconate is the recommended disinfectant for blood culture sites in infants 2 months and older. Chlorhexidine gluconate has broad-spectrum antimicrobial properties and is effective against a wide range of bacteria, fungi, and viruses. It is known to have a longer-lasting effect compared to other disinfectants, making it suitable for use in blood culture sites. Isopropyl alcohol swab is commonly used for skin disinfection but may not provide sufficient antimicrobial activity for blood culture sites. Benzalkonium chloride and povidone-iodine swabs are not recommended for blood culture sites in infants due to potential toxicity and interference with culture results.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which one of the following statements about autologous donations is untrue?
- A.
Blood can be collected up to 72 hours before surgery.
- B.
Patients must have a written order from their physician.
- C.
Unused autologous units may be used by other patients.
- D.
Risks
Correct Answer
C. Unused autologous units may be used by other patients.Explanation
Unused autologous units may not be used by other patients because autologous donations are specifically collected for a particular patient, usually in preparation for a planned surgery. These units are not suitable for use by other patients due to the risk of incompatibility and potential transmission of diseases. Autologous donations are collected up to 72 hours before surgery with a written order from the physician to ensure that the patient's own blood is available for transfusion if needed during the surgery.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The CPD additive in a donor unit of blood is least likely to:
- A.
Control bacterial contamination.
- B.
Prevent the blood from blotting.
- C.
Provide nutrition for the cells.
- D.
Stabilize the ph of the plasma.
Correct Answer
A. Control bacterial contamination.Explanation
The CPD additive in a donor unit of blood is least likely to control bacterial contamination. While CPD (citrate-phosphate-dextrose) is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clotting, it does not have antibacterial properties. Controlling bacterial contamination is typically achieved through other measures such as proper sterilization techniques and testing procedures.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A transfusion of incompatible blood is often fatal because it:
- A.
Causes a major allergic reaction, releasing too much histamine.
- B.
Causes lysis, or rupturing, of rbc's, within the vascular system.
- C.
Overwhelms the patient's lungs with the non-functioning rbc's
- D.
Results in hemochromatosis in the patent's circulatory system.
Correct Answer
B. Causes lysis, or rupturing, of rbc's, within the vascular system.Explanation
A transfusion of incompatible blood is often fatal because it causes lysis, or rupturing, of red blood cells (rbc's) within the vascular system. When incompatible blood is transfused, the recipient's immune system recognizes the foreign blood cells as invaders and attacks them. This immune response leads to the destruction of the red blood cells, causing their rupture and release of their contents into the bloodstream. This can result in a cascade of harmful effects, including organ damage, clotting disorders, and potentially death.Rate this question:
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- 12.
In using a cell-salvagine procedure during surgery, what analyte must be evaluated before the patient's blood can be reinfused?
- A.
Chemical toxins
- B.
Free hemoglobulin
- C.
Plasma glucose
- D.
White cell count.
Correct Answer
B. Free hemoglobulinExplanation
During a cell-salvage procedure, the patient's blood is collected, processed, and then reinfused back into their body. Before the blood can be reinfused, it is important to evaluate the level of free hemoglobin in the blood. Free hemoglobin can be released into the bloodstream during surgery and can cause complications such as kidney damage. By evaluating the level of free hemoglobin, medical professionals can ensure that it is within a safe range before reinfusing the blood back into the patient.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which one of the donor unit collection principles is untrue?
- A.
Additives EDTA and sodium fluoride are contained in the collection bag.
- B.
The collection bag is placed on a mixing unit while the blood is being drawn.
- C.
The collection unit is a closed system connected to a tube and a 16- to 18-gauge needle.
- D.
The unit is filled by weight, which normally corresponds to 450 ml when full
Correct Answer
A. Additives EDTA and sodium fluoride are contained in the collection bag.Explanation
The statement "Additives EDTA and sodium fluoride are contained in the collection bag" is untrue. These additives are typically contained in the collection tube, not in the collection bag. The collection bag is used to collect and store the blood, while the collection tube is used to add additives and preserve the blood sample.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following are coagulation tests that can be monitored using a POC instrument?
- A.
BNP and HCT
- B.
BUN and UA
- C.
HCO3 - and Tni
- D.
INR and PTT
Correct Answer
D. INR and PTTExplanation
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) and Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) are both coagulation tests that can be monitored using a Point-of-Care (POC) instrument. INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, while PTT is used to assess the overall functioning of the coagulation cascade. These tests are commonly performed in clinical settings to evaluate a patient's clotting ability and to monitor the effects of medication or disease on the coagulation system.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Some individuals lack the necessary mucosal enzyme to convert which of the following sugars so that it can be digested?
- A.
Glucose
- B.
Glucagon
- C.
Lactose
- D.
Pentose
Correct Answer
C. LactoseExplanation
Lactose is a sugar found in milk and dairy products. In order to be digested, lactose needs to be broken down into its component sugars, glucose and galactose, by an enzyme called lactase. However, some individuals lack the necessary mucosal enzyme, lactase, to break down lactose. This condition is known as lactose intolerance, and it can cause digestive symptoms such as bloating, gas, and diarrhea when lactose is consumed. Therefore, individuals who lack the necessary mucosal enzyme are unable to digest lactose properly.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Blood gases can be monitored using the:
- A.
AXOVimeter.
- B.
Cardiac status.
- C.
Cholestech.
- D.
Triage Meter Pro.
Correct Answer
A. AXOVimeter.Explanation
The AXOVimeter is a device used for monitoring blood gases. It is specifically designed for this purpose and provides accurate measurements of oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Other options such as cardiac status, Cholestech, and Triage Meter Pro are not specifically designed for monitoring blood gases and may not provide accurate readings. Therefore, the correct answer is AXOVimeter.Rate this question:
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- 17.
This point of care testing instructment has recently been recognized as an accurate predictor of developing diabetic complications.
- A.
AccuCheck
- B.
DCA Vantage
- C.
Glucose 201
- D.
SureStep Flex
Correct Answer
B. DCA VantageExplanation
The DCA Vantage is a point of care testing instrument that has recently been recognized as an accurate predictor of developing diabetic complications. This suggests that the DCA Vantage can effectively detect early signs of complications related to diabetes, allowing for timely intervention and management.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Potassium is least likely to play a major role in:
- A.
Muscle function.
- B.
Nerve conduction.
- C.
Osmotic pressure.
- D.
Transporting Hgb.
Correct Answer
D. Transporting Hgb.Explanation
Potassium plays a major role in muscle function and nerve conduction, as it is involved in the generation and transmission of electrical impulses. It also contributes to osmotic pressure, which helps maintain the balance of fluids in the body. However, potassium does not play a direct role in transporting hemoglobin (Hgb), which is primarily carried out by red blood cells. Therefore, it is least likely to play a major role in transporting Hgb.Rate this question:
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- 19.
All POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use have which of the following in common?
- A.
The ability to use capillary, venous, or arterial blood samples?.
- B.
Data can be downloaded to a data management program.
- C.
They require the use of an authorized operator ID number
- D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above.Explanation
All POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use have the ability to use capillary, venous, or arterial blood samples. This means that they can analyze glucose levels in blood samples obtained from different sources. Additionally, these analyzers have the capability to download data to a data management program, allowing for easy tracking and analysis of glucose levels over time. Finally, they require the use of an authorized operator ID number, ensuring that only authorized personnel can access and operate the analyzer. Therefore, all of the given options are common features of POC glucose analyzers approved for hospital use.Rate this question:
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- 20.
ARD or FAN blood culture bottles:
- A.
Detect problems in carbohydrate metabolism.
- B.
Eliminate vital interference from blood cells.
- C.
Remove any antibiotics that are in the blood
- D.
Treat blood-borne pathogens in the circulation.
Correct Answer
C. Remove any antibiotics that are in the bloodExplanation
The correct answer is "Remove any antibiotics that are in the blood." ARD or FAN blood culture bottles are specifically designed to remove any antibiotics that may be present in the blood sample. This is important because antibiotics can inhibit the growth of bacteria, which can lead to false-negative results in blood culture tests. By removing antibiotics, the bottles ensure that any bacteria present in the blood can grow and be detected accurately.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Septicemia is:
- A.
A positive test for transmissible disease
- B.
Bacteria measurement in whole blood.
- C.
Fever in which the cause is not known
- D.
Microorganisms found in the blood.
Correct Answer
D. Microorganisms found in the blood.Explanation
Septicemia refers to a condition where microorganisms, such as bacteria, are present in the bloodstream. This can occur when an infection spreads from a localized site to the bloodstream, leading to the dissemination of bacteria throughout the body. It is a serious and potentially life-threatening condition that requires prompt medical attention.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The Siemens Patient Identification Check-Blood Administration system is a:
- A.
Complete management system for IV chemotherapy.
- B.
Plasma/low hemoglobin point-of-care analyzer
- C.
Portable bar-code scanning system for positive patient ID
- D.
Special ID bracelet having a self-carbon adhesive label
Correct Answer
C. Portable bar-code scanning system for positive patient IDExplanation
The Siemens Patient Identification Check-Blood Administration system is a portable bar-code scanning system for positive patient ID. This system allows healthcare providers to accurately identify patients by scanning their barcodes, ensuring that the right medication or treatment is given to the right patient. It helps prevent medication errors and improves patient safety by reducing the risk of administering medication to the wrong patient.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Eligibility requirements for donating blood include:
- A.
Age 17 to 66 years, 110 pounds or more.
- B.
Age 18 to 75 years, 110 pounds or more.
- C.
Age 21 to 65, at least 100 pounds.
- D.
Minimum of 21 years old, 100 pounds.
Correct Answer
A. Age 17 to 66 years, 110 pounds or more.Explanation
The correct answer is "Age 17 to 66 years, 110 pounds or more." This answer combines the age requirement of being between 17 and 66 years old with the weight requirement of being at least 110 pounds. This means that individuals who are within this age range and meet the weight requirement are eligible to donate blood.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Identify the condition in which a unit of blood is withdrawn from a patient as a treatment
- A.
ABO incompatibility
- B.
Autologous donation
- C.
Hemochromatosis
- D.
Hemolytic anemia
Correct Answer
C. HemochromatosisExplanation
Hemochromatosis is a condition where there is an excessive accumulation of iron in the body. This excess iron can cause damage to various organs and tissues. Treatment for hemochromatosis involves the removal of blood from the patient, known as therapeutic phlebotomy, in order to reduce the iron levels in the body. Therefore, a unit of blood is withdrawn from a patient with hemochromatosis as a treatment for the condition.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which specimen requires esspceially strict identification and labeling procedures?
- A.
Aldosterone
- B.
Cross-match
- C.
Plasminogen
- D.
Valproic acid
Correct Answer
B. Cross-matchExplanation
Cross-matching is a procedure that involves testing the compatibility of blood between a donor and a recipient before a blood transfusion. It is crucial to ensure that the recipient's immune system does not react negatively to the donor's blood. Therefore, cross-matching requires especially strict identification and labeling procedures to avoid any mix-ups or errors that could lead to severe complications or even fatalities during a blood transfusion.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following should be removed from a list of drugs of abuse?
- A.
Anphetamines
- B.
Cannabinoids
- C.
"Crack' and "ice"
- D.
Phenobarbital
Correct Answer
D. pHenobarbitalExplanation
Phenobarbital should be removed from a list of drugs of abuse because it is not typically considered a drug of abuse. Phenobarbital is a barbiturate medication that is primarily used as an anticonvulsant and sedative. It has legitimate medical uses and is not commonly abused or sought after for recreational purposes. On the other hand, drugs like amphetamines, cannabinoids, and "crack" and "ice" are known to be drugs of abuse and are often used recreationally for their psychoactive effects.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Donor units of blood are typically collected using needles that are:
- A.
16 to 18 gauge
- B.
18 to 28 gauge
- C.
20 to 22 gauge
- D.
23 to 25 gauge
Correct Answer
A. 16 to 18 gaugeExplanation
The correct answer is 16 to 18 gauge. This is because larger gauge needles allow for a faster flow of blood, which is important when collecting blood from donors. The larger size also reduces the risk of hemolysis, which is the breakdown of red blood cells. Therefore, using 16 to 18 gauge needles is the most suitable option for collecting donor units of blood.Rate this question:
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- 28.
A typical unit of donated blood contrains approximately:
- A.
250 ml.
- B.
450 ml.
- C.
750 ml.
- D.
L.
Correct Answer
B. 450 ml.Explanation
A typical unit of donated blood contains approximately 450 ml. This is the most common volume for a unit of donated blood. It is important to have a standardized volume for blood donations to ensure consistency and safety in the process. This volume allows for efficient testing and processing of the donated blood, while also being a safe amount for the donor to give.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following tests is collected from patients with FUO to rule out septicemia?
- A.
Blood cultures times two
- B.
Nasopharynegal culture
- C.
Urine culture and sensitivity
- D.
Wound and skin culture
Correct Answer
A. Blood cultures times twoExplanation
Blood cultures are collected from patients with FUO (Fever of Unknown Origin) to rule out septicemia, which is a serious bloodstream infection. Collecting blood cultures times two increases the chances of detecting any bacteria or fungi that may be causing the infection. By culturing the blood, healthcare providers can identify the specific pathogen responsible for the septicemia and guide appropriate treatment. Nasopharyngeal, urine, wound, and skin cultures are not specifically used to rule out septicemia, although they may be useful in diagnosing other types of infections.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Of all of the following, which tubes should be eliminated for use in collecting specimens for a blood bank?
- A.
Large gel-barrier tube
- B.
Lavender-top tube
- C.
Nonadditive red-top tube
- D.
Pink-stopper EDTA tube
Correct Answer
A. Large gel-barrier tubeExplanation
The large gel-barrier tube should be eliminated for use in collecting specimens for a blood bank because it contains a gel barrier that separates the cells from the serum or plasma. This gel can interfere with the accuracy of certain blood bank tests, such as crossmatching and antibody screening. Therefore, it is not suitable for collecting specimens for a blood bank.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following tests is collected using special skin decontamination procedures?
- A.
Blood area nitrogen
- B.
Complete blood count
- C.
Set of blood cultures
- D.
Type and cross match
Correct Answer
C. Set of blood culturesExplanation
A set of blood cultures is collected using special skin decontamination procedures. This is because blood cultures are used to detect the presence of bacteria or fungi in the bloodstream. To ensure accurate results and prevent contamination, the skin must be properly cleaned and disinfected before collecting the blood samples for culture. This involves using specific antiseptic solutions and techniques to eliminate any potential sources of contamination on the skin surface.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which type of test is performed to determine the probability that a specific individual was the father of a particular child?
- A.
Coagulation
- B.
Cross-match
- C.
Paternity
- D.
RBC indices
Correct Answer
C. PaternityExplanation
Paternity testing is performed to determine the probability that a specific individual is the biological father of a particular child. This test analyzes the genetic markers in the DNA of both the child and the potential father to establish a biological relationship. By comparing the genetic profiles, the likelihood of paternity can be calculated with a high degree of accuracy.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Why would blood cultures be collected with an antimicrobial adsorbing resin?
- A.
The patient has fever spikes for more than a week.
- B.
The patient is taking a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
- C.
To eliminate contaminating normal skin flora.
- D.
To absorb and remove bacteria-caused contamination.
Correct Answer
B. The patient is taking a broad-spectrum antibiotic.Explanation
Blood cultures are collected with an antimicrobial adsorbing resin when the patient is taking a broad-spectrum antibiotic. This is because broad-spectrum antibiotics can suppress the growth of bacteria in blood cultures, making it difficult to detect and identify the specific bacteria causing the infection. By using an antimicrobial adsorbing resin, the antibiotic is removed from the blood sample, allowing for accurate identification of the bacteria causing the infection.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which specimen tubes must contain a 9-to-1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant to be accepted for testing?
- A.
Blood bank
- B.
Chemistry
- C.
Coagulation
- D.
Hematology
Correct Answer
C. Coagulation -
- 35.
Which type of additive is best for collecting an etha- nol specimen?
- A.
CPA + adenine
- B.
Potassium EDTA
- C.
Sodium citrate
- D.
Sodium fluoride
Correct Answer
D. Sodium fluorideExplanation
Sodium fluoride is the best additive for collecting an ethanol specimen. This is because sodium fluoride acts as a preservative and inhibits the growth of microorganisms in the specimen. It also prevents the breakdown of ethanol by inhibiting the enzyme that metabolizes it. This ensures that the ethanol levels in the specimen remain stable and accurate for testing purposes.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which BC is inoculated first when the specimenhas been collected by needle and syringe?
- A.
Aerobic media
- B.
Anaerobic vial
- C.
ARD container
- D.
It does not matter
Correct Answer
B. Anaerobic vialExplanation
When a specimen has been collected by needle and syringe, the anaerobic vial is inoculated first. This is because the anaerobic vial is specifically designed to create an environment without oxygen, which is necessary for the growth of certain types of bacteria. By inoculating the specimen into the anaerobic vial first, it ensures that the bacteria that require an oxygen-free environment have the best chance of growing and being detected in the laboratory analysis.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The most critical aspect of blood culture collection is:
- A.
Needle gauge.
- B.
Skin antisepsis.
- C.
Specimen handling.
- D.
Volume collected
Correct Answer
B. Skin antisepsis.Explanation
Skin antisepsis is the most critical aspect of blood culture collection because it helps to reduce the risk of introducing contaminants into the bloodstream during the collection process. Properly cleaning and disinfecting the skin before inserting the needle helps to minimize the chance of bacterial or fungal contamination, which could lead to false-positive results or misdiagnosis. Ensuring aseptic technique during skin antisepsis is crucial in preventing infections and ensuring accurate and reliable blood culture results. Needle gauge, specimen handling, and volume collected are important factors as well, but skin antisepsis is the most critical aspect for maintaining the integrity of the blood culture sample.Rate this question:
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- 38.
A site for blood culture collection can typically be cleaned with which of the following?
- A.
Chlorhexidene gluconate
- B.
Hydrogen peroxide
- C.
Sodium hypochlorite
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Chlorhexidene gluconateExplanation
Chlorhexidine gluconate is typically used to clean the site for blood culture collection. It is a common antiseptic that is effective against a wide range of microorganisms. It is often preferred over hydrogen peroxide and sodium hypochlorite because it has a longer-lasting antimicrobial effect and is less likely to cause tissue damage or irritation. Therefore, chlorhexidine gluconate is the recommended choice for cleaning the site before blood culture collection.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which type of specimen may require collection of a discard tube before the test specimen is collected?
- A.
Blood culture
- B.
Coagulation
- C.
Drug testing
- D.
Paternity
Correct Answer
B. CoagulationExplanation
In coagulation testing, it is important to collect a discard tube before collecting the test specimen. This is done to ensure that the sample collected is free from any contaminants or substances that may interfere with the coagulation process. The discard tube helps to remove any residual anticoagulants or substances that could affect the accuracy of the test results. Therefore, coagulation testing may require the collection of a discard tube before collecting the test specimen.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which type of specimen may require colection of a discard tube before the test specimen is collected?
- A.
Blood culture
- B.
Coagulation
- C.
Drug Testing
- D.
Paternity
Correct Answer
B. CoagulationExplanation
In coagulation testing, a discard tube is required before collecting the test specimen. This is because the discard tube is used to remove any residual anticoagulant or tissue factor present in the needle and tubing, which could interfere with the accuracy of the coagulation test results. By discarding the initial blood sample, any potential contamination is eliminated, ensuring that the subsequent test specimen collected is free from any interfering substances.Rate this question:
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- 41.
This is an abbreviation for a test that evaluates phatelet plug formation in the capillaries.
- A.
ACT
- B.
BT
- C.
CBC
- D.
PT
Correct Answer
B. BTExplanation
BT is the correct answer because it stands for Bleeding Time, which is a test used to evaluate the ability of platelets to form a plug in the capillaries. This test measures the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a small incision is made on the skin. By assessing the bleeding time, healthcare professionals can determine if a patient has any platelet function abnormalities or disorders that may affect their ability to form blood clots.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which test is ued as a screening test for glucose metabolism problems?
- A.
2-hour PP
- B.
GTT
- C.
Lactose
- D.
WBC
Correct Answer
A. 2-hour PPExplanation
The 2-hour PP test is used as a screening test for glucose metabolism problems. This test measures the blood glucose levels 2 hours after consuming a glucose-rich drink. It helps to identify individuals who may have impaired glucose tolerance or gestational diabetes. By measuring the body's ability to regulate blood sugar levels, this test can detect early signs of glucose metabolism problems and guide further diagnostic and treatment options.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following activities has no effect on glucose tolerance test (GTT) results?
- A.
Chewing sugarless gum
- B.
Drinking tea without sugar
- C.
Lying down during the test
- D.
Smoking low-tar cigarettes
Correct Answer
C. Lying down during the testExplanation
Lying down during the glucose tolerance test (GTT) has no effect on the test results because the position of the body does not influence the body's ability to process glucose. The GTT measures how well the body metabolizes glucose and evaluates the body's response to it. Activities such as chewing sugarless gum, drinking tea without sugar, and smoking low-tar cigarettes can potentially affect the test results by altering blood sugar levels or insulin response. However, lying down does not have any impact on these factors, thus it does not affect the GTT results.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When does the timing of specimen collection begin during a GTT
- A.
After the fasting blood specimen has been collected
- B.
As soon as the patient begins to drink the beverage
- C.
Before the fasting blood specimen is to be collected
- D.
When the patient has finished the glucose beverage
Correct Answer
D. When the patient has finished the glucose beverageExplanation
The timing of specimen collection during a GTT begins when the patient has finished the glucose beverage. This is because the glucose beverage needs to be consumed first in order to measure the body's response to the glucose load. After the patient finishes the beverage, blood samples are taken at specific intervals to measure the glucose levels and assess the body's ability to regulate blood sugar.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A phlebotomist arrives to collect a 2-hour postprandial glucose specimen on an inpatient and discovers that 2 hours have not elapsed since the patient's last meal. What should the phlebotomist do?
- A.
Ask the patient's nurse to verify the correct collection time.
- B.
Come back later at the time the patient tells you is correct.
- C.
Draw the specimen and write the time collected on the label.
- D.
Fill out an incident report form and return to the laboratory.
Correct Answer
A. Ask the patient's nurse to verify the correct collection time.Explanation
The phlebotomist should ask the patient's nurse to verify the correct collection time. This is important because the accuracy of the postprandial glucose test relies on the blood sample being collected exactly 2 hours after the patient's last meal. By confirming the correct collection time with the nurse, the phlebotomist ensures that the test results are reliable and accurate.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A parient undergoing a GTT vomits within 30 minutes of drinking the flocose beverage. What action should the phlebotomist take?
- A.
Continue the test and note on the lab slip that the patient vomited and at what time.
- B.
Discontinue the test and write on the requisition that the patient vomited the drink
- C.
Give the patient another dose of the glucose beverage and continue wit the test.
- D.
Notify the nurse or physician immediately to see if the test should be rescheduled.
Correct Answer
D. Notify the nurse or pHysician immediately to see if the test should be rescheduled.Explanation
The phlebotomist should notify the nurse or physician immediately to see if the test should be rescheduled. Vomiting within 30 minutes of drinking the glucose beverage can affect the accuracy of the test results. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate course of action, which may involve rescheduling the test or taking other necessary steps.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Increased blood glucose is called:
- A.
Hyperglycemia
- B.
Hyperinsulinism
- C.
Hyperkalemia
- D.
Hypernatremia
Correct Answer
A. HyperglycemiaExplanation
Hyperglycemia refers to a condition where there is an abnormally high level of glucose in the blood. This can occur due to various reasons, such as insufficient insulin production or ineffective insulin utilization. Hyperglycemia is commonly associated with diabetes mellitus, a chronic condition characterized by high blood sugar levels. It can lead to symptoms like increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. If left untreated, hyperglycemia can cause long-term complications such as cardiovascular disease, kidney damage, and nerve damage. Therefore, hyperglycemia is the correct term to describe increased blood glucose levels.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When does a blood glucose level in normal individuals typically peak after glucose ingestion?
- A.
In 15 to 20 minutes
- B.
In1/2 hour to 1 hour
- C.
In 1 to 1 1/2 hours
- D.
In roughly 2 hours
Correct Answer
B. In1/2 hour to 1 hourExplanation
After glucose ingestion, the blood glucose level in normal individuals typically peaks in about half an hour to one hour. This is because the body rapidly absorbs and processes the glucose, causing a spike in blood sugar levels. After this peak, the body gradually metabolizes the glucose, bringing the blood sugar levels back to normal.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following must remain consistent throughout an oral gluucose tolerance test (GTT)?
- A.
Arm used for the draw
- B.
Blood specimen source
- C.
Position of the patient
- D.
Size of ETS tubes used
Correct Answer
B. Blood specimen sourceExplanation
During an oral glucose tolerance test (GTT), the blood specimen source must remain consistent. This means that the blood samples should be collected from the same source, such as a vein or a finger prick, throughout the test. Consistency in the blood specimen source is important to ensure accurate and reliable results, as different sources may have variations in glucose levels. Therefore, maintaining the same blood specimen source throughout the GTT is crucial for obtaining consistent and comparable measurements.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Patient preparation before a GTT involves:
- A.
Eating meals with a measured amount of carbohydrate 3 days prior.
- B.
Exercising for 3 hours a day for a week prior to having the test.
- C.
Fasting for at least 2 hours before having the fasting specimen drawn.
- D.
No chewing gum before or during the test unless it is sugarless.
Correct Answer
A. Eating meals with a measured amount of carbohydrate 3 days prior.Explanation
The correct answer is eating meals with a measured amount of carbohydrate 3 days prior. This is because the GTT (Glucose Tolerance Test) is a test used to diagnose diabetes or gestational diabetes. By consuming meals with a measured amount of carbohydrate, it helps to standardize the amount of glucose in the body before the test. This allows for accurate measurement of how the body processes and handles glucose. The other options, such as exercising or fasting, may have an impact on glucose levels but are not specifically mentioned as part of the patient preparation for a GTT.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 10, 2012Quiz Created by
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