Take Home Quiz Chapter 7

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Take Home Quiz Chapter 7 - Quiz

For all the biology lovers out there who enjoy finding out about how stuff in the body works, then this is the quiz for you. Find out your level of knowledge from this test and see how much you know.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which blood specimen additive can inhibit the metabolism of glucose by the cells?

    • A.

      EDTA

    • B.

      Heparin

    • C.

      NaF

    • D.

      Oxalate

    Correct Answer
    C. NaF
    Explanation
    NaF, or sodium fluoride, is a blood specimen additive that can inhibit the metabolism of glucose by the cells. It does so by acting as a glycolysis inhibitor, preventing the breakdown of glucose into energy. This additive is commonly used in blood samples for glucose testing, as it helps to preserve the glucose levels in the sample and prevent any further metabolism.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following items is unnecessary when performing a routine venipuncture?

    • A.

      Evacuated Tubes

    • B.

      Safety needle

    • C.

      Skin Disinfectant

    • D.

      Tourniquet

    Correct Answer
    C. Skin Disinfectant
    Explanation
    When performing a routine venipuncture, the skin disinfectant is unnecessary. This is because the purpose of a skin disinfectant is to clean the area of the skin where the needle will be inserted, reducing the risk of infection. However, in a routine venipuncture, the needle is only inserted into a vein to collect a blood sample, and the area does not need to be disinfected beforehand. Therefore, the skin disinfectant is not required for this procedure.

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  • 3. 

    If a serum specimen is requested, what is an evacuated tube that can be used to collect it?

    • A.

      EDTA

    • B.

      PPT

    • C.

      PST

    • D.

      SST

    Correct Answer
    D. SST
    Explanation
    An evacuated tube that can be used to collect a serum specimen is the SST (Serum Separator Tube). This tube contains a gel that separates the serum from the other components of the blood when it is centrifuged. The gel acts as a barrier, allowing for easy separation and retrieval of the serum for further analysis or testing.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following are all anticoagulants that remove calcium from the specimen by forming insoluble calcium salts and therefore preventing coagulation?

    • A.

      EDTA, lithium heparin, citrate

    • B.

      Naf, sodium heparin, EDTA

    • C.

      Oxalate, SPS, sodium heparin

    • D.

      Sodium citrate, EDTA, oxlate

    Correct Answer
    D. Sodium citrate, EDTA, oxlate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Sodium citrate, EDTA, oxalate. These three substances are all anticoagulants that remove calcium from the specimen by forming insoluble calcium salts. This prevents coagulation by inhibiting the clotting cascade. Sodium citrate is commonly used as an anticoagulant for coagulation tests, EDTA is used for hematology tests, and oxalate is used for blood glucose testing.

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  • 5. 

    In a successful venipuncture, evacuated tubes fill automatically as soon as the stopper is pierced because of:

    • A.

      Equal pressure in the vein and tube.

    • B.

      Premeasured vacuum in each tube.

    • C.

      Pressure from the arterial system.

    • D.

      Tourniquet pressure on the vein.

    Correct Answer
    B. Premeasured vacuum in each tube.
    Explanation
    Evacuated tubes fill automatically as soon as the stopper is pierced because of premeasured vacuum in each tube. Evacuated tubes are designed to have a vacuum inside them, which creates negative pressure. When the stopper is pierced and the needle is inserted into the vein, the vacuum inside the tube causes the blood to be drawn into the tube. This vacuum helps to ensure that the correct amount of blood is collected and prevents any air from entering the tube.

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  • 6. 

    Lavender-stopper tubes are most commonly used to collect:

    • A.

      Chemistry tests

    • B.

      Coagulation tests.

    • C.

      Hematology tests.

    • D.

      Immunology tests

    Correct Answer
    C. Hematology tests.
    Explanation
    Lavender-stopper tubes are commonly used to collect blood samples for hematology tests. These tests involve analyzing the components of blood, such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, to evaluate a person's overall health and diagnose various conditions. The lavender-stopper tubes contain an additive called EDTA, which helps preserve the blood sample by preventing it from clotting. This allows for accurate analysis of the blood components in hematology tests.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is one reason the ETS is the preferred blood collection system?

    • A.

      Exposure of the blood to contaminants is avoided.

    • B.

      It is easier to see the flash when entering a vein.

    • C.

      The collector's exposure to blood is eliminated.

    • D.

      Using a syringe can collapse a vein more easily.

    Correct Answer
    A. Exposure of the blood to contaminants is avoided.
    Explanation
    The reason the ETS is the preferred blood collection system is because it avoids exposure of the blood to contaminants. This means that the risk of contamination during the collection process is minimized, ensuring the integrity and safety of the collected blood sample.

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  • 8. 

    Lithium heparin is a suitable anticoagulant for which of the following tests?

    • A.

      CSC

    • B.

      Lytes

    • C.

      Lithium

    • D.

      Protime

    Correct Answer
    B. Lytes
    Explanation
    Lithium heparin is a suitable anticoagulant for Lytes tests. Lytes tests are used to measure the levels of various electrolytes in the blood, such as sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate. Lithium heparin is commonly used as an anticoagulant because it prevents blood from clotting, allowing for accurate measurement of these electrolyte levels. This anticoagulant is preferred over other options like EDTA or citrate for Lytes tests because it does not interfere with the measurement of electrolytes.

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  • 9. 

    Which one of the following additives can be found in a royal blue-topped collection tube?

    • A.

      Citrate

    • B.

      EDTA

    • C.

      Fluoride

    • D.

      Oxalate

    Correct Answer
    B. EDTA
    Explanation
    EDTA is the correct answer because it is commonly found in royal blue-topped collection tubes. These tubes are used for collecting blood samples for trace element analysis, such as lead or zinc levels. EDTA acts as an anticoagulant, preventing blood from clotting and preserving the integrity of the sample for accurate analysis. It is particularly useful for preserving trace elements, making it suitable for tests requiring royal blue-topped tubes.

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  • 10. 

    Measurement of copper, a trace element, requries blood collection in a tube with a:

    • A.

      Green top.

    • B.

      Lavender top.

    • C.

      Light-blue top.

    • D.

      Royal-blue top.

    Correct Answer
    D. Royal-blue top.
    Explanation
    The measurement of copper, a trace element, requires blood collection in a tube with a royal-blue top. This is because royal-blue top tubes are typically used for trace element analysis, including copper. The tube contains an additive that helps preserve the stability of the trace elements during storage and transportation. The royal-blue top tube ensures accurate and reliable measurement of copper levels in the blood sample.

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  • 11. 

    The blood-to-additive ratio is most critical for a specimen collected in this tube:

    • A.

      Lavender top

    • B.

      Light-blue top

    • C.

      Light-green top

    • D.

      Royal-blue top

    Correct Answer
    B. Light-blue top
    Explanation
    The blood-to-additive ratio is most critical for a specimen collected in a light-blue top tube. This is because light-blue top tubes are used for coagulation tests, which require a specific ratio of blood to anticoagulant additive (usually sodium citrate) to ensure accurate results. If the ratio is not correct, it can lead to improper clotting or clotting inhibition, affecting the reliability of the test results.

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  • 12. 

    If phlebotomists have dermatitis, they should:

    • A.

      Change their gloves for frequently.

    • B.

      Use sanitizer instead of soap and water.

    • C.

      Wash their hands thoroughly and often.

    • D.

      Wear a barrier hand cream or lotion.

    Correct Answer
    D. Wear a barrier hand cream or lotion.
    Explanation
    Phlebotomists should wear a barrier hand cream or lotion if they have dermatitis. This is because dermatitis is a condition that causes inflammation and irritation of the skin, and wearing a barrier cream or lotion can help protect the skin from further damage and irritation. It acts as a protective barrier between the skin and potential irritants, preventing them from coming into direct contact with the affected area. This can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing of the skin.

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  • 13. 

    Decontamination of the hands after glove removal is essential because:

    • A.

      Decontamination is needed to quickly restore normal flora.

    • B.

      Gloves cause pathogens to multiply on the surface of the skin.

    • C.

      Hand contamination might be visible to the naked eye.

    • D.

      Of all of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Hand contamination might be visible to the naked eye.
    Explanation
    Decontamination of the hands after glove removal is essential because hand contamination might be visible to the naked eye. This means that even though gloves provide a barrier against pathogens, there is still a possibility of contamination on the hands. By decontaminating the hands, any visible or invisible contamination can be effectively removed, reducing the risk of spreading pathogens to oneself or others. The other options mentioned, such as the need to restore normal flora or the multiplication of pathogens on the skin due to gloves, are not the main reasons for hand decontamination in this context.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is a disinfectant?

    • A.

      Benzalkonium chloride

    • B.

      Chlorhexidine gluconate

    • C.

      Household bleach

    • D.

      Hydrogen peroxide

    Correct Answer
    C. Household bleach
    Explanation
    Household bleach is a disinfectant because it contains sodium hypochlorite, which is effective in killing a wide range of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. When diluted with water, bleach can be used to clean and disinfect surfaces, such as countertops, floors, and bathroom fixtures. It is commonly used in households, hospitals, and other settings to maintain cleanliness and prevent the spread of infections.

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  • 15. 

    Which disinfectant is preferred by the HICPAC for use on surfaces and instruments?

    • A.

      CDC-approved solution of 2% phenol

    • B.

      Commercial brand of Lysol disinfectant

    • C.

      Manufactured povidone-iodine dilution

    • D.

      EPA-registered sodium hypochlorite product

    Correct Answer
    D. EPA-registered sodium hypochlorite product
    Explanation
    The HICPAC (Healthcare Infection Control Practices Advisory Committee) prefers the use of an EPA-registered sodium hypochlorite product for disinfecting surfaces and instruments. Sodium hypochlorite is a common and effective disinfectant that is widely used in healthcare settings. It has broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity and is effective against a wide range of pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. EPA registration ensures that the product has been tested and proven to be effective against specific microorganisms. This makes it a reliable choice for disinfection in healthcare facilities.

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  • 16. 

    After a blood spill, a disinfectant is applied and must have at least minutes of contact time for cleanup to be effective.

    • A.

      2 minutes

    • B.

      5 minutes

    • C.

      10 minutes

    • D.

      20 minutes

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 minutes
    Explanation
    After a blood spill, it is necessary to apply a disinfectant and allow it to have sufficient contact time for effective cleanup. The correct answer is 10 minutes, indicating that the disinfectant needs to remain in contact with the spilled blood for at least this duration to ensure proper disinfection.

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  • 17. 

    If hands are heavily contaminated with organic material and a sink is not available, the phlebotomist should clean them with:

    • A.

      Alcohol-based hand cleaner and sterile gauze pads.

    • B.

      Detergent-containing wipes followed by a sanitizer.

    • C.

      Hydrogen peroxide followed by a hand sanitizer.

    • D.

      Three separate a 70% isopropyl swabs used in a row

    Correct Answer
    B. Detergent-containing wipes followed by a sanitizer.
  • 18. 

    The purpose of a transiliumination device is to:

    • A.

      Input patient ID information.

    • B.

      Locate veins for venipuncture.

    • C.

      Transfer blood from a syringe.

    • D.

      Do all of the above.

    Correct Answer
    B. Locate veins for venipuncture.
    Explanation
    A transiliumination device is used to locate veins for venipuncture. This device helps healthcare professionals to identify the location and depth of veins, making it easier to draw blood or insert an IV. It uses a light source to illuminate the veins, making them more visible and accessible. This improves the accuracy and efficiency of the venipuncture procedure, reducing the chances of complications such as multiple needle sticks or damage to surrounding tissues. Therefore, the correct answer is "Locate veins for venipuncture."

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  • 19. 

    Which statement is incorrect? A properly applied tourniquet should:

    • A.

      Distend or inflate the veins of choice.

    • B.

      Make veins larger and easier to find.

    • C.

      Restrict venous and arterial blood flow.

    • D.

      Stretch vein walls so that they are thinner.

    Correct Answer
    C. Restrict venous and arterial blood flow.
    Explanation
    A properly applied tourniquet should not restrict venous and arterial blood flow. The purpose of a tourniquet is to restrict only venous blood flow, while still allowing arterial blood flow to continue. This is done to prevent excessive bleeding while still maintaining blood supply to the extremity. Restricting both venous and arterial blood flow can lead to tissue damage and other complications.

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  • 20. 

    This needle gauge is used primarily for infant or child veins, and difficult or hard veins of adults:

    • A.

      16

    • B.

      1 8

    • C.

      21

    • D.

      2 3

    Correct Answer
    D. 2 3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "2 3". This needle gauge is primarily used for infant or child veins, as well as difficult or hard veins of adults. The smaller gauge size (23) allows for easier insertion into smaller veins, while the larger gauge size (22) provides increased flow rate for difficult or hard veins. Therefore, using a combination of gauge sizes 2 and 3 would be the most suitable for these specific situations.

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  • 21. 

    Needle safety features work by:

    • A.

      Covering or shielding the needle.

    • B.

      Retracting the needle after use.

    • C.

      Using a device to blunt the needle.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because needle safety features can include various methods to ensure the safety of healthcare workers and patients. Covering or shielding the needle can prevent accidental needlestick injuries. Retracting the needle after use can further reduce the risk of needlestick injuries by retracting the needle into a protective sheath or housing. Using a device to blunt the needle can also make it safer to handle and dispose of. Therefore, all of these methods are commonly used in needle safety features.

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  • 22. 

    OSHA regulations require that after use:

    • A.

      Needles be automatically ejected into the sharps container.

    • B.

      Needles be removed from the tube holders before disposal.

    • C.

      Tube holders be sanitized soon after the needle is removed.

    • D.

      Tube holders with needles attached be disposed of as a unit.

    Correct Answer
    D. Tube holders with needles attached be disposed of as a unit.
    Explanation
    According to OSHA regulations, it is required to dispose of tube holders with needles attached as a unit. This means that the needle and the tube holder should not be separated before disposal. This regulation ensures the safe handling and disposal of needles, reducing the risk of needlestick injuries and potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens. By disposing of the tube holders with needles attached as a unit, it minimizes the chances of accidental needlesticks and promotes a safer working environment.

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  • 23. 

    The head space in an evacuated tube is:

    • A.

      A consistent amount of airspace left when a tube is filled properly.

    • B.

      Due to premature depletion of the tube vacuum when a vein is missed.

    • C.

      Room left in a tube if the tube is not completely filled to the stated volume.

    • D.

      Space inside a colored utbe stopper that should not touch the blood.

    Correct Answer
    A. A consistent amount of airspace left when a tube is filled properly.
    Explanation
    The headspace in an evacuated tube refers to the consistent amount of airspace that is intentionally left when the tube is filled properly. This headspace is important because it allows for expansion of the blood when the tube is subjected to centrifugation or other mechanical stress. It also helps to prevent hemolysis or rupture of the tube due to excessive pressure build-up. Therefore, the correct answer is that the headspace is a consistent amount of airspace left when a tube is filled properly.

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  • 24. 

    Tubes designed by the manufacturer to be "short draw" are:

    • A.

      Bad for coagulation testing.

    • B.

      Made to fill only partially.

    • C.

      Smaller than regular tubes.

    • D.

      Without anticoagulants.

    Correct Answer
    B. Made to fill only partially.
    Explanation
    Tubes designed by the manufacturer to be "short draw" are made to fill only partially. This means that they are not meant to be filled completely like regular tubes. The purpose of these tubes is to collect a smaller amount of blood for specific tests or procedures that require a smaller sample size. Partially filling the tubes ensures that the correct blood-to-additive ratio is maintained, which is crucial for accurate test results.

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  • 25. 

    Types of ETS tubes additives include:

    • A.

      Anticoagulants.

    • B.

      Clot activators.

    • C.

      Separator gels.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because the question asks for the types of ETS tube additives, and all three options listed (anticoagulants, clot activators, and separator gels) are indeed types of additives commonly used in ETS tubes. Anticoagulants are used to prevent blood from clotting, clot activators are used to promote blood clotting, and separator gels are used to separate the serum or plasma from the blood cells. Therefore, all three options are correct.

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  • 26. 

    Plastic red-top tubes used to collect blood speciments usually contain:

    • A.

      Anticoagulants.

    • B.

      Clot activators.

    • C.

      No additives.

    • D.

      Preservatives.

    Correct Answer
    B. Clot activators.
    Explanation
    Plastic red-top tubes used to collect blood specimens usually contain clot activators. This is because clot activators promote the clotting of blood by initiating the coagulation cascade. This is important for certain laboratory tests that require the blood to clot, such as coagulation studies or serum separation. Anticoagulants, on the other hand, prevent blood from clotting and are used in different types of tubes for specific tests. No additives and preservatives are not commonly found in plastic red-top tubes.

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  • 27. 

    Improper handling or storage of exacuated tubes can affect:

    • A.

      Additive integrity.

    • B.

      The shape of the tube.

    • C.

      The vacuum of the tube.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    Improper handling or storage of evacuated tubes can affect additive integrity, the shape of the tube, and the vacuum of the tube. Additive integrity refers to the preservation of the correct concentration and functionality of additives within the tube, which can be compromised if the tube is mishandled or stored incorrectly. The shape of the tube can also be altered if it is not handled carefully, potentially affecting the accuracy of test results. Finally, the vacuum of the tube can be compromised if it is not stored properly, leading to inaccurate test results. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.

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  • 28. 

    Which test can be affected by cross-contaimination from a light-blue-top tube?

    • A.

      Acid phosphatase

    • B.

      Calcium

    • C.

      Lithium

    • D.

      Potassium

    Correct Answer
    B. Calcium
    Explanation
    Cross-contamination from a light-blue-top tube can affect the test for calcium. Light-blue-top tubes are typically used for coagulation tests that require the addition of an anticoagulant called sodium citrate. If there is any residual sodium citrate left in the tube, it can interfere with the calcium test, leading to inaccurate results. Calcium is an important electrolyte that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, so accurate measurement is essential for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following tests could be affected by carryover from an EDTA tube?

    • A.

      Activated clotting time

    • B.

      Amylase

    • C.

      Creatine kinase

    • D.

      Lithium

    Correct Answer
    C. Creatine kinase
    Explanation
    Carryover from an EDTA tube can affect the accuracy of the Creatine Kinase test. EDTA is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting by binding to calcium ions. Creatine Kinase is an enzyme found in muscle cells, and its levels in the blood can indicate muscle damage or disease. Carryover of EDTA can interfere with the measurement of Creatine Kinase levels, leading to inaccurate results. Therefore, the Creatine Kinase test could be affected by carryover from an EDTA tube.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following additives is least likely to affectan alkaline phosphatase test?

    • A.

      Citrate

    • B.

      EDTA

    • C.

      Heparin

    • D.

      Oxalate

    Correct Answer
    C. Heparin
    Explanation
    Heparin is least likely to affect an alkaline phosphatase test because it does not interfere with the enzyme activity of alkaline phosphatase. Citrate, EDTA, and Oxalate are commonly used as anticoagulants and can inhibit the activity of alkaline phosphatase, thus affecting the test results. However, heparin does not have the same inhibitory effect on alkaline phosphatase, making it the least likely additive to affect the test.

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  • 31. 

    Carryover of this additive is unlikely to affect a partial thromboplasin time:

    • A.

      EDTA

    • B.

      Heparin

    • C.

      Naf

    • D.

      Silica

    Correct Answer
    C. Naf
  • 32. 

    This antiseptic has been traditionally used to obrain the high degree of skin antisepis required when blood cultures are being collected:

    • A.

      70% Ethyl alcohol

    • B.

      70% Isopropanol

    • C.

      Hydrogen peroxide

    • D.

      Povidone-iodine

    Correct Answer
    D. Povidone-iodine
    Explanation
    Povidone-iodine is the correct answer because it is a commonly used antiseptic for obtaining a high degree of skin antisepsis during blood culture collection. It is effective against a wide range of microorganisms and has been traditionally used for this purpose. Ethyl alcohol and isopropanol are also commonly used antiseptics, but they may not provide the same level of antisepsis required for blood culture collection. Hydrogen peroxide is not typically used as an antiseptic for this purpose.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is the preferred solution to use to clean up blood spills?

    • A.

      5.25% Sodium hypochlorite

    • B.

      An EPA-approved bleach product

    • C.

      Fresh solution of soap and water

    • D.

      Undiluted 70% isopropyl alcohol

    Correct Answer
    B. An EPA-approved bleach product
    Explanation
    An EPA-approved bleach product is the preferred solution to use to clean up blood spills. This is because bleach is effective at killing pathogens, including bloodborne pathogens, and is commonly used in healthcare settings for disinfection purposes. The EPA approval ensures that the bleach product meets specific safety and efficacy standards. Sodium hypochlorite, the active ingredient in bleach, is known for its strong disinfecting properties and ability to break down organic matter. Therefore, using an EPA-approved bleach product is the most appropriate and effective solution for cleaning up blood spills.

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  • 34. 

    Antiseptics are:

    • A.

      Corrosive chemical compounds.

    • B.

      Safe for use on human skin.

    • C.

      Fresh solution of soap and water.

    • D.

      Used to kill pathogenic microbes.

    Correct Answer
    B. Safe for use on human skin.
    Explanation
    Antiseptics are substances that are safe for use on human skin. They are specifically designed to kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi, on living tissues. Unlike corrosive chemical compounds, antiseptics are formulated to be gentle and non-toxic to the skin while still effectively killing harmful microbes. They are commonly used in first aid to clean wounds and prevent infection.

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  • 35. 

    A solution used to clean the site before routine venipuncture is:

    • A.

      5.25% sodium hypochlorite.

    • B.

      70% isopropyl alcohol.

    • C.

      70% methanol.

    • D.

      Povidone-iodine.

    Correct Answer
    B. 70% isopropyl alcohol.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 70% isopropyl alcohol. Isopropyl alcohol is commonly used as an antiseptic to clean the site before routine venipuncture. It helps to kill bacteria and reduce the risk of infection. Sodium hypochlorite is a bleach solution and is not typically used for this purpose. Methanol is toxic and should not be used on the skin. Povidone-iodine is another antiseptic option, but isopropyl alcohol is more commonly used.

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  • 36. 

    Why are gauze pads a better choice than cotton balls for covering the site and holding pressure following venipuncture?

    • A.

      Cotton balls are not very absorbent.

    • B.

      Cotton ball fibers can stick to the site.

    • C.

      Gauze pads are a more sterile choice.

    • D.

      Gauze pads deliver more pressure.

    Correct Answer
    B. Cotton ball fibers can stick to the site.
    Explanation
    Cotton ball fibers can stick to the site, which can be problematic when trying to cover and apply pressure to the site following venipuncture. This can cause discomfort or even interfere with the healing process. Gauze pads, on the other hand, are less likely to stick to the site, making them a better choice for covering and holding pressure.

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  • 37. 

    CLSI standards advise against using these on infants and children under 2 years old:

    • A.

      Adhesive bandages

    • B.

      Evacuated tubes

    • C.

      Isopropyl alcohol

    • D.

      Vinyl tourniquets

    Correct Answer
    A. Adhesive bandages
    Explanation
    CLSI standards advise against using adhesive bandages on infants and children under 2 years old. This is because their delicate skin is more prone to irritation and damage from the adhesive. Using adhesive bandages on young children can cause skin reactions, such as redness, itching, or even blisters. Therefore, it is recommended to use alternative methods, such as non-adhesive dressings or gauze, to protect and cover wounds in this age group.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following should be deleted from a list of required characteristic of a sharps container?

    • A.

      Leakproof

    • B.

      Lid that locks

    • C.

      Puncture-resistant

    • D.

      Red in color

    Correct Answer
    D. Red in color
    Explanation
    The color of a sharps container is not a necessary characteristic for its functionality. The most important features of a sharps container are that it should be leakproof, have a lid that locks to prevent accidental exposure, and be puncture-resistant to ensure the safe disposal of sharp objects. The color of the container is not directly related to its effectiveness in containing and disposing of sharps, making it unnecessary and therefore can be deleted from the list of required characteristics.

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  • 39. 

    It is best if tourniquets are:

    • A.

      Cleaned daily with bleach.

    • B.

      Thrown away when soiled.

    • C.

      Used once and then discarded.

    • D.

      Wiped with alcohol after use.

    Correct Answer
    C. Used once and then discarded.
    Explanation
    Tourniquets are medical devices used to stop bleeding by applying pressure to a limb. It is crucial to use tourniquets only once and then discard them because reusing them can lead to contamination and increase the risk of infection. Reusing tourniquets can also compromise their effectiveness in stopping bleeding. Therefore, it is best practice to use tourniquets once and then dispose of them appropriately.

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  • 40. 

    Wearing gloves during phlebotomy procedures is mandated by the following agency:

    • A.

      CDC

    • B.

      FDA

    • C.

      HICPAC

    • D.

      OSHA

    Correct Answer
    D. OSHA
    Explanation
    OSHA, or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, mandates the use of gloves during phlebotomy procedures. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees, and their regulations require the use of personal protective equipment, such as gloves, to minimize the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens and other hazards in the workplace.

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  • 41. 

    What criterion is used to decide which needle gauge to use for venipuncture?

    • A.

      Depth of the selected vein

    • B.

      Size and condition of the vein

    • C.

      Type of test being collected

    • D.

      Your personal reference

    Correct Answer
    B. Size and condition of the vein
    Explanation
    The criterion used to decide which needle gauge to use for venipuncture is the size and condition of the vein. The size of the vein determines the appropriate gauge of the needle to ensure successful puncture and blood collection. A larger vein may require a larger gauge needle, while a smaller vein may require a smaller gauge needle. Additionally, the condition of the vein, such as its fragility or visibility, may also influence the choice of needle gauge to minimize discomfort and potential complications during venipuncture.

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  • 42. 

    To what does the "gauge" of a needle relate?

    • A.

      Diameter

    • B.

      Length

    • C.

      Strength

    • D.

      Volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Diameter
    Explanation
    The gauge of a needle refers to its diameter. Gauge is a measurement unit used for needles, especially in medical and sewing contexts, to indicate the thickness or size of the needle. The larger the gauge number, the smaller the diameter of the needle, and vice versa. Therefore, the correct answer is "Diameter."

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  • 43. 

    Which needle gauge has the largest bore or lumen?

    • A.

      1 8

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      21

    • D.

      22

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 8
    Explanation
    The larger the gauge number, the smaller the bore or lumen of the needle. Therefore, the smallest gauge number in the given options is 18, indicating that it has the largest bore or lumen.

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  • 44. 

    Multisample needles are typically available in these gauges:

    • A.

      16-18

    • B.

      18-20

    • C.

      20-22

    • D.

      22-24

    Correct Answer
    C. 20-22
    Explanation
    Multisample needles are commonly available in the gauge range of 20-22. This means that the inner diameter of the needle is larger than a 22-gauge needle but smaller than a 20-gauge needle. Choosing a multisample needle in this gauge range allows for efficient and accurate collection of blood samples, as it provides a balance between the flow rate and patient comfort. It is a commonly used size for various medical procedures that require multiple blood samples to be drawn.

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  • 45. 

    The slanted tip of a needle is called the:

    • A.

      Bevel.

    • B.

      Hub.

    • C.

      Lumen.

    • D.

      Shaft

    Correct Answer
    A. Bevel.
    Explanation
    The slanted tip of a needle is called the bevel. The bevel is the angled point at the end of the needle that allows for easier insertion into the skin or other materials. It helps to reduce the amount of tissue damage and pain during needle insertion. The other options, hub, lumen, and shaft, do not refer to the slanted tip of the needle.

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  • 46. 

    The purpose of the rubber sleeve that covers the tube end of a multiple-sample needle is to:

    • A.

      Enable smooth tube placement and removal.

    • B.

      Maintain the sterile condition of the sample.

    • C.

      Prevent leakage of blood during tube changes.

    • D.

      Protect the needle and help keep it sharp.

    Correct Answer
    C. Prevent leakage of blood during tube changes.
    Explanation
    The rubber sleeve on the tube end of a multiple-sample needle is designed to prevent leakage of blood during tube changes. This sleeve acts as a barrier, ensuring that blood does not escape from the needle when tubes are being switched. This helps maintain a clean and safe environment, preventing potential contamination and minimizing the risk of infection.

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  • 47. 

    A phlebotomy needle that does not have a safety feature:

    • A.

      Cannot be used for any venipuncture procedure.

    • B.

      Must be used with a holder that has a safety feature.

    • C.

      Requires immediate recapping after ventipuncture.

    • D.

      Should be removed from the holder before disposal.

    Correct Answer
    B. Must be used with a holder that has a safety feature.
    Explanation
    A phlebotomy needle that does not have a safety feature must be used with a holder that has a safety feature. This is because the safety feature on the holder helps to prevent accidental needlestick injuries by covering the needle after use. Without a safety feature on the needle itself, the holder becomes essential in ensuring safe handling and disposal of the needle. Therefore, it is necessary to use a holder with a safety feature when using a phlebotomy needle without its own safety feature.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following plays no role in deciding what size tubes to use for ETS blood collection?

    • A.

      Age and weight of the patient

    • B.

      Patient's allergy to antiseptics

    • C.

      Sample size needed for testing

    • D.

      Size and condition of the veins

    Correct Answer
    B. Patient's allergy to antiseptics
    Explanation
    The patient's allergy to antiseptics does not play a role in deciding what size tubes to use for ETS blood collection. The size of the tubes is determined by factors such as the age and weight of the patient, the sample size needed for testing, and the size and condition of the veins. The patient's allergy to antiseptics is unrelated to the choice of tube size.

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  • 49. 

    Mixing additive tubes properly involves:

    • A.

      Gently shaking them up and down.

    • B.

      Slowly rocking them back and forth.

    • C.

      Turning the wrist 90 degrees and back.

    • D.

      Turning the wrist 180 degrees and back.

    Correct Answer
    D. Turning the wrist 180 degrees and back.
    Explanation
    Mixing additive tubes properly involves turning the wrist 180 degrees and back. This motion helps to ensure that the additives are thoroughly mixed with the blood sample in the tube. Gently shaking the tubes up and down or slowly rocking them back and forth may not be sufficient to achieve proper mixing. The 180-degree rotation allows for a more thorough mixing of the contents, ensuring accurate and reliable test results.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following stopper colors identifies a tube used for coagulation testing?

    • A.

      Green

    • B.

      Lavender

    • C.

      Light blue

    • D.

      Red

    Correct Answer
    C. Light blue
    Explanation
    Light blue stopper color is used to identify a tube used for coagulation testing. Coagulation testing involves the study of blood clotting, and the light blue stopper indicates that the tube contains sodium citrate as an anticoagulant. Sodium citrate prevents blood from clotting by binding to calcium, which is necessary for the clotting process. Therefore, the light blue tube is specifically designed for coagulation testing.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 06, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 10, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Phbmuststudy
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