Tcm 1131 Test 1

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Tcm 1131 Test 1 - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1.      What typical components are included in the project manual?

    • A.

      Bidding requirements and forms, pre-approved change orders, shop drawings, conditions of the contract, specifications

    • B.

      Conditions of the contract, specifications, drawings, information about alternates, cost estimates

    • C.

      Bidding requirements and forms, conditions of the contract, specifications, information about alternates, allowances

    • D.

      Shop drawings, specifications, drawings, information about alternates, cost estimates

    Correct Answer
    C. Bidding requirements and forms, conditions of the contract, specifications, information about alternates, allowances
    Explanation
    The project manual typically includes bidding requirements and forms, conditions of the contract, specifications, information about alternates, and allowances. These components are important for the successful completion of a construction project. Bidding requirements and forms provide instructions for potential contractors to submit their bids. Conditions of the contract outline the rights and responsibilities of both the owner and the contractor. Specifications detail the technical requirements for materials and workmanship. Information about alternates allows for flexibility in selecting different options for certain project elements. Allowances provide a budget for items that are not yet specified.

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  • 2. 

    A zoning code established requirements for

    • A.

      Building construction and occupancy

    • B.

      Property management

    • C.

      Land use

    • D.

      Facility management

    Correct Answer
    C. Land use
    Explanation
    A zoning code is a set of regulations that dictate how land can be used in a particular area. It establishes specific requirements and restrictions for different types of land use, such as residential, commercial, or industrial. It determines what types of buildings can be constructed, how they can be used, and what activities are allowed on the property. By enforcing these regulations, zoning codes aim to promote orderly development, protect property values, and maintain the overall character and function of a community. Therefore, the correct answer is land use.

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  • 3. 

    "General Business" is categorized into which International Zoning Code zone?

    • A.

      Agricultural

    • B.

      Residential

    • C.

      Commercial

    • D.

      Institutional

    Correct Answer
    C. Commercial
    Explanation
    "General Business" is categorized into the "commercial" zone in the International Zoning Code. This means that the area designated as "General Business" is intended for commercial activities such as retail stores, offices, and other commercial establishments. It is not categorized as agricultural, residential, or institutional, which have their own specific purposes and regulations within the zoning code.

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  • 4. 

    Who produces project manual?

    • A.

      Project contractor

    • B.

      Project owner

    • C.

      Project designer

    • D.

      Clerk of works

    Correct Answer
    C. Project designer
    Explanation
    The project designer produces the project manual. This manual contains all the necessary information and instructions for the construction project, including design specifications, materials, and construction techniques. The project designer is responsible for creating and documenting the design concept and ensuring that it is properly communicated to the project contractor and other stakeholders. The project manual serves as a guide for the construction process and helps ensure that the project is executed according to the designer's vision and specifications.

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  • 5. 

    Compared to buildings with small floor plans, buildings with large floor plans enclose

    • A.

      Less space per unit of exterior wall cladding

    • B.

      More space per unit of exterior wall cladding

    • C.

      The same amount of space per unit of exterior cladding

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. More space per unit of exterior wall cladding
    Explanation
    Buildings with large floor plans enclose more space per unit of exterior wall cladding. This means that for every unit of exterior wall cladding, a larger building is able to enclose a greater amount of interior space compared to a smaller building. In other words, the exterior wall of a larger building is able to enclose a larger volume of interior space, making it more efficient in terms of space utilization.

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  • 6. 

    Compared to single story buildings, multi-story buildings require:

    • A.

      Less foundation wall and less roofing material per unit of enclosed space

    • B.

      Less foundations wall and more roofing material per unit of enclosed space

    • C.

      More foundation wall and less roofing material pper unit of enclosed space

    • D.

      More foundation wall and more roofing material per unit of enclosed space

    Correct Answer
    A. Less foundation wall and less roofing material per unit of enclosed space
    Explanation
    Multi-story buildings require less foundation wall and less roofing material per unit of enclosed space compared to single-story buildings. This is because multi-story buildings can utilize vertical space more efficiently, allowing for more units of enclosed space to be built on a smaller footprint. The vertical design reduces the need for additional foundation walls and roofing material, resulting in cost and material savings.

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  • 7. 

    Select the correct statement comparing factory prefabrication with site fabrication

    • A.

      Prefabrication can make greater use of power tools and machinery than can site fabrication.

    • B.

      Prefabrication is more vulnerable to weather conditions than is site fabrication.

    • C.

      Site fabrication offers greater convenience to workers in their working conditions than does prefabrication.

    • D.

      Site fabrication allows more volume purchasing of materials than does prefabrication.

    Correct Answer
    A. Prefabrication can make greater use of power tools and machinery than can site fabrication.
    Explanation
    Prefabrication can make greater use of power tools and machinery than site fabrication because in a factory setting, there is more space and resources available to accommodate large machinery and equipment. Additionally, the controlled environment of a factory allows for efficient and continuous use of power tools, leading to faster and more precise construction processes. On the other hand, site fabrication often faces limitations in terms of space and access to resources, making it less conducive to extensive use of power tools and machinery.

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  • 8. 

    Identify an advantage of prefabrication over site-fabrication

    • A.

      Larger market required for competitive prices

    • B.

      Easier compliance with a broad range of building codes

    • C.

      Shorter period of time required for site assembly and construction

    • D.

      Greater variety of component shapes and building forms

    Correct Answer
    C. Shorter period of time required for site assembly and construction
    Explanation
    Prefabrication offers the advantage of a shorter period of time required for site assembly and construction compared to site-fabrication. This is because prefabricated components are manufactured off-site in controlled environments, allowing for simultaneous construction activities to take place. This reduces the overall construction time as the site assembly can be completed quickly once the prefabricated components are delivered. On the other hand, site-fabrication involves constructing each component on-site, which can be time-consuming and may cause delays due to factors such as weather conditions and labor availability. Therefore, prefabrication is a more efficient method for completing construction projects in a shorter timeframe.

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  • 9. 

    Identify an advantage of site-fabrication over prefabrication

    • A.

      Greater acceptance by consumers and builders

    • B.

      Greater quality control

    • C.

      Better working conditions

    • D.

      Availability of more sophisticated tools and machinery

    Correct Answer
    A. Greater acceptance by consumers and builders
    Explanation
    Site-fabrication has an advantage over prefabrication in terms of greater acceptance by consumers and builders. This means that consumers and builders are more likely to prefer and embrace site-fabrication as a construction method. This could be due to various reasons such as the ability to customize the construction according to specific requirements, the flexibility to make changes during the construction process, and the perception of higher quality and craftsmanship associated with on-site construction. Ultimately, this acceptance can lead to increased demand for site-fabrication and potentially more business opportunities for builders.

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  • 10. 

    A detailed, precise description of a product or practice is a:

    • A.

      Code

    • B.

      Material standard

    • C.

      Drawing

    • D.

      Specification

    Correct Answer
    D. Specification
    Explanation
    A specification is a detailed and precise description of a product or practice. It outlines the specific requirements and characteristics that the product or practice must meet. It provides clear instructions and guidelines for the development, production, or implementation of the product or practice. A specification helps ensure consistency and quality by defining the necessary features, dimensions, materials, performance criteria, and other relevant details. It serves as a reference document for designers, engineers, manufacturers, and other stakeholders involved in the development or implementation process.

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  • 11. 

     Identify the agency that sponsors the production of certain specialized "codes" which are appropriate for adoption as law by states and communities. (These codes of more narrow scope are distinguished from the broader International Codes).

    • A.

      American society for testing and materials

    • B.

      American woodwork institute

    • C.

      Department of housing and urban development

    • D.

      National fire protection association

    Correct Answer
    D. National fire protection association
    Explanation
    The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) sponsors the production of certain specialized "codes" that are appropriate for adoption as law by states and communities. These codes are more narrow in scope and are distinguished from the broader International Codes. The NFPA is recognized as a leading authority on fire prevention and safety, and their codes are widely used to establish regulations and standards for fire protection measures in various settings.

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  • 12. 

    Identify the agency that tests components and devices for purposes of fire and electrical safety and whose "label" on products verifies their having met required standards.

    • A.

      American society for testing and materials

    • B.

      Underwriters laboratories

    • C.

      American national standards

    • D.

      National association of home builders research foundation

    Correct Answer
    B. Underwriters laboratories
    Explanation
    Underwriters Laboratories is the agency that tests components and devices for purposes of fire and electrical safety. Their "label" on products verifies that they have met the required standards.

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  • 13. 

      Which agency encourages housing production through mortgage insurance and various subsidies?

    • A.

      Underwriters laboratories

    • B.

      General services administration

    • C.

      Department of housing and urban development

    • D.

      National association of home builders

    Correct Answer
    C. Department of housing and urban development
    Explanation
    The Department of Housing and Urban Development encourages housing production through mortgage insurance and various subsidies. This agency is responsible for implementing policies and programs that promote affordable housing and urban development in the United States. They provide mortgage insurance to lenders, which encourages them to provide loans for homebuyers with lower down payments and credit scores. Additionally, the department offers subsidies and grants to developers and organizations to support the construction and rehabilitation of affordable housing units.

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  • 14. 

    Identify the three major national model building codes which have been replaced by the International Building Code.

    • A.

      National building code, american building code, common building code

    • B.

      Common building code, underwriters building code, official building code

    • C.

      Underwriters building code, standard building code, american building code

    • D.

      National building code, uniform building code, standard building code

    Correct Answer
    D. National building code, uniform building code, standard building code
    Explanation
    The International Building Code (IBC) is a comprehensive set of regulations that govern the construction of buildings. It has replaced three major national model building codes, namely the national building code, uniform building code, and standard building code. These three codes were widely used in the United States before the introduction of the IBC. The replacement of these codes by the IBC has allowed for a more standardized and consistent approach to building regulations across different jurisdictions.

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  • 15. 

    Which glazing is not appropriate for doors and sidelights?

    • A.

      Tempered glass

    • B.

      Laminated glass

    • C.

      Plastic

    • D.

      Annealed glass

    Correct Answer
    D. Annealed glass
    Explanation
    Annealed glass is not appropriate for doors and sidelights because it is a type of regular glass that has not been treated for strength or safety. It is more prone to breakage and can shatter into large, sharp pieces when broken, posing a safety risk. In contrast, tempered glass is specifically designed to be stronger and safer, as it undergoes a heating and cooling process that increases its strength and causes it to break into small, dull pieces. Laminated glass is also a safer option as it consists of two or more layers of glass with an interlayer that holds the glass together when broken. Plastic is another suitable alternative as it is lightweight and impact-resistant.

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  • 16. 

    What is the maximum slope appropriate for ramp designed for wheelchair accessibility

    • A.

      1:8

    • B.

      1:10

    • C.

      1:12

    • D.

      1:20

    Correct Answer
    C. 1:12
    Explanation
    The maximum slope appropriate for a ramp designed for wheelchair accessibility is 1:12. This means that for every 12 units of horizontal distance, the ramp should only rise 1 unit vertically. This slope is recommended to ensure that wheelchair users can safely and comfortably navigate the ramp without excessive effort or risk of tipping over. A steeper slope could pose challenges and potential hazards for wheelchair users.

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  • 17. 

    What is the minimum width of a door for wheel chair accessibility?

    • A.

      30 in

    • B.

      32 in

    • C.

      36 in

    • D.

      40 in

    Correct Answer
    B. 32 in
    Explanation
    The minimum width of a door for wheelchair accessibility is 32 inches. This width allows for easy passage of a wheelchair through the door without any obstructions or difficulties. A door with a width less than 32 inches may not provide enough space for a wheelchair to pass through comfortably, potentially causing inconvenience or difficulty for individuals using wheelchairs.

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  • 18. 

    Which is the following is not one of the three basic project delivery systems in today's construction industry?

    • A.

      Design-bid-build

    • B.

      Construction management

    • C.

      Fast-tract

    • D.

      Design build

    Correct Answer
    C. Fast-tract
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "fast-tract." This is not one of the three basic project delivery systems in today's construction industry. The three basic project delivery systems are design-bid-build, construction management, and design build. Fast-tract is not commonly used as a project delivery system in the construction industry.

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  • 19. 

    Which two organizations collaborate on the production of the MasterFormat?

    • A.

      ANSI and NIST

    • B.

      ASTM and AGC

    • C.

      CSI and CSC

    • D.

      NBIS and ISO

    Correct Answer
    C. CSI and CSC
    Explanation
    CSI (Construction Specifications Institute) and CSC (Construction Specifications Canada) collaborate on the production of the MasterFormat. The MasterFormat is a standard for organizing and presenting construction information, such as specifications, in a consistent and logical manner. CSI and CSC work together to update and maintain the MasterFormat, ensuring that it remains relevant and useful in the construction industry.

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  • 20. 

    What is not one of the basic types of construction cost agreement used in the industry?

    • A.

      Fixed price stipulated sum

    • B.

      Unit price

    • C.

      Guaranteed maximum price

    • D.

      Pay as go

    • E.

      Cost plus fee

    Correct Answer
    D. Pay as go
    Explanation
    "Pay as go" is not one of the basic types of construction cost agreement used in the industry. The other options mentioned - fixed price stipulated sum, unit price, guaranteed maximum price, and cost plus fee - are commonly used types of construction cost agreements.

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  • 21. 

    Why was the Metes and Bounds system of surveying replaced by the Rectangular System in the westward expansion after the Revolutionary War?

    • A.

      Shortage of skilled surveyors due to war deaths and the departure of royal professionals

    • B.

      Shortage of natural monuments in the undeveloped lands

    • C.

      The development of the bubble level

    • D.

      Breakthroughs in trigonometry theory

    Correct Answer
    B. Shortage of natural monuments in the undeveloped lands
    Explanation
    The Metes and Bounds system of surveying relied heavily on natural monuments, such as trees or rocks, to mark property boundaries. However, in the undeveloped lands of the westward expansion after the Revolutionary War, there was a shortage of these natural monuments. This made it difficult to accurately survey and establish property boundaries using the Metes and Bounds system. As a result, the Rectangular System, which used a grid pattern based on meridians and parallels, was introduced as a more practical and efficient method of surveying in these areas.

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  • 22. 

    The prime meridian designated as 0 degrees longitude passes through what location?

    • A.

      New York

    • B.

      Amsterdam

    • C.

      Greenwich

    • D.

      Moscow

    Correct Answer
    C. Greenwich
    Explanation
    The prime meridian, designated as 0 degrees longitude, passes through Greenwich. This location was chosen as the reference point for measuring longitude because it is the site of the Royal Observatory in London, which played a significant role in the development of modern navigation and timekeeping systems. The prime meridian divides the Earth into the Eastern and Western Hemispheres, and Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) is based on this meridian. Therefore, Greenwich is the correct answer for the location through which the prime meridian passes.

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  • 23. 

    Why are correction lines a standard component of the Rectangular System of surveying?

    • A.

      Inadequate accuracy of surveying equipment

    • B.

      The meridians are not parallel

    • C.

      Human error

    • D.

      Movement of the earth's crust such as from earthquakes

    Correct Answer
    B. The meridians are not parallel
    Explanation
    Correction lines are a standard component of the Rectangular System of surveying because the meridians, which are the lines of longitude, are not parallel. This means that as one moves north or south, the distance between the meridians changes. In order to maintain accuracy and consistency in surveying measurements, correction lines are used to account for this variation and ensure that the grid system remains accurate. Without correction lines, the measurements taken using the Rectangular System would be distorted and unreliable.

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  • 24. 

    What is the smallest statutory division of regular sections in the Rec. survey system

    • A.

      1 acre

    • B.

      1 sq block

    • C.

      40 acres

    • D.

      1 sq mi

    Correct Answer
    C. 40 acres
    Explanation
    The smallest statutory division of regular sections in the Rec. survey system is 40 acres. This means that within each regular section, which is a square area of land, it is further divided into smaller units called 40-acre tracts. These tracts are used for various purposes such as land ownership, zoning, and property taxation.

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  • 25. 

    If there is a conflict or discrepancy in a subdivision plat which has been incorporated into the legal description of an individual lot, which descriptive device governs?

    • A.

      Monuments

    • B.

      Courses

    • C.

      Distances

    • D.

      Areas

    Correct Answer
    A. Monuments
    Explanation
    In the context of a subdivision plat, monuments refer to physical markers or objects that are used to identify and define property boundaries. They are typically placed at key points on the land, such as corners or intersections, and are considered the most reliable and accurate method for determining property boundaries. Therefore, if there is a conflict or discrepancy in the subdivision plat that has been incorporated into the legal description of an individual lot, the descriptive device that governs would be monuments.

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  • 26. 

    What soil description is defined as imprinted easily with fingers for the consistency of undisturbed cohesive soils?

    • A.

      Medium

    • B.

      Stiff

    • C.

      Hard

    • D.

      Very soft

    Correct Answer
    A. Medium
    Explanation
    Medium soil description is defined as imprinted easily with fingers for the consistency of undisturbed cohesive soils. This means that when the soil is touched, it leaves an impression easily, indicating that it is not too stiff or hard, but also not very soft. The term "medium" suggests a balance between the extremes of stiffness and softness, making it an appropriate description for soils that can be imprinted with fingers.

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  • 27. 

    A coarse grained soil with a relative density of 70% is defined as?

    • A.

      Very dense

    • B.

      Medium

    • C.

      Dense

    • D.

      Loose

    Correct Answer
    C. Dense
    Explanation
    A coarse grained soil with a relative density of 70% is defined as "dense." Relative density is a measure of how compacted the soil is compared to its natural state. In this case, with a relative density of 70%, the soil is considered to be densely packed or compacted.

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  • 28. 

    The most versatile method of obtaining soil tests samples and determining bearing capacities is by

    • A.

      Digging soil test pits

    • B.

      Using soil sonar equipment

    • C.

      Driving soil sounding rods

    • D.

      Making soil borings

    Correct Answer
    D. Making soil borings
    Explanation
    Soil borings are the most versatile method of obtaining soil test samples and determining bearing capacities because they allow for a more comprehensive analysis of the soil composition and properties. By drilling into the ground and extracting soil samples at different depths, engineers and geotechnical experts can assess the soil's strength, density, moisture content, and other relevant factors. This method provides a more accurate understanding of the soil's characteristics, allowing for better design and construction decisions. Digging soil test pits, using soil sonar equipment, and driving soil sounding rods may also provide valuable information, but they are generally more limited in scope and applicability compared to soil borings.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following loads is a type of dead loads

    • A.

      Building occupants weight

    • B.

      Furniture weight

    • C.

      Wind load

    • D.

      Structural wall's weight

    Correct Answer
    D. Structural wall's weight
    Explanation
    Dead loads are permanent or stationary loads that remain constant over time, such as the weight of the structure itself or any fixed elements like walls, floors, and roofs. Building occupants' weight, furniture weight, and wind load are considered live loads as they can vary or move. Therefore, the correct answer is structural wall's weight, as it is a type of dead load that contributes to the overall weight and stability of the building.

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  • 30. 

    Under Unified Soil Classification system, which of the following abbreviations stands for "well-graded gravel"?

    • A.

      GW

    • B.

      GP

    • C.

      GM

    • D.

      GC

    Correct Answer
    A. GW
    Explanation
    In the Unified Soil Classification system, the abbreviation GW stands for "well-graded gravel." This means that the gravel particles are evenly distributed across a wide range of sizes, resulting in a well-graded mixture. This type of gravel has good drainage properties and is commonly used in construction and civil engineering projects.

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  • 31. 

    Which soil type has size limits of its particles smaller than 0.002 mm diameter?

    • A.

      Gravel

    • B.

      Sand

    • C.

      Clay

    • D.

      Silts

    Correct Answer
    C. Clay
    Explanation
    Clay is the correct answer because it is a type of soil that has particles smaller than 0.002 mm in diameter. Clay particles are very fine and compact, which gives clay soil its unique properties such as high water-holding capacity and stickiness when wet. Gravel, sand, and silts have larger particle sizes and do not fall within the size limits specified in the question.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following indices measures the amount of moisture present when the soil changes from a plastic to a liquid state?

    • A.

      PL

    • B.

      LL

    • C.

      PI

    • D.

      IL

    Correct Answer
    B. LL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is LL. LL stands for Liquid Limit, which is a measure of the moisture content at which a soil transitions from a plastic to a liquid state. It represents the point at which the soil loses its ability to retain its shape when molded and begins to flow like a liquid. LL is an important parameter in soil mechanics and is used to classify soils and determine their engineering properties.

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  • 33. 

    Compared with excavating cohesive soils such as clay, the angle of excavation for excavating cohesionless soil such as sand should be:

    • A.

      Deeper

    • B.

      Shallower

    • C.

      The same

    • D.

      Uncertain

    Correct Answer
    B. Shallower
    Explanation
    When excavating cohesive soils like clay, the angle of excavation needs to be deeper to prevent collapse. However, when excavating cohesionless soil like sand, the angle of excavation can be shallower because sand has a lower cohesive strength and is less likely to collapse. Therefore, the correct answer is "Shallower."

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  • 34. 

    The horizontal members that supports the sheet piles are usually called:

    • A.

      Walers

    • B.

      Rakers

    • C.

      Crosslot bracing

    • D.

      Tiebacks

    Correct Answer
    A. Walers
    Explanation
    Walers are the horizontal members that support the sheet piles. They provide additional stability and prevent the sheet piles from bending or buckling under the pressure of the soil or water. Walers are typically installed parallel to the sheet piles and are used to distribute the loads evenly across the entire wall. They help to maintain the alignment and position of the sheet piles, ensuring that they remain in place and perform their intended function effectively.

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  • 35. 

    The D/B ratio for shallow foundation should be

    • A.

      >1

    • B.

    • C.

      =1

    • D.

      Uncertain

    Correct Answer
    C. =1
    Explanation
    The D/B ratio for shallow foundation should be equal to 1. This means that the depth of the foundation (D) should be equal to the width of the foundation (B). This ratio is important because it helps to ensure the stability and load-bearing capacity of the foundation. When the D/B ratio is equal to 1, it indicates that the foundation is well-proportioned and able to effectively distribute the load from the structure above.

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  • 36. 

    Roman cement containing puzzolana was different from the lime based cements in that..

    • A.

      Was more ductile

    • B.

      Required no centering

    • C.

      Would set under water

    • D.

      Was not as strong

    Correct Answer
    C. Would set under water
    Explanation
    Roman cement containing puzzolana was different from lime-based cements because it had the unique property of being able to set underwater. Unlike lime-based cements, which require a dry environment to set and harden, the inclusion of puzzolana in Roman cement allowed it to react with water and form a solid mass even when submerged. This made it a valuable material for constructing structures such as harbors, bridges, and aqueducts that needed to withstand water pressure and remain stable underwater.

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  • 37. 

    Portland cement is named after..

    • A.

      The stone of the Isle of Portland

    • B.

      The inventor, John Portland

    • C.

      The Portland cement manufacturing company

    • D.

      A manufacturing process known as porterization

    Correct Answer
    A. The stone of the Isle of Portland
    Explanation
    Portland cement is named after the stone of the Isle of Portland. The stone of the Isle of Portland is a type of limestone that was commonly used in the production of cement. This particular type of limestone has unique properties that make it ideal for making cement, such as its high calcium content. Therefore, the cement produced using this stone was named after its source, the Isle of Portland.

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  • 38. 

    Reinforcing steel is placed in typical concrete slabs to resist

    • A.

      Tensile stresses

    • B.

      Shear stresses

    • C.

      Compressive stresses

    • D.

      Torsional stresses

    Correct Answer
    A. Tensile stresses
    Explanation
    Reinforcing steel is placed in typical concrete slabs to resist tensile stresses. Concrete is strong in compression but weak in tension. When a load is applied to a concrete slab, it can cause the bottom portion to be compressed and the top portion to be stretched. This creates tensile stresses in the concrete, which can lead to cracking and failure. By adding reinforcing steel, such as rebar, it helps to distribute the tensile stresses and prevent the concrete from cracking, increasing the overall strength and durability of the slab.

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  • 39. 

    The chemical reaction between Portland cement and water is know as

    • A.

      Consolidation

    • B.

      Hydration

    • C.

      Vitrification

    • D.

      Coagulation

    Correct Answer
    B. Hydration
    Explanation
    Hydration is the correct answer because when Portland cement is mixed with water, a chemical reaction occurs where water molecules react with the cement compounds to form new compounds. This reaction is known as hydration and it is responsible for the hardening and setting of the cement mixture, ultimately leading to the formation of a solid and durable material. Consolidation refers to the process of compaction and settlement of soil or sediment layers. Vitrification is the transformation of a substance into a glass-like solid. Coagulation is the process of forming a solid or gel from a liquid.

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  • 40. 

    Type II (Moderate) portland cement should be used..

    • A.

      When the concrete must be put into service quickly

    • B.

      Where sulfate concentrations in the groundwater are higher than normal

    • C.

      When early form removal is desirable

    • D.

      In large masses of concrete such as gravity dams

    Correct Answer
    B. Where sulfate concentrations in the groundwater are higher than normal
    Explanation
    Type II (Moderate) portland cement should be used where sulfate concentrations in the groundwater are higher than normal. This is because Type II cement has a lower heat of hydration, which reduces the risk of sulfate attack. Sulfate ions can react with the tricalcium aluminate (C3A) in cement to form expansive compounds, leading to cracking and deterioration of the concrete. Therefore, using Type II cement helps to mitigate the effects of sulfate attack in areas with higher sulfate concentrations in the groundwater.

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  • 41. 

    Manganese oxide and what other ingredient are omitted from the standard ingredients to make white cement?

    • A.

      Silica

    • B.

      Aluminum oxide

    • C.

      Lime

    • D.

      Iron

    Correct Answer
    D. Iron
    Explanation
    Iron is omitted from the standard ingredients to make white cement. This is because iron impurities can cause the cement to have a gray or yellowish color, which is undesirable for white cement. By omitting iron, the cement can achieve a pure white color.

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  • 42. 

    Pozzolans should not be used in concrete...

    • A.

      Where high early strength is needed

    • B.

      In massive concrete structures

    • C.

      When a higher than average strength is needed

    • D.

      In sidewalks and other pavements

    Correct Answer
    A. Where high early strength is needed
    Explanation
    Pozzolans should not be used in concrete where high early strength is needed. This is because pozzolans, such as fly ash or silica fume, are supplementary cementitious materials that react slowly with water to form cementitious compounds. These compounds contribute to the strength and durability of concrete over time. However, they do not provide rapid strength development, which is crucial in applications where high early strength is required, such as in construction projects that need quick load-bearing capacity or in situations where formwork needs to be removed early. In such cases, other cementitious materials or additives that promote faster strength gain should be used instead.

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  • 43. 

    Sixty to seventy-five percent of the volume of concrete is..

    • A.

      Water

    • B.

      Aggregate

    • C.

      Portland cement

    • D.

      Fly ash

    Correct Answer
    B. Aggregate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is aggregate. In concrete, aggregate refers to the mixture of sand, gravel, crushed stone, and other materials that are used to fill up the space between cement particles. It accounts for a significant percentage of the volume of concrete, typically ranging from 60 to 75 percent. Aggregates provide strength and stability to the concrete mixture, making it durable and capable of withstanding loads and stresses.

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  • 44. 

    Which aggregate condition results in the most economical?

    • A.

      Only smaller sizes of large aggregate and smaller sizes of fine aggregate

    • B.

      Only lager sizes of large aggregates and smaller sizes of fine aggregate

    • C.

      Only smaller sizes of large aggregate and larger sizes of fine aggregate

    • D.

      All sizes of large aggregate and all sizes of fine aggregate

    Correct Answer
    D. All sizes of large aggregate and all sizes of fine aggregate
    Explanation
    The most economical aggregate condition would be to use all sizes of large aggregate and all sizes of fine aggregate. This allows for a more efficient packing of the aggregates, resulting in a lower void content and a higher density of the concrete mixture. By utilizing all sizes of aggregates, it ensures that the voids between the particles are minimized, leading to a stronger and more economical concrete mix.

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  • 45. 

    For a given water cement ratio, what happens to the amount of portland cement required in a mix as the maximum size of well graded coarse aggregate increases?

    • A.

      It increases

    • B.

      It decreases

    • C.

      It does not change

    • D.

      It randomly varies based on other factors

    Correct Answer
    B. It decreases
    Explanation
    As the maximum size of well graded coarse aggregate increases, the amount of portland cement required in a mix decreases. This is because larger aggregate particles take up more space, reducing the amount of cement needed to fill in the gaps and achieve the desired water-cement ratio. Therefore, as the aggregate size increases, less cement is required to achieve the desired mix proportions.

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  • 46. 

    What is the relationship between maximum size aggregate and the total air content of a concrete mix?

    • A.

      As maximum aggregate size increases, total percent of air allowed must decrease

    • B.

      As maximum aggregate size increases, total percent of air allowed must increase

    • C.

      As maximum aggregate size changes, total percent of air allowed remains constant

    • D.

      There is no fixed relationship between size and total percent of air allowed

    Correct Answer
    A. As maximum aggregate size increases, total percent of air allowed must decrease
    Explanation
    As the maximum aggregate size increases, the total percent of air allowed in a concrete mix must decrease. This is because larger aggregate particles take up more space in the mix, leaving less room for air voids. Therefore, in order to maintain the desired air content, the percentage of air allowed must be reduced.

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  • 47. 

    In what kinds of concrete is air-entrainment essential?

    • A.

      Concrete in dry climates

    • B.

      Structural concrete

    • C.

      Concrete exposed to freeze-thaw cycles

    • D.

      Concrete below grade

    Correct Answer
    C. Concrete exposed to freeze-thaw cycles
    Explanation
    Air-entrainment is essential in concrete exposed to freeze-thaw cycles because when water freezes, it expands and exerts pressure on the concrete. This can lead to cracking and deterioration of the structure. By incorporating air-entraining agents, tiny air bubbles are introduced into the concrete mix, which act as pressure relief valves when water freezes and expands. These air voids accommodate the expansion, reducing the risk of cracking and increasing the durability of the concrete in freeze-thaw conditions.

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  • 48. 

    Which kind of formwork is assembled in large sections and after use lifted by crane without dismantling for use in another location

    • A.

      Lift forms

    • B.

      Slip forms

    • C.

      Flying forms

    • D.

      Taxi forms

    Correct Answer
    C. Flying forms
    Explanation
    Flying forms are a type of formwork that is assembled in large sections and can be lifted by a crane without the need for dismantling. This allows the formwork to be easily transported and used in another location, saving time and effort. Flying forms are commonly used in construction projects where repetitive structures, such as walls or columns, need to be built. The ability to quickly and efficiently move the formwork to different areas of the construction site makes flying forms a practical and cost-effective solution.

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  • 49. 

    What is the purpose of welded wire fabric in a concrete slab-on-grade?

    • A.

      To resist tensile stresses from gravity loads

    • B.

      To maintain tightness in cracks from shrinkage and contraction

    • C.

      To reduce the number of cracks

    • D.

      To provide a positive structural compensation for inadequate base preparation

    Correct Answer
    B. To maintain tightness in cracks from shrinkage and contraction
    Explanation
    Welded wire fabric in a concrete slab-on-grade is used to maintain tightness in cracks from shrinkage and contraction. When concrete shrinks or contracts, it tends to crack. The welded wire fabric helps to control and limit the width of these cracks, preventing them from becoming wider and causing further damage. By providing reinforcement, the wire fabric helps to distribute the tensile stresses caused by shrinkage and contraction, minimizing the potential for extensive cracking and maintaining the overall integrity of the concrete slab.

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  • 50. 

    Identify the steel placed in a one way concrete slab perpendicular to the span to resists cracks from hydration shrinkage and temperature changes

    • A.

      Hydration steel

    • B.

      Crack steel

    • C.

      Welded wire fabric

    • D.

      Temperature steel

    Correct Answer
    D. Temperature steel
    Explanation
    The steel placed in a one way concrete slab perpendicular to the span to resist cracks from hydration shrinkage and temperature changes is known as temperature steel. This steel helps to control the expansion and contraction of the concrete due to temperature variations, preventing cracks from forming.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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