1.
What is the procedure for 'classified' modification submission?
Correct Answer
C. All Classified modification is to be submitted directly to the appropriate Committee Chairman for approval after evaluation by the project team
Explanation
The correct answer states that all classified modifications should be submitted directly to the appropriate Committee Chairman for approval after evaluation by the project team. This means that there is a specific procedure for submitting classified modifications, which involves going through the Committee Chairman for approval. The other options mentioned do not mention the involvement of the Committee Chairman or the evaluation by the project team, making them incorrect.
2.
When can Out-of-committee approval be sought from the Chairman of the relevant modification committee?
Correct Answer
A. When mandatory, immediate compliance of a modification is called for
Explanation
Out-of-committee approval can be sought from the Chairman of the relevant modification committee when there is a need for mandatory and immediate compliance of a modification. This suggests that in certain urgent situations, where immediate action is required, the Chairman has the authority to grant approval for the modification without going through the regular committee process.
3.
Which of the following is ture:
i) If the servicing is done one working day in advance for weekly & below servcing, no formal approval is required.
ii) If the servcing is done two working day in advance for monthly servcing, no formal approval is required.
iii) Where DIs (Daily Inspections) are authorised and deferred, no entry in ADD Log is required.
Correct Answer
B. I and ii
Explanation
The correct answer is "i and ii". This means that both statement i) and ii) are true. According to statement i), if the servicing is done one working day in advance for weekly & below servicing, no formal approval is required. According to statement ii), if the servicing is done two working days in advance for monthly servicing, no formal approval is required. Therefore, both statements i) and ii) are true.
4.
In the event that MOD/STI/SI could not be carried out or completed by the compliance date due to valid reasons, ____ can request for extension of compliance date using the form in Annex A (when ES {R} processing is not available). The completed form is to be submitted to OC MCF. ______ is the approving authority for such requests.
Correct Answer
D. Logs Flight OC/Dy OC, DD (O&S)
Explanation
If MOD/STI/SI cannot be carried out or completed by the compliance date due to valid reasons, Logs Flight OC/Dy OC, DD (O&S) can request an extension of the compliance date using the form in Annex A. The completed form should be submitted to OC MCF, and Logs Flight OC/Dy OC, DD (O&S) is the approving authority for such requests.
5.
Before the ADDL entry for the lost tool can be close. Another search to locate for the lost tools or loose article is to be conducted on the weapon system ________.
Correct Answer
C. During the next scheduled servicing
Explanation
The correct answer is "during the next scheduled servicing" because it is stating that before the ADDL entry for the lost tool can be closed, another search for the lost tools or loose articles needs to be conducted during the next scheduled servicing of the weapon system. This implies that the search will be done at a specific time when the equipment is being serviced, rather than during the start of the working day or after some rest.
6.
Which of the following inspections are to be incorporated in the tools monthly check?
(i) wear and tear
(ii) damage
(iii) surface condition
(iv) proper identification
Correct Answer
D. (i),(ii),(iii)&(iv)
Explanation
The correct answer is (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv). This means that all of the inspections listed - wear and tear, damage, surface condition, and proper identification - should be incorporated in the tools' monthly check.
7.
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate tool control mechanism?
Correct Answer
A. Place bulky in-use tools in carton box
Explanation
The other options listed are appropriate tool control mechanisms as they involve keeping track of tools, providing storage solutions, and maintaining a contents listing. Placing bulky in-use tools in a carton box does not provide a proper tool control mechanism as it does not ensure the tools are properly accounted for or stored securely.
8.
Tools that have been removed for repair or scrap and awaiting replacement are to be accounted for by ______.
Correct Answer
A. Self-developed repair or scrapped tags
Explanation
When tools have been removed for repair or scrap and are awaiting replacement, they need to be accounted for. The correct way to account for these tools is by using self-developed repair or scrapped tags. These tags serve as a record of the tools that have been removed and are waiting for repair or replacement. By using these tags, the organization can keep track of the tools and ensure that they are properly accounted for and eventually replaced.
9.
A/An __________ is to be documented for a lost tool or loose article in the servicing document of the weapon system or major item (MI).
Correct Answer
B. ADDL entry
Explanation
An ADDL entry is to be documented for a lost tool or loose article in the servicing document of the weapon system or major item (MI). This entry helps keep track of any missing tools or articles and ensures that they are properly accounted for. It allows maintenance personnel to be aware of the situation and take appropriate action to locate or replace the missing item.
10.
Which of the agency is to ensure that there is no conflicting identification of tools amongst workcentres in the base?
Correct Answer
C. QAC
Explanation
The Quality Assurance Committee (QAC) is responsible for ensuring that there is no conflicting identification of tools amongst workcentres in the base. They oversee the quality control processes and procedures to ensure that all tools are properly identified and used in the appropriate workcentres without any conflicts. This helps to maintain efficiency and accuracy in the base operations.
11.
All tools are to be identified by ___________.
Correct Answer
A. Colour coding, engraving, etching
Explanation
All tools are to be identified by colour coding, engraving, and etching. This means that each tool should have a unique identification method, which can be achieved through the use of colour coding, engraving, or etching. These methods allow for easy identification and tracking of tools, ensuring that they can be properly used and maintained.
12.
What are the details of the measurements taken that should be recorded in the SAF 1400?
Correct Answer
D. Measurements/data of the final functional checks and in-process critical tasks as well as specifying reference to the relevant manuals
Explanation
The SAF 1400 should include measurements/data of the final functional checks and in-process critical tasks. It should also specify reference to the relevant manuals. This means that all measurements and data collected during the final functional check and any in-process critical tasks should be recorded in the SAF 1400. Additionally, any references to the relevant manuals that provide guidance or instructions for these measurements should be included.
13.
How are critical tasks defined in non-aircraft related workcenters?
Correct Answer
A. There are defined by the respective system/specialist branches and documented in the CLO volume 3 of the respective workcentres
Explanation
Critical tasks in non-aircraft related workcenters are defined by the respective system/specialist branches and documented in the CLO volume 3 of the respective workcenters.
14.
Who is the approving authority for the release of unserviceable components and installation on the aircraft?
Correct Answer
C. ALD System or Specialist Branch
Explanation
The ALD System or Specialist Branch is the approving authority for the release of unserviceable components and installation on the aircraft. They have the expertise and knowledge to determine if the components are suitable for use and can ensure that the installation is done correctly. This ensures the safety and reliability of the aircraft.
15.
What is the purpose of issuing labels to all aircraft and weapon system components, ground support equipment and test equipment?
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
Labels are issued to all aircraft and weapon system components, ground support equipment, and test equipment for multiple purposes. Firstly, they inform the user of the component or equipment's conformity or non-conformity status. This helps in identifying any potential issues or non-compliance. Secondly, labels allow for traceability and analysis when problems arise during later stages of usage. This means that if any problems occur, the labels can be used to track and analyze the specific component or equipment involved. Lastly, labels ensure that only serviceable components and equipment are used for installation or operation, promoting safety and efficiency.
16.
Who is the final approving authority for the release of non-confirming components and installation on the aircraft?
Correct Answer
C. ALD System or Specialist Branch
Explanation
The ALD System or Specialist Branch is the final approving authority for the release of non-confirming components and installation on the aircraft.
17.
Who is the approving authority for the release of non-conforming equipment/products found during inspection or test?
Correct Answer
D. Respective ALD system or Specialist Branch
Explanation
The approving authority for the release of non-conforming equipment/products found during inspection or test is the respective ALD system or Specialist Branch. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the non-conforming equipment/products and determine if it can be released or if further action is required. They are responsible for ensuring that all equipment/products meet the necessary standards and requirements before they can be approved for release.
18.
Which label should be used for items removed for accessibility from A/C and /or its next higher assembly.
Correct Answer
A. F1911
Explanation
The label F1911 should be used for items that have been removed for accessibility from the A/C (air conditioning) and/or its next higher assembly.
19.
Which label should be used for the serviceable role equipment used in Flight line/ Work Center
Correct Answer
C. F1911
Explanation
The label that should be used for the serviceable role equipment used in Flight line/ Work Center is F1911.
20.
For non-repairable accountable/ non-accountable piece part spares should be tagged with
Correct Answer
D. F166
21.
What type of label should be used for G items which have passed inspection
Correct Answer
B. F1432
Explanation
The label that should be used for G items which have passed inspection is F1432.
22.
For components (lifed or non lifed), the compliance schedule of approved STI/SI should not be pegged against?
Correct Answer
B. Aircraft or Equipment servicing
Explanation
The compliance schedule of approved STI/SI should not be pegged against aircraft or equipment servicing. This means that the schedule for implementing approved maintenance or inspection tasks should not be based on when the aircraft or equipment is being serviced. Instead, the compliance schedule should be determined based on the specific requirements and intervals specified for the maintenance or inspection tasks themselves.
23.
What is the different between STI and SI?
Correct Answer
A. STI is non-recurring and Servicing Instruction id recurring
Explanation
The correct answer states that STI is non-recurring and Servicing Instruction is recurring. This means that STI is a one-time instruction or directive, while Servicing Instruction is a repeated or ongoing instruction.
24.
Based on the urgency of the compliance schedule, approved STI/SI are classified under which two categories?
Correct Answer
C. Mandatory and Normal STI/SI
Explanation
Approved STI/SI are classified into two categories based on the urgency of the compliance schedule, which are Mandatory and Normal STI/SI. This means that some STI/SI are required to be implemented immediately (Mandatory), while others can be implemented within a normal timeframe (Normal). The other options, Flight safety and Mandatory STI/SI, and Flight safety and Urgent STI/SI, are not the correct answer as they do not accurately describe the two categories based on urgency. The option Urgent STI/SI and Normal STI/SI is also incorrect as it does not include the category of Mandatory STI/SI.
25.
Under what type of circumstances, a STI (Special Technical Instruction) is issued?
Correct Answer
B. When instructions issued for immediate actions to correct a serious fault. The actions required are urgent and non-recurrent
Explanation
A Special Technical Instruction (STI) is issued when immediate actions are required to correct a serious fault that is urgent and non-recurrent. This means that the fault needs to be addressed immediately, and the actions needed to fix it are not expected to be repeated in the future. The STI is issued to ensure that the necessary steps are taken promptly to address the fault and prevent any further issues or risks.
26.
What techical instruction is to be issued for immediate actions to correct serious faults that are urgent and non-recurrent?
Correct Answer
D. Special Technical Instruction
Explanation
A Special Technical Instruction is issued for immediate actions to correct serious faults that are urgent and non-recurrent. This type of instruction is specifically designed to address unique and critical issues that require immediate attention and resolution. It provides detailed guidance and steps to be followed to rectify the fault quickly and effectively. Unlike regular maintenance or job instructions, a Special Technical Instruction is only used for urgent and non-recurrent faults that cannot be addressed through standard procedures.
27.
Which Technical Instruction is to be issued for compliance on recurrent basis?
Correct Answer
A. Servicing Instruction
Explanation
Servicing Instruction is the correct answer because it is a technical instruction that needs to be followed on a recurrent basis. Servicing instructions provide guidelines and procedures for maintaining and servicing equipment or machinery regularly to ensure their proper functioning and longevity. These instructions may include tasks such as cleaning, lubricating, inspecting, and repairing specific components or systems. By following servicing instructions, organizations can ensure that their equipment remains in good working condition and minimize the risk of breakdowns or accidents.
28.
Within what time frame, must STI/SI leaflets tobe routed to AFIRC by syste/Specialist officer after approval by respective Branch Head?
Correct Answer
D. 1 week
Explanation
After receiving approval from the respective Branch Head, the STI/SI leaflets must be routed to AFIRC by the system/Specialist officer within 1 week.
29.
Based on the urgentcy of the compliance schedule, approved STI/SI are classified under
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all approved STI/SI are classified under normal STI/SI, flight safety STI/SI, and safety or mandatory STI/SI. This suggests that there are different levels of urgency and importance for compliance schedules, and all approved STI/SI fall into one or more of these categories.
30.
What is the follow up action required when the Servicing Instruction has been incorporated into the servicing publication?
Correct Answer
B. Rescind the SI leaflet
Explanation
Once the Servicing Instruction has been incorporated into the servicing publication, the follow-up action required is to rescind the SI leaflet. This means that the SI leaflet is no longer valid or necessary, as the information and instructions from the leaflet have been included in the servicing publication. Rescinding the SI leaflet ensures that there is no confusion or conflicting information between the leaflet and the servicing publication.
31.
The absence of which type of STI/SI, would limit the operational use of system or equipment with regards to safety reasons?
Correct Answer
C. Safety STI/SI
Explanation
Safety STI/SI refers to the type of STI/SI that is specifically related to safety reasons. Without the presence of safety STI/SI, the operational use of a system or equipment may be limited as it would not be able to ensure the necessary safety measures and precautions. Therefore, the absence of safety STI/SI would hinder the operational use of the system or equipment due to safety concerns.
32.
When should SI be withdrawn?
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that SI (Scheduled Inspection) should be withdrawn in all of the mentioned scenarios. It should be withdrawn when it is incorporated into the servicing schedule, when it becomes redundant due to improvements made through modification, and when it is found to be non-recurrent by the issuing authority.
33.
Who is the approving authority for STI/SI?
Correct Answer
A. Respective system/specialist Branch Head
Explanation
The approving authority for STI/SI is the respective system/specialist Branch Head. This individual is responsible for reviewing and approving the STI/SI requests within their specific branch. They have the knowledge and expertise in their area to ensure that the STI/SI is appropriate and aligns with the branch's objectives and requirements.
34.
STI/SI compliance schedule is by
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The correct answer is "All of the above". This means that the STI/SI compliance schedule can be followed either on the date it is received, or at the next scheduled servicing. Both options are valid and compliant with the schedule.
35.
Which technical instruction is issued for compliance in a recurrent basis?
Correct Answer
D. Servicing Instructions(SI)
Explanation
Servicing Instructions (SI) is the correct answer because it is a technical instruction that is issued for compliance on a recurrent basis. SI provides specific instructions and procedures for servicing and maintaining equipment or systems. This instruction is regularly updated to ensure that the servicing and maintenance tasks are performed correctly and in accordance with the latest standards and requirements. It helps to ensure the safety, reliability, and efficiency of the equipment or system being serviced.
36.
Who is responsible to record STI/SI in the CML List?
Correct Answer
A. AFIRC
Explanation
AFIRC (Air Force Integrated Readiness Center) is responsible for recording STI/SI (Special Technical Information/Specific Information) in the CML (Central Maintenance List). The AFIRC is a centralized organization that manages and coordinates maintenance activities in the Air Force. They are responsible for maintaining accurate and up-to-date information in the CML, which includes recording any STI/SI that is relevant to maintenance tasks.
37.
If the maximum time limit for Q is exceeded, approval for extension can be given by
Correct Answer
D. CO ALS or S4
Explanation
If the maximum time limit for Q is exceeded, approval for extension can be given by either CO ALS or S4.
38.
NSF Tech will be trained and qualified up to a level of
Correct Answer
B. Tech
Explanation
The given answer suggests that NSF Tech will be trained and qualified up to the level of "Tech". This implies that NSF Tech will receive training and acquire the necessary qualifications to perform tasks and responsibilities at the Tech level. The answer does not provide any further information about the specific training or qualifications that NSF Tech will receive beyond the Tech level.
39.
The maximum time for non-aircraft OJT to be qualified as a Q-Snr Tech is
Correct Answer
C. 8 months
Explanation
The maximum time for non-aircraft OJT to be qualified as a Q-Snr Tech is 8 months. This means that individuals who undergo non-aircraft on-the-job training must complete their training within 8 months in order to be qualified as a Q-Snr Tech.
40.
For those Snr Tech whose technical currency on a system have lapsed for between 2 and 3 years, they can have their QST authorised reinstated by
Correct Answer
C. Having the OC interviewing the personnel, sitting and passing the relevant QST exam
Explanation
To reinstate their QST authorization, Snr Tech whose technical currency on a system has lapsed for 2-3 years must have the OC (Officer in Charge) interview them and then sit and pass the relevant QST exam. This means that the OC will assess their knowledge and skills through an interview and ensure that they have the necessary qualifications by passing the exam. This process will determine if they are still competent and up-to-date in their technical abilities before reinstating their QST authorization.
41.
The Q-Tech requirement consists of
(i) Pass Basic type course
(ii) Complete predetermined work task in OJT booklet
(iii) Complete 3 months OJT immersion time
(iv) pass assessment test conducted by OLTC
Correct Answer
D. (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)
Explanation
The correct answer is (i),(ii),(iii),(iv). This is because the Q-Tech requirement consists of completing all four tasks: passing the Basic type course (i), completing the predetermined work task in the OJT booklet (ii), completing 3 months of OJT immersion time (iii), and passing the assessment test conducted by OLTC (iv).
42.
For those Snr Tech whose technical currency on system have lapsed for less than 2 years, they can have their basic QST authorization reinstated by
Correct Answer
A. Having the OC interview/recommetdation
Explanation
The correct answer is having the OC interview/recommendation. This means that Senior Technicians whose technical currency on the system has lapsed for less than 2 years can have their basic QST authorization reinstated by going through an interview or recommendation process with the OC (Officer in Charge). This suggests that the OC's evaluation and recommendation is important in determining whether the Senior Technician is still qualified and competent to have their QST authorization reinstated.
43.
The maximum time for an aircraft trade initial OJT to be qualified as a Q-Snr Tech is
Correct Answer
D. 12 months
Explanation
The maximum time for an aircraft trade initial OJT to be qualified as a Q-Snr Tech is 12 months. This means that an individual undergoing on-the-job training in the aircraft trade must complete their training and be deemed qualified as a Q-Snr Tech within a maximum time frame of 12 months.
44.
With the initial Qualified Senior Tech qualification status, one can perform
Correct Answer
B. Closing job by signing both the Worker's (Tradesman's) and Supervision's columns
Explanation
The initial Qualified Senior Tech qualification status allows the individual to take on the responsibility of closing a job. By signing both the Worker's (Tradesman's) and Supervision's columns, the qualified senior tech is indicating that they have completed the necessary work and that it has been supervised and approved. This ensures that the job has been properly completed and meets the required standards.
45.
The maximum time for an initial OJT to be qualified as a Q-Tech is
Correct Answer
C. 8 months
Explanation
The maximum time for an initial OJT to be qualified as a Q-Tech is 8 months. This means that individuals undergoing on-the-job training (OJT) need to complete their training and meet the necessary qualifications within 8 months in order to be considered qualified as a Q-Tech.
46.
Training and work qualification of technical specialist are designed with the following consideration
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The training and work qualification of technical specialists are designed to meet the needs of the job with "just enough" training, focusing on developing specific skills required for the role. This approach ensures that the specialists are equipped with the necessary knowledge and abilities without wasting time on unnecessary training. Additionally, the training is designed to provide a minimum time for work "immersion", allowing the specialists to quickly apply their skills in real-world scenarios. Therefore, all of the given considerations - "just enough" training, skilled-based approach, and minimum time for work "immersion" - are taken into account when designing the training and work qualification for technical specialists.
47.
With the Qualified Senior Tech qualification status, one can perform:
Correct Answer
B. Closing job by signing in the SAF Form1400 Worker's (Tradesman's) and Supervisor's column
Explanation
The correct answer is "Closing job by signing in the SAF Form1400 Worker's (Tradesman's) and Supervisor's column". This means that someone with the Qualified Senior Tech qualification status is authorized to close a job by signing in both the worker's and supervisor's columns of the SAF Form1400. This indicates that they have the authority and responsibility to certify that the job has been completed to the required standard and can be closed.
48.
Why the qualified technicians and senior technicians are subjected to periodic re-validation?
Correct Answer
B. This is to ensure that their competency level is maintained at an acceptable standard
Explanation
Qualified technicians and senior technicians are subjected to periodic re-validation to ensure that their competency level is maintained at an acceptable standard. This helps to ensure that they are up to date with the latest knowledge and skills required for their job, and can effectively perform their duties. It also ensures that they are able to meet the standards and requirements set by the organization or industry they work in. By undergoing re-validation, these technicians can demonstrate that they are still capable and qualified to perform their roles effectively.
49.
What are the criteria to assess the technical skill competency for an authorization
(i) The Tech or Snr Tech must have been working on the system for a minnimum period of 6 months since the last authorization.
(ii) The Tech or Snr Tech must have achieved required number of task repetition as stipulated in FLO.
(iii) The Tech or Snr Tech must have attended 100% of Continuation Trade Learning (CTL).
(iv) The Tech or Snr Tech must have passed the Professional Knowledge Examination.
Correct Answer
C. (ii),(iii),(iv)
Explanation
The criteria to assess the technical skill competency for an authorization include the following:
(ii) The Tech or Snr Tech must have achieved the required number of task repetition as stipulated in FLO.
(iii) The Tech or Snr Tech must have attended 100% of Continuation Trade Learning (CTL).
(iv) The Tech or Snr Tech must have passed the Professional Knowledge Examination. These criteria together determine the technical skill competency and ensure that the individual has the necessary experience, knowledge, and training to be authorized.
50.
The authorization of the technicians or senior technicians for the assigned duties is not definite, what is the frequency of re-authorization for the technicians or senior technicians?
Correct Answer
C. 1 yearly
Explanation
The technicians or senior technicians are authorized for their assigned duties for a period of one year. After this period, they need to be re-authorized in order to continue performing their duties. This ensures that their authorization is up to date and in line with any changes or updates in their roles and responsibilities.