1.
Which testing phase tests individual software modules combined together as a group?
Correct Answer
B. Integration testing
Explanation
Integration testing is the testing phase that tests individual software modules combined together as a group. In this phase, the purpose is to identify any issues or defects that may arise when different modules interact with each other. It ensures that the modules work together seamlessly and that the overall system functions as expected. Integration testing helps to uncover any integration errors or inconsistencies early in the development process, allowing for timely resolution and a smoother final product.
2.
Verification is:
Correct Answer
B. Checking that we are building the system right
Explanation
The correct answer is "Checking that we are building the system right." This explanation aligns with the concept of verification, which involves the process of evaluating a system to ensure that it meets the specified requirements and is functioning correctly. By checking that the system is being built correctly, we are essentially verifying its adherence to the desired standards and specifications.
3.
The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
Correct Answer
A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
Explanation
Re-testing involves running a test again to ensure that a previously identified fault has been fixed correctly. On the other hand, regression testing is conducted to check for any unexpected side effects or issues that may have been introduced as a result of fixing the fault. Therefore, the correct answer states that re-testing is about running a test again, while regression testing focuses on identifying any unexpected side effects.
4.
Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Software quality assurance involves the auditing and reporting functions of management to ensure that the software meets the desired quality standards. This includes activities such as reviewing the software development process, conducting audits to identify any deviations from standards, and reporting the findings to management for corrective actions. Therefore, the statement "Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management" is true.
5.
Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
Correct Answer
C. C) quality planning
Explanation
Quality planning is not considered an appraisal cost in Software Quality Assurance (SQA). Appraisal costs are associated with activities that evaluate the quality of products or services to ensure they meet the required standards. Inter-process inspection, maintenance, and testing are all examples of appraisal costs as they involve checking and assessing the quality of the software. However, quality planning is a proactive activity that involves creating a plan to ensure quality throughout the software development process, rather than evaluating the quality after the fact.
6.
___________ is an important concept of creating qualitative/quantitative metrics or measurable variables.
Correct Answer
C. BenchMarking
Explanation
Benchmarking is an important concept of creating qualitative/quantitative metrics or measurable variables. It involves comparing an organization's performance, processes, or products against industry best practices or competitors to identify areas for improvement and set performance targets. By benchmarking, organizations can identify gaps, learn from others' success, and implement strategies to enhance their own performance. This helps in creating meaningful metrics and measurable variables that can be used to track progress and make informed decisions.
7.
RAD stands for
Correct Answer
B. B) Rapid Application Development
Explanation
RAD stands for Rapid Application Development. This approach to software development emphasizes quick prototyping and iterative development, allowing for faster delivery of functional software. It focuses on user involvement, collaboration, and flexibility, enabling developers to respond to changing requirements and deliver high-quality software in a shorter time frame. The other options, Relative Application Development and Rapid Application Document, do not accurately represent the meaning of RAD.
8.
Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
Correct Answer
C. C) RAD Model
Explanation
The RAD (Rapid Application Development) Model can be selected if the user is involved in all the phases of SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle). This model emphasizes iterative development and collaboration between developers and users. It allows for quick prototyping and feedback from users, ensuring that their requirements and expectations are met throughout the development process.
9.
SDLC stands for
Correct Answer
C. A) Software Development Life Cycle
Explanation
SDLC stands for Software Development Life Cycle, which is a process used in software development to guide the creation of high-quality software. It involves a series of phases, including requirements gathering, system design, coding, testing, deployment, and maintenance. This approach ensures that software is developed in a systematic and structured manner, following best practices and industry standards. The other options, system development life cycle, software design life cycle, and system design life cycle, do not accurately represent the commonly accepted meaning of SDLC in the context of software development.
10.
Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
Correct Answer
D. D) All of the mentioned
Explanation
The explanation for the given correct answer (d) All of the mentioned is that quality can be evaluated based on user satisfaction. This includes having a compliant product that meets the required standards, producing good quality output, and delivering the product within the specified budget and schedule. Therefore, all of these factors contribute to determining the overall quality of a product or service.
11.
Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?
Correct Answer
D. D) Appraisal
Explanation
Inspections and testing are considered appraisal costs because they are activities performed to assess the quality of a product or service. These costs are incurred to identify defects or non-conformities before the product is delivered to the customer. By conducting inspections and testing, organizations can ensure that the product meets the required standards and specifications. Appraisal costs are aimed at preventing defective products from reaching the customer, thus reducing the risk of customer dissatisfaction and potential external failure costs.
12.
What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment?
Correct Answer
B. B) Internal Failure
Explanation
Internal failure costs are incurred when errors or defects are detected within a product before it is shipped to the customer. These costs include the cost of rework, scrap, and retesting, as well as any costs associated with customer complaints or returns. Internal failure costs are a result of poor quality control or inadequate processes within the organization, and they represent a loss of resources and productivity. By detecting and addressing errors internally, organizations can prevent these costs and improve overall product quality.
13.
Blue money is considered as investment by organisation in doing quality work.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Blue money is not considered as investment by organizations in doing quality work. The term "blue money" is not commonly used in finance or business contexts, and there is no established definition or understanding of it. Therefore, it cannot be said that organizations consider blue money as an investment for quality work.
14.
___________ is a cost incurred by organisation during development, in form of first-time review/ testing.
Correct Answer
C. Blue money
Explanation
Blue money refers to the cost incurred by an organization during the development process, specifically in the form of first-time review and testing. This cost is associated with identifying and rectifying any issues or errors that may arise during the initial stages of development. It is called "blue money" to differentiate it from other types of costs incurred by the organization.
15.
There are total of ______quality principles of Total Quality Management
Correct Answer
C. 14
Explanation
Total Quality Management (TQM) is a management approach that focuses on continuously improving the quality of products, services, and processes. It is based on a set of quality principles that guide organizations in achieving customer satisfaction and organizational excellence. The correct answer is 14 because TQM is based on fourteen quality principles, including customer focus, leadership, involvement of people, process approach, and continuous improvement. These principles provide a framework for organizations to implement TQM effectively and achieve their quality goals.
16.
Sales Price =Cost of Manufacturing + ____________ +Profit
Correct Answer
B. Cost of Quality
Explanation
The correct answer is "Cost of Quality" because the sales price of a product includes the cost of manufacturing, the profit margin, and the cost of ensuring quality. The cost of quality includes the expenses incurred in preventing defects, detecting defects, and correcting defects in the product. These costs are necessary to maintain customer satisfaction and to avoid potential losses due to poor quality. Therefore, including the cost of quality in the sales price ensures that the company covers its expenses and maintains profitability.
17.
The testing in which code is checked
Correct Answer
B. B) White box testing
Explanation
White box testing is a type of testing where the internal structure, design, and implementation of the code are examined. Testers have access to the source code and use it to create test cases that ensure all paths and conditions within the code are tested. This type of testing is also known as clear box testing or structural testing. It helps identify errors in the code logic, uncover dead code, and ensure that all statements and branches are executed. Therefore, the correct answer is b) White box testing.
18.
Which of the following is non-functional testing?
Correct Answer
B. B) Performance testing
Explanation
Performance testing is a type of non-functional testing that is focused on evaluating the system's performance under specific conditions. It involves measuring response times, throughput, scalability, and stability of the system under various workloads. This type of testing is important to ensure that the system can handle the expected load and perform well in terms of speed and efficiency. Black box testing, unit testing, and other types of testing mentioned in the options are functional testing techniques that aim to verify the functionality of the system.
19.
Unit testing is done by
Correct Answer
B. B) Developers
Explanation
Unit testing is a type of testing that focuses on testing individual units or components of a software system. It is typically done by developers who write the code for these units. Developers perform unit testing to ensure that each unit of code functions correctly and meets the expected requirements. This helps in identifying and fixing any bugs or issues at an early stage, ensuring the overall quality of the software. Users and customers are not involved in unit testing as it is primarily the responsibility of the developers.
20.
Behavioral testing is
Correct Answer
B. B) Black box testing
Explanation
Black box testing is a software testing technique where the internal structure, design, and implementation details of the system being tested are not known to the tester. Instead, the tester focuses on testing the functionality and behavior of the system based on the input and output. This type of testing is mainly concerned with validating the system against the specified requirements and ensuring that it behaves correctly from the user's perspective. Therefore, the correct answer is b) Black box testing.
21.
Exhaustive testing is
Correct Answer
C. C) impractical but possible
Explanation
Exhaustive testing refers to testing every possible combination of inputs and scenarios in order to ensure that a software system is functioning correctly. While it is theoretically possible to conduct exhaustive testing, it is highly impractical due to the vast number of possible combinations, making it impossible to test them all within a reasonable timeframe. However, in certain scenarios where the system is relatively simple or the time and resources are available, it may be possible to perform exhaustive testing. Therefore, option c) impractical but possible is the correct answer.
22.
Alpha testing is done at
Correct Answer
A. A) Developer’s end
Explanation
Alpha testing is a type of testing that is done by the developers themselves before the software or product is released to the users. It is conducted in a controlled environment, usually within the development team, to identify and fix any bugs or issues before the product is handed over to the users for further testing or deployment. Therefore, the correct answer is a) Developer's end.
23.
Beta Testing is done by
Correct Answer
C. C) Users
Explanation
Beta testing is the process of testing a software product in the real-world environment by actual users before its official release. These users, who are not part of the development or testing team, provide valuable feedback on the product's usability, functionality, and performance. Therefore, the correct answer is c) Users, as they are the ones who perform beta testing.
24.
_______________ is a type of software testing where we mutate (change) certain statements in the source code and check if the test cases are able to find the errors.
Correct Answer
C. Mutation testing
Explanation
Mutation testing is a type of software testing where certain statements in the source code are mutated or changed, and then the test cases are executed to check if they are able to detect any errors. This technique helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the test cases by measuring their ability to identify faults in the mutated code. It is a valuable method for improving the quality and reliability of software.
25.
Running the system under a live environment using Live data in order to find errors is known as
Correct Answer
C. Acceptance Testing
Explanation
Acceptance testing is the process of testing a system or software under real-world conditions using live data to determine if it meets the specified requirements and is ready for deployment. This type of testing is typically performed by end-users or stakeholders to ensure that the system functions as intended and meets their expectations. It helps identify any errors, bugs, or issues that may arise during actual usage and allows for necessary adjustments or improvements to be made before the system is fully implemented.
26.
What is “V” Model?
Correct Answer
B. B) SDLC Model
Explanation
The "V" Model is a software development life cycle (SDLC) model. It is a variation of the waterfall model, where each phase of the development process is followed by a corresponding testing phase. The V-shaped representation of the model indicates the relationship between each phase and its corresponding testing phase. This model emphasizes the importance of testing throughout the development process and ensures that testing activities are aligned with the development activities. Therefore, the correct answer is b) SDLC Model.
27.
Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
Correct Answer
C. C) Incident reports
Explanation
Incident reports would not normally form part of a test plan because they are documents that record and analyze any unexpected events or issues that occur during the testing process. Test plans typically focus on outlining the features to be tested, identifying potential risks, and establishing a schedule for executing the tests. Incident reports, on the other hand, are created after an incident has occurred and are used to document and address any problems or failures that were encountered. Therefore, incident reports are not typically included in the initial test plan.
28.
What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
Correct Answer
C. C) The objective of the test
Explanation
The important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use is the objective of the test. This means that the technique should align with the specific goals and requirements of the testing process. The chosen technique should be able to effectively address the objectives, such as identifying defects, validating functionality, or ensuring performance. The appropriateness of the technique for testing the application and the availability of tools to support the technique are also important factors, but the primary consideration should be the test objective.
29.
If one defect may camouflage another defect, & the tester may not be able to see that defect it is called.
Correct Answer
C. Camouflage effect
Explanation
The camouflage effect refers to a situation where one defect masks or hides another defect, making it difficult for the tester to identify the hidden defect. This can occur when the presence of one defect distracts or obscures the visibility of another defect, leading to potential issues being overlooked or undetected during the testing process.
30.
A bug report is a:
Correct Answer
B. A technical document that describes the various symptoms or failure modes associated with single bug
Explanation
A bug report is a technical document that describes the various symptoms or failure modes associated with a single bug. It provides detailed information about the issue, including steps to reproduce it, the expected behavior, and the actual behavior observed. This document helps developers understand and fix the bug by providing them with all the necessary information. It is not a collection of independent, reusable test cases or a deliverable that details the strategic approach to testing.
31.
When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
Correct Answer
D. A failure
Explanation
A failure is the correct answer because it refers to a situation where the visible behavior of a system deviates from what is expected or specified. It indicates that the system is not functioning correctly and is unable to meet the desired outcomes or requirements. A failure can occur due to faults, errors, bugs, or mistakes in the system, but it specifically refers to the end result of these issues being observable by the users.
32.
The prime benefit of testing is that it results in improved defects
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Testing does not directly result in improved defects. Testing helps to identify and uncover defects in a system or software, but it does not automatically improve or fix those defects. The process of testing allows for the detection and reporting of defects, which can then be addressed and fixed by developers or engineers. So, while testing is an essential part of the defect identification process, it does not directly lead to improved defects.
33.
What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
Correct Answer
D. D) To give information for a risk based decision about release
Explanation
Testing software before releasing it is important to gather information that can help make a risk-based decision about whether or not to release the software. By testing, any potential bugs or issues can be identified and addressed before the software is released to the public. This helps minimize the risk of releasing a faulty or unreliable product, which can lead to customer dissatisfaction, financial loss, and damage to the reputation of the software company. Therefore, testing provides valuable information that aids in making an informed decision about releasing the software.
34.
When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
Correct Answer
D. D) All of the above
Explanation
Testers should be as polite, constructive, and helpful as possible when reporting faults to developers to maintain a positive and collaborative working relationship. They should also be diplomatic and sensitive to the way developers may react to criticism, as this can help in fostering a constructive dialogue and avoiding conflicts. Additionally, testers should be firm about insisting that a bug is not a "feature" if it should be fixed, ensuring that the necessary improvements are made. Therefore, all of the options mentioned (a, b, and c) are important qualities that testers should possess when reporting faults to developers.
35.
If requirements are easily understandable and defined then which model is best suited?
Correct Answer
B. B. Waterfall model
Explanation
The Waterfall model is best suited when requirements are easily understandable and defined because it follows a linear and sequential approach. In this model, each phase of the software development process is completed before moving on to the next phase, ensuring that requirements are well-defined and understood before implementation begins. This model is ideal when there is little to no ambiguity in the requirements and when changes to the requirements are unlikely to occur.
36.
Oldest paradigm for software engineering is
Correct Answer
D. Waterfall mode
Explanation
The correct answer is Waterfall mode. The waterfall model is considered the oldest paradigm for software engineering. It follows a linear and sequential approach, where each phase of the software development life cycle is completed before moving on to the next phase. This model is characterized by its strict and rigid structure, with minimal scope for changes or iterations once a phase is completed. It is often used for projects with well-defined requirements and a stable environment.
37.
Which of the following is true of the V-model?
Correct Answer
D. D) It includes the verification of designs.
Explanation
The V-model is a software development model that emphasizes the importance of verification and validation throughout the entire development process. It includes the verification of designs, meaning that the designs are checked to ensure they meet the specified requirements and are error-free. This helps to identify and rectify any design flaws or issues before moving forward with the development process.
38.
PDCA stands for Play Do Cheque Act
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
PDCA stands for Plan-Do-Check-Act. It is a four-step management method used for continuous improvement of processes and products. The PDCA cycle involves planning a change or improvement, implementing it, checking the results, and then acting on the findings to make further adjustments. "Play Do Cheque Act" is not a correct interpretation of the PDCA acronym. Therefore, the correct answer is False.
39.
Test Closure activities is a part of Fundamental test process
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Test Closure activities are indeed a part of the Fundamental Test Process. Test Closure activities include activities such as finalizing and archiving testware, documenting the test results, evaluating the test process, and gathering lessons learned from the testing effort. These activities are performed to ensure that all necessary tasks and documentation are completed at the end of the testing phase and to provide valuable insights for future testing projects.
40.
The Pshychology of tester & developer is same
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement suggests that the psychology of testers and developers is the same. However, this is not true. Testers and developers have different roles and perspectives. Testers focus on finding defects and ensuring the quality of the software, while developers focus on writing code and building the software. Their mindset, skills, and objectives are different, making their psychology distinct from each other. Therefore, the correct answer is false.