CDC B3m051 Services Journeyman - Volume 3. Readiness Mortuary And Protocol

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Quizzes Created: 6 | Total Attempts: 3,357

Questions: 76 | Attempts: 924 | Updated: Mar 22, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

Resources in Part II of the Base Support Plan (BSP) are?
- A.
  
  Allocated.
- B.
  
  Identified.
- C.
  
  Stockpiled.
- D.
  
  Distributed.
Correct Answer
A. Allocated.

Explanation
Resources in Part II of the Base Support Plan (BSP) are allocated. This means that they are assigned or distributed to specific areas or individuals according to a predetermined plan or system. The term "allocated" suggests a deliberate and organized approach to resource distribution, ensuring that they are used effectively and efficiently. This is in contrast to the other options: "identified" implies that the resources are simply recognized or acknowledged, "stockpiled" suggests that they are accumulated or stored in large quantities, and "distributed" implies that they are already being handed out or dispersed.

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2.

The Base Support Plan (BSP) is reviewed?
- A.
  
  Monthly.
- B.
  
  Bi-monthly.
- C.
  
  Annually.
- D.
  
  Bi-annually.
Correct Answer
C. Annually.

Explanation
The Base Support Plan (BSP) is reviewed annually. This means that the plan is assessed and evaluated once every year. This allows for any necessary updates or adjustments to be made to ensure that the plan remains effective and meets the needs of the organization. Reviewing the plan annually also provides an opportunity to identify any changes in requirements or technology that may impact the support plan.

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3.

What document outlines the doctorial concept and planning guidance for worldwide Air Force Services combat support throughout the spectrum of conflict, small scale contingency operations through major regional war?
- A.
  
  Air Force Handbook (AFH), Volume 1, Guide to Services Contingency Planning: Beddown.
- B.
  
  Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-214, Air Force Prime RIBS Program.
- C.
  
  AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution.
- D.
  
  War and Mobilization Plan 1 (WMP-1).
Correct Answer
D. War and Mobilization Plan 1 (WMP-1).

Explanation
The correct answer is War and Mobilization Plan 1 (WMP-1). This document outlines the doctorial concept and planning guidance for worldwide Air Force Services combat support throughout the spectrum of conflict, from small scale contingency operations through major regional war. It provides a comprehensive framework for the Air Force to effectively plan and execute its services in various operational scenarios.

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4.

In War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) 1, the Services force is composed of active duty, Air Force (AF) Reserve?
- A.
  
  And Air National Guard (ANG) officers, noncommissioned officers (NCO), and airmen.
- B.
  
  And ANG officers, NCO's, airmen, and civilians in functional areas.
- C.
  
  And ANG officers, NCO's, airmen, and civilians.
- D.
  
  Officers and enlisted airmen.
Correct Answer
B. And ANG officers, NCO's, airmen, and civilians in functional areas.

Explanation
The correct answer is "and ANG officers, NCO's, airmen, and civilians in functional areas." This answer includes all the components that make up the Services force in the War and Mobilization Plan 1, which are ANG officers, NCO's, airmen, and civilians in functional areas.

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5.

Who must you coordinate with for accountability for deployed personnel when planning lodging operations?
- A.
  
  Security Forces.
- B.
  
  Civil Engineering.
- C.
  
  Major Command (MAJCOM).
- D.
  
  Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO).
Correct Answer
D. Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO).

Explanation
When planning lodging operations, you must coordinate with personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) for accountability for deployed personnel. PERSCO is responsible for tracking and managing personnel movements, assignments, and accountability during contingency operations. They ensure that all personnel are properly accounted for and have appropriate lodging arrangements. Security Forces, Civil Engineering, and Major Command (MAJCOM) may have their own roles and responsibilities in the overall planning and execution of lodging operations, but PERSCO specifically handles accountability for deployed personnel.

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6.

In a wartime environment, levels of service increase commensurate with quality of life programs, where possible, after?
- A.
  
  M+15.
- B.
  
  M+30.
- C.
  
  M+45.
- D.
  
  M+60.
Correct Answer
B. M+30.

Explanation
In a wartime environment, levels of service increase commensurate with quality of life programs, where possible, after M+30. This means that after 30 minutes from a certain point in time (M), there will be an increase in the levels of service provided. This allows for improvements in the quality of life programs available to individuals in the wartime environment.

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1
0
7.

Where is time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan (OPLAN) found?
- A.
  
  Unit line number (ULN).
- B.
  
  Force Requirement Number (FRN).
- C.
  
  Time-Phased Force Development Data (TPFDD).
- D.
  
  Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
Correct Answer
C. Time-pHased Force Development Data (TPFDD).

Explanation
Time-Phased Force Development Data (TPFDD) is where the time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan (OPLAN) are found. TPFDD provides a detailed schedule of the forces, equipment, and supplies required for a specific operation. It includes information such as the arrival and departure dates of units, transportation requirements, and logistical support needed. By using TPFDD, planners can effectively allocate resources and coordinate the movement of forces to support the OPLAN.

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8.

More than one time-phased force and development data (TPFDD) entry may be required for a force requirement due to?
- A.
  
  Split sourcing.
- B.
  
  Multiple pallets.
- C.
  
  Multiple delivery dates.
- D.
  
  The need for mere than one aircraft.
Correct Answer
A. Split sourcing.

Explanation
Split sourcing refers to the practice of obtaining goods or services from multiple suppliers or sources. In the context of force requirements, split sourcing may be necessary when there is a need to acquire resources from different suppliers or locations. This could be due to various factors such as availability, cost, or specific requirements of the force. In such cases, more than one time-phased force and development data (TPFDD) entry would be required to account for the different sourcing arrangements.

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9.

The deployment manning document (DRMD) defines how a unit is structured in?
- A.
  
  Rank and position.
- B.
  
  Rank and time-in-grade.
- C.
  
  Position and time-in-grade.
- D.
  
  Position and time-in-service.
Correct Answer
A. Rank and position.

Explanation
The deployment manning document (DRMD) is a document that outlines the structure of a unit in terms of the ranks and positions of its personnel. It specifies the hierarchy within the unit and the responsibilities associated with each rank and position. Time-in-grade and time-in-service are not factors considered in the DRMD, as it focuses on the organizational structure rather than individual experience or tenure. Therefore, the correct answer is rank and position.

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10.

Who provides direction to the Unit Control Center (UCC)?
- A.
  
  Base Commander.
- B.
  
  Group Commander.
- C.
  
  Force Support Commander.
- D.
  
  Readiness Officer in Charge.
Correct Answer
C. Force Support Commander.

Explanation
The Force Support Commander provides direction to the Unit Control Center (UCC). The UCC is responsible for coordinating and managing the support functions of a military unit, including personnel, logistics, and administrative support. The Force Support Commander is in charge of overseeing these operations and ensuring that the UCC operates efficiently and effectively. They provide guidance and instructions to the UCC staff, ensuring that the unit's support needs are met and that resources are properly allocated.

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11.

What percent of the wartime feeding population is used to determine Services' support capability?
- A.
  
  100.
- B.
  
  90.
- C.
  
  80.
- D.
  
  75.
Correct Answer
B. 90.

Explanation
The question asks about the percentage of the wartime feeding population that is used to determine Services' support capability. The correct answer is 90. This means that 90% of the wartime feeding population is taken into account when determining the Services' support capability.

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12.

Deployment beddown planning should be in concert with?
- A.
  
  Force Module.
- B.
  
  Deployment Cycle.
- C.
  
  Command and Control.
- D.
  
  Bare Base Requirements.
Correct Answer
A. Force Module.

Explanation
Deployment beddown planning should be in concert with the Force Module because the Force Module provides the necessary personnel, equipment, and resources for a specific mission or operation. It includes the required capabilities and support functions to successfully execute the mission. Therefore, coordinating the deployment beddown planning with the Force Module ensures that the right personnel and resources are available at the right time and place to support the mission effectively.

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13.

Who can provide you with a base map or GeoBase Data?
- A.
  
  Civil Engineering.
- B.
  
  Security Forces.
- C.
  
  Logistics Readiness.
- D.
  
  Data Automation Office.
Correct Answer
A. Civil Engineering.

Explanation
Civil Engineering can provide a base map or GeoBase Data. Civil engineers are responsible for designing and constructing infrastructure projects, including roads, bridges, and buildings. As part of their work, they often create detailed maps and collect geographical data. Therefore, they have the expertise and resources to provide base maps or GeoBase Data to individuals or organizations in need.

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14.

Where can you obtain training transcripts as proof that you are ready to deploy?
- A.
  
  Logistics Module (LOGMOD).
- B.
  
  Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).
- C.
  
  Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
- D.
  
  Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Reporting Tool (ART).
Correct Answer
B. Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).

Explanation
The Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS) can provide training transcripts as proof of readiness for deployment. ADLS is a platform that offers a wide range of online training courses and resources for military personnel. It tracks and records the completion of these courses, generating transcripts that can be used to demonstrate an individual's training accomplishments and qualifications. Therefore, ADLS is the most appropriate option for obtaining training transcripts as proof of readiness for deployment.

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15.

The unit deployment manager (UDM) provides quarterly training status updates to the?
- A.
  
  Flight Chief.
- B.
  
  Major Command (MAJCOM).
- C.
  
  Installation Deployment Officer.
- D.
  
  Force Support Squadron (FSS) Commander.
Correct Answer
D. Force Support Squadron (FSS) Commander.

Explanation
The unit deployment manager (UDM) is responsible for providing quarterly training status updates to the Force Support Squadron (FSS) Commander. The FSS Commander oversees the deployment process and ensures that all personnel are properly trained and prepared for deployment. Therefore, it is important for the UDM to provide regular updates to the FSS Commander regarding the training status of the unit. This allows the FSS Commander to make informed decisions and take necessary actions to maintain readiness and ensure the successful deployment of the unit.

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16.

Who must complete Home Station and Readiness Training (HSRT)?
- A.
  
  All FSS personnel.
- B.
  
  Subject-to-deploy personnel.
- C.
  
  Personnel in upgrade training.
- D.
  
  Identified-to-deploy personnel.
Correct Answer
A. All FSS personnel.

Explanation
All FSS personnel must complete Home Station and Readiness Training (HSRT). This implies that every individual within the FSS (Force Support Squadron) is required to undergo this training. It is not limited to subject-to-deploy personnel, personnel in upgrade training, or identified-to-deploy personnel. The statement suggests that all members of the FSS, regardless of their specific role or deployment status, are obligated to complete HSRT.

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17.

Which type of unit code (UTC) provides Nonappropriated Fund (NAF) management for a population of 1,100?
- A.
  
  RFSRB.
- B.
  
  RFSRL.
- C.
  
  RFL14.
- D.
  
  RFL05.
Correct Answer
B. RFSRL.

Explanation
The correct answer is RFSRL. This unit code provides Nonappropriated Fund (NAF) management for a population of 1,100.

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18.

Which Force Module sets are being phased out?
- A.
  
  Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) and Harvest Eagle.
- B.
  
  Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon.
- C.
  
  BEAR and Harvest Falcon.
- D.
  
  Small Shelter Systems.
Correct Answer
B. Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon.

Explanation
The correct answer is Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon. This means that these two Force Modules are being phased out.

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19.

What shelters come in a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) asset and are designed for initial beddown and future expansion?
- A.
  
  Alaskan Shelter System.
- B.
  
  Medium Shelter System.
- C.
  
  Small Shelter System.
- D.
  
  TEMPER Tents.
Correct Answer
D. TEMPER Tents.

Explanation
The correct answer is TEMPER Tents. TEMPER stands for Tent, Extendable, Modular, Personnel. These tents are a part of the Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) asset and are specifically designed for initial beddown and future expansion. They are versatile and can be easily transported and set up in various configurations to meet the needs of the mission.

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20.

Which Force Module (FM) includes unit type codes (UTC) with resources to make the bed down forces operationally capable?
- A.
  
  Open the Base.
- B.
  
  Operate the Base.
- C.
  
  Establish the Base.
- D.
  
  Command and Control (C2).
Correct Answer
C. Establish the Base.

Explanation
The Force Module (FM) that includes unit type codes (UTC) with resources to make the bed down forces operationally capable is the "Establish the Base" FM. This FM is responsible for setting up the necessary infrastructure and resources at a base to support the operational capabilities of the bed down forces. It involves tasks such as constructing facilities, establishing communication networks, and providing essential services to ensure the smooth functioning of the base.

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21.

Which Force Module (FM) is only deployed to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue for more than 45 days?
- A.
  
  Open the Base.
- B.
  
  Operate the Base.
- C.
  
  Establish the Base.
- D.
  
  Command and Control (C2).
Correct Answer
B. Operate the Base.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Operate the Base." This force module is specifically deployed to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue for more than 45 days. It implies that once the base is established, this force module takes over the day-to-day operations and management of the base to ensure its smooth functioning and support the sustained operations for an extended period of time.

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22.

Home Station and Readiness Training (HSRT) has how many tiers?
- A.
  
  2.
- B.
  
  3.
- C.
  
  4.
- D.
  
  5.
Correct Answer
A. 2.

Explanation
The Home Station and Readiness Training (HSRT) has two tiers. This means that there are two levels or stages in the training program. Each tier likely focuses on different aspects of home station training and readiness. The question does not provide any additional information about what these tiers entail or what they cover.

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23.

The mobility A-Bag contains?
- A.
  
  Parka, gloves, boots, socks, and other cold weather items.
- B.
  
  Protective mask, mask filters, gloves, hoods, boots, detection papers.
- C.
  
  An M-9 or M-16, six ammo clips, ammunition, and night vision scope.
- D.
  
  Helmet, web belt, body armor, sleeping bag, canteen kit, and a mess kit.
Correct Answer
D. Helmet, web belt, body armor, sleeping bag, canteen kit, and a mess kit.

Explanation
The mobility A-Bag contains essential items for a soldier's survival and comfort during a mission. The helmet provides head protection, the web belt helps carry equipment, the body armor offers protection against enemy fire, the sleeping bag ensures restful sleep, and the canteen kit and mess kit provide necessary hydration and food. These items are crucial for a soldier's mobility and readiness in the field.

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24.

What plays a key role in ensuring that all personnel identified for deployment have their affairs in order at all times?
- A.
  
  Mobility folders.
- B.
  
  Base legal office.
- C.
  
  Squadron readiness office.
- D.
  
  Installation deployment plan.
Correct Answer
A. Mobility folders.

Explanation
Mobility folders play a key role in ensuring that all personnel identified for deployment have their affairs in order at all times. These folders contain important documents and information such as medical records, personal identification, emergency contact information, and deployment orders. They help to ensure that all necessary paperwork and preparations are completed before deployment, allowing for a smooth and organized transition. The use of mobility folders helps to ensure that personnel are fully prepared and ready for deployment whenever the need arises.

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25.

Who is required to develop a written family care plan and document it on an AF Form 357, Family Care Certification?
- A.
  
  All Air Force Members.
- B.
  
  Members with civilian spouses.
- C.
  
  All Air Force contractors and civilians.
- D.
  
  Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations.
Correct Answer
D. Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations.

Explanation
Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations are required to develop a written family care plan and document it on an AF Form 357, Family Care Certification. This is because these individuals have additional responsibilities and circumstances that may require them to make specific arrangements for the care of their dependents in their absence.

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26.

A fundamental premise of the Statue of Resource and Training System (SORTS) is?
- A.
  
  Integrity.
- B.
  
  Service before self.
- C.
  
  Excellence in all we do.
- D.
  
  Pride in one's self and unit.
Correct Answer
A. Integrity.

Explanation
The correct answer is integrity. This is because the fundamental premise of the Statue of Resource and Training System (SORTS) is based on the principle of integrity. Integrity refers to the adherence to moral and ethical principles, honesty, and upholding strong moral values. In the context of SORTS, integrity would mean that the system is built on the foundation of trust, transparency, and accountability, ensuring that the resources and training provided are reliable and of high quality.

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27.

The War fighting Requirements Review (WFRR) working group makes recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues to?
- A.
  
  The Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT).
- B.
  
  The United States Air Force Academy (USAFA).
- C.
  
  Air Force Personnel Center/Services Directorate (AFPC/SV).
- D.
  
  The readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).
Correct Answer
D. The readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).

Explanation
The War fighting Requirements Review (WFRR) working group makes recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues to the readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).

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28.

Who opens a new case file and documents pertinent information when notified of an active duty death?
- A.
  
  Mortuary officer.
- B.
  
  Family liaison officer.
- C.
  
  Base commander of the deceased.
- D.
  
  Person authorized direct disposition.
Correct Answer
A. Mortuary officer.

Explanation
When notified of an active duty death, the mortuary officer is responsible for opening a new case file and documenting all relevant information. This includes gathering details about the deceased and their next of kin, as well as coordinating the necessary arrangements for the funeral and disposition of the body. The mortuary officer plays a crucial role in ensuring that the deceased service member receives proper care and that their family is supported during this difficult time.

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29.

Eligible personnel are provided with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations through what program?
- A.
  
  Current Death.
- B.
  
  Mortuary Affairs.
- C.
  
  Veteran Services.
- D.
  
  Survivor Assistance Program.
Correct Answer
A. Current Death.
30.

Which program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?
- A.
  
  Current Death.
- B.
  
  Mortuary Affairs.
- C.
  
  Concurrent Return.
- D.
  
  Temporary Interment.
Correct Answer
C. Concurrent Return.

Explanation
The preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict is Concurrent Return. This program ensures that the remains of fallen service members are returned to their home country as soon as possible, allowing for timely and respectful burial or cremation. It prioritizes the repatriation process and minimizes the time the remains spend in temporary interment or mortuary affairs facilities. This approach acknowledges the need for prompt closure for the families of the deceased and honors the sacrifices made by the service members.

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31.

What program is used as a last resort to protect the health and safety to personnel and is only initiated when the tactical situation precludes the return of remains?
- A.
  
  Current Death.
- B.
  
  Mortuary Affairs.
- C.
  
  Concurrent Return.
- D.
  
  Temporary Interment.
Correct Answer
D. Temporary Interment.

Explanation
Temporary interment is a program used as a last resort to protect the health and safety of personnel. It is only initiated when the tactical situation prevents the return of remains. This means that when it is not possible to bring back the remains of a deceased person due to the tactical circumstances, temporary interment is carried out as a means to ensure the health and safety of those involved. Mortuary affairs, concurrent return, and current death do not specifically refer to this program and do not address the situation described in the question.

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32.

The family assistance representative (FAR) should contact the family?
- A.
  
  Daily.
- B.
  
  Weekly.
- C.
  
  Monthly.
- D.
  
  Quarterly.
Correct Answer
A. Daily.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Daily" because regular contact with the family is important for a family assistance representative (FAR) to ensure that they are providing the necessary support and assistance. Daily contact allows the FAR to stay updated on any changes or developments within the family, address any immediate concerns or needs, and provide ongoing guidance and assistance as required. This frequent communication helps to build trust, maintain a strong working relationship, and ensures that the family receives the necessary support on a consistent basis.

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33.

The Air Force Assistance Program (AFSAP) marshals available resources to support the?
- A.
  
  Family.
- B.
  
  Deceased.
- C.
  
  Commander.
- D.
  
  Family Liaison Officer (FLO).
Correct Answer
A. Family.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Family." The Air Force Assistance Program (AFSAP) is designed to provide support for the families of Air Force personnel. This program helps families in various ways, such as providing financial assistance during emergencies, offering counseling services, and organizing support groups. By focusing on the well-being and needs of the families, AFSAP aims to enhance the overall welfare and resilience of Air Force personnel.

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34.

What type of flag case is presented to the deceased member's family?
- A.
  
  Pewter and Glass.
- B.
  
  Smooth Plastic.
- C.
  
  Polished Metal.
- D.
  
  Hardwood.
Correct Answer
D. Hardwood.

Explanation
The correct answer is Hardwood. This suggests that the flag case presented to the deceased member's family is made of hardwood material.

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35.

How many copies of the death certificate are given to the person authorized direct disposition (PADD)?
- A.
  
  1.
- B.
  
  5.
- C.
  
  10.
- D.
  
  15.
Correct Answer
C. 10.

Explanation
The person authorized direct disposition (PADD) is given 10 copies of the death certificate. These copies are necessary for various legal and administrative purposes, such as notifying financial institutions, claiming life insurance, settling estates, and handling other matters related to the deceased person's affairs. Having multiple copies ensures that the PADD can provide the necessary documentation to different entities as required.

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36.

How many escorts accompany the remains from the shipping facility to the final destination when those two are not located in the same place?
- A.
  
  1.
- B.
  
  2.
- C.
  
  3.
- D.
  
  4.
Correct Answer
A. 1.

Explanation
When the remains and the shipping facility are not located in the same place, only one escort accompanies the remains from the shipping facility to the final destination.

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37.

Which is not an authorized method of transporting remains in the continental United States (CONUS)?
- A.
  
  Commercial aircraft.
- B.
  
  Government aircraft.
- C.
  
  Hearse or service car.
- D.
  
  Chartered or private aircraft.
Correct Answer
D. Chartered or private aircraft.

Explanation
Chartered or private aircraft is not an authorized method of transporting remains in the continental United States (CONUS). This means that individuals cannot use privately chartered planes or their own private aircraft to transport the remains of a deceased person within the United States. Authorized methods include commercial aircraft, government aircraft, and a hearse or service car.

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38.

Eligible personnel are entitled to how many military funeral honors (MFH), ceremonies, or services?
- A.
  
  1.
- B.
  
  2.
- C.
  
  3.
- D.
  
  4.
Correct Answer
A. 1.

Explanation
Eligible personnel are entitled to one military funeral honor (MFH), ceremony, or service. This means that they are guaranteed to receive a proper military tribute at their funeral, which may include a flag folding ceremony, the playing of Taps, and a rifle salute. This is a way for the military to honor and show respect for the service and sacrifice of the individual.

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39.

Taps can be played at a military funeral in all of the following ways except by a?
- A.
  
  Professional bugler.
- B.
  
  High-quality recorded version the family selects.
- C.
  
  Ceremonial bugle if the military service permits.
- D.
  
  Ceremonial bugle if the family grants permission.
Correct Answer
C. Ceremonial bugle if the military service permits.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Ceremonial bugle if the military service permits." This means that a ceremonial bugle cannot be used to play taps at a military funeral if the military service does not allow it.

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40.

How often does the Air Force, along with the other Services, submit funeral honors data for inclusion in a report to Congress?
- A.
  
  Quarterly.
- B.
  
  Semi-annually.
- C.
  
  Each fiscal year.
- D.
  
  Each calendar year.
Correct Answer
D. Each calendar year.

Explanation
The Air Force, along with the other Services, submits funeral honors data for inclusion in a report to Congress each calendar year. This means that the data is collected and reported on an annual basis, specifically following the calendar year. Quarterly would mean every three months, semi-annually would mean twice a year, and each fiscal year would refer to the financial year, which may not align with the calendar year. Therefore, the correct answer is each calendar year.

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41.

The individual in charge of the overall performance, discipline, appearance, and competence of the honor guard members is the honor guard?
- A.
  
  Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
- B.
  
  Officer in charge (OIC).
- C.
  
  Flight commander.
- D.
  
  Flight NCOIC.
Correct Answer
B. Officer in charge (OIC).

Explanation
The individual in charge of the overall performance, discipline, appearance, and competence of the honor guard members is the Officer in charge (OIC). This person is responsible for ensuring that the honor guard members meet the standards and expectations set forth by the organization. They oversee the training, operations, and administration of the honor guard, and are ultimately accountable for the unit's success. The OIC is typically a commissioned officer who has been appointed to this leadership role.

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42.

Which honor guard member selects the flight color guard, firing party, pallbearer elements, and flag-folding teams?
- A.
  
  Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
- B.
  
  Officer in charge (OIC).
- C.
  
  Flight commander.
- D.
  
  Flight NCOIC.
Correct Answer
D. Flight NCOIC.

Explanation
The Flight NCOIC is responsible for selecting the flight color guard, firing party, pallbearer elements, and flag-folding teams. This role is typically held by a noncommissioned officer who has the authority to make these selections and ensure that they are carried out with precision and professionalism. The Flight NCOIC plays a crucial role in organizing and executing the various ceremonial duties and honors performed by the honor guard.

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43.

Who is required to declare death at the casualty collection point (CCP)?
- A.
  
  The noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
- B.
  
  Survival recovery center (SRC).
- C.
  
  The officer in charge.
- D.
  
  Competent medical authority.
Correct Answer
D. Competent medical authority.

Explanation
The competent medical authority is required to declare death at the casualty collection point (CCP). This is because they have the necessary medical expertise and knowledge to accurately determine if a person is deceased. The NCOIC, SRC, and officer in charge may have important roles in managing the situation, but the final decision regarding declaring death lies with the competent medical authority.

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44.

When can remains be shipped without processing?
- A.
  
  Never.
- B.
  
  Always.
- C.
  
  When an aircraft leaves within 2 hours.
- D.
  
  When an aircraft leaves within 3 to 5 hours.
Correct Answer
C. When an aircraft leaves within 2 hours.

Explanation
Remains can be shipped without processing when an aircraft leaves within 2 hours. This suggests that there is a time constraint for the shipment of remains. It implies that if an aircraft is scheduled to depart within 2 hours, the remains can be shipped without undergoing any processing. This could be due to the urgency of the situation or the need to expedite the transportation process. However, without further context, it is difficult to determine the specific reasons behind this time limit.

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45.

When do you wash remains?
- A.
  
  Never.
- B.
  
  Always.
- C.
  
  When an aircraft is not leaving within 1 hour.
- D.
  
  When an aircraft is not leaving within 2 hours.
Correct Answer
A. Never.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Never" because washing remains is not a necessary or common practice. There is no specific requirement or situation mentioned in the question that would indicate a need to wash remains. Therefore, it can be inferred that washing remains is not something that is done.

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46.

The Services Control Center provides higher headquarters with a situation report (SITREP) of the Mortuary Affairs activity at the end of each?
- A.
  
  Hour.
- B.
  
  Day.
- C.
  
  Week.
- D.
  
  Month.
Correct Answer
B. Day.

Explanation
The Services Control Center provides a situation report (SITREP) of the Mortuary Affairs activity at the end of each day. This implies that the report is generated on a daily basis, providing higher headquarters with an update on the Mortuary Affairs activity for that particular day.

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47.

Port mortuary services specialty teams receive remains at?
- A.
  
  Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, New Jersey.
- B.
  
  Shaw Air Force Base (AFB), South Carolina.
- C.
  
  Seymour Johnson AFB, North Carolina.
- D.
  
  Dover AFB, Delaware.
Correct Answer
D. Dover AFB, Delaware.

Explanation
Port mortuary services specialty teams receive remains at Dover AFB, Delaware.

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48.

Given the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site, who determines what equipment available on station is adequate to the task?
- A.
  
  Host nation environmental protection agency.
- B.
  
  Bio environmental flight chief.
- C.
  
  Department of agriculture.
- D.
  
  Civil engineers.
Correct Answer
D. Civil engineers.

Explanation
Civil engineers determine what equipment available on station is adequate to the task based on the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site. They have the expertise to assess the requirements and select the appropriate equipment needed for the job. The host nation environmental protection agency may provide guidelines and regulations, but it is the civil engineers who ultimately make the decision. The bio environmental flight chief may oversee environmental aspects, but equipment selection is typically the responsibility of civil engineers. The department of agriculture is not directly involved in determining equipment adequacy for temporary interment sites.

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49.

What personnel cannot, determine if/when the area is safe to conduct search and recovery (S&R) operations during non-hostile conditions?
- A.
  
  Nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC).
- B.
  
  Explosive ordnance disposal (EOD).
- C.
  
  Temporary interment site members.
- D.
  
  Security Forces.
Correct Answer
C. Temporary interment site members.

Explanation
Temporary interment site members are responsible for handling and burying deceased individuals, not for determining if an area is safe for search and recovery operations. This task falls under the purview of personnel trained in nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) operations, explosive ordnance disposal (EOD), and security forces. These individuals have the expertise and knowledge to assess the safety of an area and make informed decisions regarding search and recovery operations during non-hostile conditions.

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50.

When a fatality mishap occurs what agency is notified in order to make a Fatality Search and Recovery Team (FSRT) determination?
- A.
  
  Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).
- B.
  
  HQ USAF Directorate of Services (HQ USAF/A1S).
- C.
  
  Major Command Services (MAJCOM/SV).
- D.
  
  Air Force Mortuary Affairs (AFMAO).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Mortuary Affairs (AFMAO).

Explanation
When a fatality mishap occurs, the agency that is notified in order to make a Fatality Search and Recovery Team (FSRT) determination is the Air Force Mortuary Affairs (AFMAO). This agency is responsible for coordinating the search and recovery efforts in the event of a fatality, ensuring proper handling and transportation of remains, and providing support to the families of the deceased.

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Aug 27, 2015

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CDC B3m051 Services Journeyman - Volume 3. Readiness Mortuary And Protocol

Resources in Part II of the Base Support Plan (BSP) are?

The Base Support Plan (BSP) is reviewed?

What document outlines the doctorial concept and planning guidance for worldwide Air Force Services combat support throughout the spectrum of conflict, small scale contingency operations through major regional war?

In War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) 1, the Services force is composed of active duty, Air Force (AF) Reserve?

Who must you coordinate with for accountability for deployed personnel when planning lodging operations?

In a wartime environment, levels of service increase commensurate with quality of life programs, where possible, after?

Where is time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan (OPLAN) found?

More than one time-phased force and development data (TPFDD) entry may be required for a force requirement due to?

The deployment manning document (DRMD) defines how a unit is structured in?

Who provides direction to the Unit Control Center (UCC)?

What percent of the wartime feeding population is used to determine Services' support capability?

Deployment beddown planning should be in concert with?

Who can provide you with a base map or GeoBase Data?

Where can you obtain training transcripts as proof that you are ready to deploy?

The unit deployment manager (UDM) provides quarterly training status updates to the?

Who must complete Home Station and Readiness Training (HSRT)?

Which type of unit code (UTC) provides Nonappropriated Fund (NAF) management for a population of 1,100?

Which Force Module sets are being phased out?

What shelters come in a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) asset and are designed for initial beddown and future expansion?

Which Force Module (FM) includes unit type codes (UTC) with resources to make the bed down forces operationally capable?

Which Force Module (FM) is only deployed to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue for more than 45 days?

Home Station and Readiness Training (HSRT) has how many tiers?

The mobility A-Bag contains?

What plays a key role in ensuring that all personnel identified for deployment have their affairs in order at all times?

Who is required to develop a written family care plan and document it on an AF Form 357, Family Care Certification?

A fundamental premise of the Statue of Resource and Training System (SORTS) is?

The War fighting Requirements Review (WFRR) working group makes recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues to?

Who opens a new case file and documents pertinent information when notified of an active duty death?

Eligible personnel are provided with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations through what program?

Which program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?

What program is used as a last resort to protect the health and safety to personnel and is only initiated when the tactical situation precludes the return of remains?

The family assistance representative (FAR) should contact the family?

The Air Force Assistance Program (AFSAP) marshals available resources to support the?

What type of flag case is presented to the deceased member's family?

How many copies of the death certificate are given to the person authorized direct disposition (PADD)?

How many escorts accompany the remains from the shipping facility to the final destination when those two are not located in the same place?

Which is not an authorized method of transporting remains in the continental United States (CONUS)?

Eligible personnel are entitled to how many military funeral honors (MFH), ceremonies, or services?

Taps can be played at a military funeral in all of the following ways except by a?

How often does the Air Force, along with the other Services, submit funeral honors data for inclusion in a report to Congress?

The individual in charge of the overall performance, discipline, appearance, and competence of the honor guard members is the honor guard?

Which honor guard member selects the flight color guard, firing party, pallbearer elements, and flag-folding teams?

Who is required to declare death at the casualty collection point (CCP)?

When can remains be shipped without processing?

When do you wash remains?

The Services Control Center provides higher headquarters with a situation report (SITREP) of the Mortuary Affairs activity at the end of each?

Port mortuary services specialty teams receive remains at?

Given the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site, who determines what equipment available on station is adequate to the task?

What personnel cannot, determine if/when the area is safe to conduct search and recovery (S&R) operations during non-hostile conditions?

When a fatality mishap occurs what agency is notified in order to make a Fatality Search and Recovery Team (FSRT) determination?