Vehicle Identification Reader (Vir) Quiz Questions & Answers

1. What is the maximum time interval permitted by a vehicle identification reader (VIR) in which to make a pump selection?

399 seconds

699 seconds

999 seconds

1,299 seconds

402

Explanation

402

2. A heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose indicates

The inner hose is damaged

The wrong hose is being used

A faulty valve at the tank outlet

The hose connection is not tight enough

413

Explanation

413

3. When receiving fuel at the service station, the quantity shown as shipped will be accepted as the quantity received provided

The seals show evidence of tampering

The capacity markers show evidence of tampering

The seal numbers agree with those annotated on the shipping document

A visual examination of a sample of the product does not indicate it to be the product ordered

402

Explanation

402

4. When manually gauging a tank, where should fuel-finding paste be applied to the steel tape?

2-inches above and below the estimated product depth

3-inches above and below the estimated product depth

2-inches above and 3 inches below the estimated product depth

3-inches above and 2-inches below the estimated product depth

409

Explanation

409

5. An underwriter-approved vent cap is required for a vent line to

Remove obstuctions from the vent

Allow air to circulate within the tank

Connect the vent line to an outside air supply

Allow the tank to breathe properly and keeps the vent unobstructed

401

Explanation

401

6. When obtaining product measurement readings with an automated tank gauging (ATG), what key on the tank control unit is used to access the main menu?

ESC

ENTER

410

Explanation

410

7. What type of dispensing unit has two meters, but only one pump contained within its housing?

Single dispensing, single product

Dual dispensing, single product

Single dispensing, dual product

Dual dispensing, dual product

401

Explanation

401

8. During type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad"?

Fuels operator

Operations supervisor

Hot refueling crewman

Hot refueling supervisor

406

Explanation

406

9. During receipt operations, danger signs should be placed how far in fron and to the rear of a tank truck when offloading in an unsecure area?

25 feet to the front and to the rear

25 feet ot the front, 50 feet to the rear

50 feet to the front and to the rear

50 feet to the front, 100 feet to the rear

406

Explanation

406

10. The AF Form 1231 is prepared to cover the 24-hour duty day that runs from

2400 to 2400

0600 to 0600

0800 to 0800

0900 to 0900

406

Explanation

406

11. How many times can the memory chip in the vehicle identification link (VIL) be encoded or revised by fuels management?

1,000

5,000

10,000

15,000

401

Explanation

401

12. For safe dispersal of fuel vapors, how many feet must an automotive fuel storage tank vent pipe placed next to a building extend above the roof line?

4

3

2

1

401

Explanation

401

13. Operation of the product recovery system and the water drain system will be constantly attended by a qualified fuels operator and/or

Utilities personnel

Contract maintenance personnel

Preventive maintenance technician

Water fuels maintenance technician

406

Explanation

406

14. How many slectable fuel product pumps does each master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) have the capacity to control?

2

4

6

8

401

Explanation

401

15. Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts?

Appropriate quality assurance representative (QAR)

Company who shipped the product

Base fuels laboratory personnel

Area laboratory personnel

402

Explanation

402

16. Tank gauge readings are entered on the DESC Form 700 in feet, inches, and

1/8-inch fractions for fuel and water

1/4-inch fractions for fuel and water

1/8-inch fractions for fuel and 1/4-inch fractions for water

1/4-inch fractions for fuel and 1/8-inch fractions for water

411

Explanation

411

17. Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with

Local and state environmental guidelines

State and federal environmental guidelines

Local, state, and federal environmental guidelines

State, federal, and international environmental laws and regulations

406

Explanation

406

18. Heat can be transferred in cryotainers by

Conduction, convection, and radiation

Convection, radiation, and vaporization

Conduction, radiation, and vaporization

Conduction, convection, and vaporization

412

Explanation

412

19. What mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving strainer?

20

40

60

80

403

Explanation

403

20. What is the difference between the motors used in the self-contained single dispensing and dual dispensing units?

Single dispensing motors have direct drive

Single dispensing motors use lower voltage

Dual dispensing motors have a higher flow rate

Dual dispensing motors have a higher horsepower rating

401

Explanation

401

21. How many fuel dispensing pumps will one master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) and a maximum of eight satellite vehicle identification readers (SVIR) control?

60

72

96

108

401

Explanation

401

22. Which of the following components is used to relieve excessive pressure in the inner tank of a cryotainer?

Safety disc

Rupture disc

Release valve

Discharge valve

412

Explanation

412

23. When manually gauging a tank for temperature, how many minutes must the thermometer be left in the fuel to ensure an accurate temperature reading?

3

4

5

6

409

Explanation

409

24. When using the DESC Form 1233 to record transfers, draw a lint through the words "UNIT NO." in the issues section and write

"TRF NO." in the space above

"TANK NO." in the space below

"TRANSFERS" in the block below

"TRF TO TK NO." in the space above

406

Explanation

406

25. Which service station pumping system has a higher delivery rate?

Submerged pump

Suction pump

Dual dispensing, single product

Single dispensing, single product

401

Explanation

401

26. Which component records all of the transaction data for a service station issue?

Pedestal

Vehicle identification link (VIL)

Master vehicle identification reader (MVIR)

Satellite vehicle identification reader (SVIR)

402

Explanation

402

27. On the type III hydrant system, what will make the automatic bypass valve open and let fuel bypass the filter separator when receiving fuel by cross-country pipeline?

Differential pressure (DP) of 20 pounds per square inch (psi) sensed across the receiving filter separator

System pressure when manual valves ar used to route flow around the vessel

System pressure when it exceeds the maximum vessel operating pressure

DP of 30 sensed by the DP switch

403

Explanation

403

28. What is the maximum flow rate of the R-12's defuel pump?

250 gallons per minute (gpm)

300 gpm

450 gpm

600 gpm

406

Explanation

406

29. What type III hydrant system component is flush-mounted on the end wall of the pump control panel, is completely solid-state with no moving parts, and indicates an emergency is occuring?

Resonating horn

High-level alarm

Alarm annunciator

Low-level indicator alarm

403

Explanation

403

30. The effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump depends on the

Size of the cryotainer

Temperature within the annular space

Circular motion of the shaft and pistons

Oil seal between the piston and inside casting of the pump chambers

416

Explanation

416

31. When using the type IV hydrant system, how many aircraft (depending on the type) can be hot refueled simultaneously in about 8 to 12 minutes?

One

Two

Three

Four

404

Explanation

404

32. To what component is the differential pressure transmitter on the type III hydrant system connected?

Venturi

Flow switch

Orifice plate

Filter separator

403

Explanation

403

33. What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers?

Quantity and vacuum

Pressure and quantity

Differential and vacuum

Differential and pressure

412

Explanation

412

34. On the type III hydrant system, the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve is located on an aboveground operating storage tank on the

Top of the tank in the float well

Top of the tank in the gauging well

Interior of the tank at the required shut-off height

Exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height

403

Explanation

403

35. What type of valve is found on the suction line in the self-contained storage tank?

Foot

Check

Pressure relief

Hydraulic pressure

401

Explanation

401

36. What type of gauging device is normally used to manually gauge service station tanks, and what are the increments of measurements used on this gauging device?

Stick gauge; 1/16th inch

Tape and bob; 1/16th inch

Stick gauge; 1/8 inch

Tape and bob; 1/8 inch

401

Explanation

401

37. On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the "hot pad" should a hose separate from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

A dry break coupler located inside the hose will close automatically

The flow switch will sense a sudden surge in fuel flow, shutting down the pumps

The pressure switch will sense a sudden drop in pressure, shutting down the pumps

The fusible link melts and falls out, causing the spring-loaded "butterfly" part of the valve to close

404

Explanation

404

38. What type of insulation is used in the annular space of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose?

Perlite

Santocel

Fiberglass

Glass wool

412

Explanation

412

39. Who should be contacted if the DD Form 250, Bill of Lading, or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a tank truck?

Quality assurance representative (QAR)

Defense energy support center (DESC)

Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPET)

Major command (MAJCOM)

406

Explanation

406

40. If the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation, the

Horn will sound

Valve will close automatically

Upstream butterfly valve will close

Downstream butterfly valve will close

403

Explanation

403

41. Who is responsible for comparing the quantities transferred/received on an AF Form 834 and entering the gain (loss) on the receipt form?

Fuels distribution supervisor

Fuels service center (FSC)

Hydrants supervisor

Hydrant operator

406

Explanation

406

42. Type III, IV, and V hydrant should ve flushed

Monthly

Quarterly

Semiannually

Annually

406

Explanation

406

43. When emptying through the bottom-loading valve of a mobile refueling unit, what must be activated until the fuel level drops below the float valve reservoir?

Pretest button

Override button

Vent control valve

Bottom loading valve

406

Explanation

406

44. How many days (minimum) can the battery in the type III hydrant system maintain the microprocessor's memory?

10

20

30

40

403

Explanation

403

45. How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system and how many gallons will each hold?

Two; 10,000

Four; 10,000

Two; 50,000

Four; 50,000

404

Explanation

404

46. On the type III hydrant system, the light emitting diode (LED) in the battery backup system in each microprocessor will indicate a problem at least how many days in advance before the battey becomes weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory?

1

3

5

7

403

Explanation

403

47. When should the Fuels Management Flight Commander (FMFC) and fuels manager/superintendent review the AFTO Form 39?

Daily

Weekly

Monthly

Quarterly

408

Explanation

408

48. When performing a weekly hydrant system static pressure test, for how long should the system by monitored?

30 minutes

60 minutes

90 minutes

120 minutes

407

Explanation

407

49. The purpose of the lock-out key used on the type III hydrant system is to

Switch the system off for maintenance

Prevent a certain fueling pump from starting

Transfer control from one microprocessor to the other

Keep the back pressure control valve from relieving pressure

403

Explanation

403

50. An entry is required in columns J (TIME IN), and K (TIME OUT) on the AF Form 1231 for products received by

Pipeline

Tank truck

Tanker/barge

Shipment from another AF base

406

Explanation

406

51. What type of valve does the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) require to be installed in the supply line at the base of each individual dispensing device?

Foot

Check

Hydraulic control

Emergency shutoff

401

Explanation

401

52. Which of the following types of strainers should be inspected for damage and cleanliness semiannually?

Fillstand line strainers

Pipeline receipt strainers

Tank truck receipt strainers

Hydrant pumphouse inlet strainers

407

Explanation

407

53. Liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tanks should be purged every how many days?

90

120

240

365

416

Explanation

416

54. The measurement probe on an automated tank gauging (ATG) system senses pressure from the fuel surrounding it and sends the pressure reading to the

Tank control unit

Temperature sensor

Remote terminal unit

Remote terminal workstation

410

Explanation

410

55. When flushing type III, IV, and V hydrant systems, when should a visual sample be drawn on the return line?

At the beginning of the flushing operations

At the midpoint of the flushing operations

At the completion of the flushing operations

At the beginning, midpoint, and completion of flushing operations

406

Explanation

406

56. Fuels management and base CE/LFM personnel develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the

Type of system

Rated capacity of the system

Type of system and number of control valves in the system

Rated capacity of the system and the number of control valves in the system

406

Explanation

406

57. Who, together with the fuels management team (FMT), will ensure every effort is made to properly schedule the maximum use of hydrant systems to preclude flushing?

Wing commander

Logistics group only

Operations group only

Operations and logistics groups

406

Explanation

406

58. Odor will be most prevalent on an odor test for liquid oxygen (LOX) after the

Initial sample is taken

Beaker has warmed to nearly room temperature

Sample has boiled off and there is frost left on the beaker

Beaker has been allowed to warm up to room temperature

415

Explanation

415

59. The fueling control valve on the type IV hydrant system is opened to perform hot refueling operations by

A flow switch located before the control pit

Air pressure from the deadman control valve

Fuel pressure from the deadman control valve

A pressure switch located before the control pit

406

Explanation

406

60. What is the rated capacity of the pumps on the type IV hydrant system?

300 gallons per minute (gpm)

600 gpm

900 gpm

1,200 gpm

404

Explanation

404

61. How many storage tanks for each product would be used at an automotive service station that offers motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel?

1

2

3

4

401

Explanation

401

62. What is the best way to slow down the heat transfer by convection in a cryotainer?

Purge the inner tank

Remove the air from the inner tank

Fill the annular space with insulation

Remove the air from the annular space

412

Explanation

412

63. Who is responsible for completing the "Maintenance Status" column on page 2 of the AFTO Form 39?

Utilities personnel

Vehicle maintenance personnel

Refueling maintenance personnel

Water fuels maintenance personnel

408

Explanation

408

64. What symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to represent an unsatisfactory condition exists, but it is not dangerous enough to warrant not using the equipment?

Red X

Red dash

Red circle

Red diagonal

417

Explanation

417

65. How many differential pressure transmitters are installed on the issue line of the type III hydrant system with a refueling capability of more than 2,400 gallons per minute (gpm)?

Two

Four

Six

Eight

403

Explanation

403

66. On the type III hydrant system, what size is the hydrant control valve that is designed for a flow rate of 600 gallons per minute (gpm)?

4 inches

6 inches

8 inches

10 inches

403

Explanation

403

67. Since the type V hydrant system is not required to be manned when it is being operated, inspections are performed every

Hour

2 hour

3 hours

4 hours

405

Explanation

405

68. When the product recovery tank on the type III hydrant system is 70 percent full, the

Float assembly closes the inlet valve

Switch assembly automatically turns the pump on

Float assembly closes the high-level shut-off valve

Switch assembly senses an emergency condition and shuts down the system

403

Explanation

403

69. Which condition will cause the vibrating horn to sound on the type III hydrant system?

System engine generator default

For refueling pumps running at the same time

Manual valve closed on the product recovery tank

Hydrant servicing vehicle flow control valve inoperative

403

Explanation

403

70. The visual sample is obtained on a motor gasoline (MOGAS) transporter with no access to sampling hatches approximately

1 minute after the line fill has been displaced

2 minutes after the line fill has been displaced

1 minute before the line fill has been displaced

2 minutes before the line fill has been displaced

402

Explanation

402

71. What will happen if the return venturi on the type III hydrant system senses a flow rate of 700 gallons per minute (gpm) for a continuous interval of 15 seconds when fuel is being pumped at a flow rate of 1,200 gpm?

One pump will stop

One pump will start

Two pumps will stop

Two pumps will start

406

Explanation

406

72. On the type III hydrant system, at what pressure will the control system start the lead pump when the system is in the automatic mode in an idle condition?

60 pounds per square inch (psi)

75 psi

130 psi

145 psi

406

Explanation

406

73. How many gallons will a TMU-20/E cryotainer hold?

50

400

2,000

5,000

412

Explanation

412

74. At a minimum, the measurement probe on an automated tank gauging (ATG) system has how many measurement points?

2

3

4

6

410

Explanation

410

75. What two valves on the type III hydrant system bleed the pressure down to 75 pounds per square inch (psi) when the lead pump stops?

Bypass and defuel/flush

Bypass and pressure control

Pressure control and defuel/flush

Pressure control and hydrant control

406

Explanation

406

76. When emptying a mobile refueling unit into aboveground tanks, perform this operation

By gravity flow

Using a PMU-27M

Using the unit's pump only

Using the offloading pumps

406

Explanation

406

77. What symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245 represents a required special inspection is due?

Red X

Red dash

Red circle

Red diagonal

417

Explanation

417

78. Pressure gauges shall be calibrated

Monthly

Quarterly

Semiannually

Annually

413

Explanation

413

79. Who may approve leaving fueling unit engines running during fillstand operations?

MAJCOM fuels officer

Wing commander

Squadron commander

Fuels management team (FMT)

406

Explanation

406

80. An entry is required in columns B (STICK/METER BEFORE) and C (STICK/METER AFTER) on the AF Form 1231 for products received by tank car or tank truck when

A discrepancy exists that requires gauging

The fuel is received from different sources

More than two tank car/trucks are received at the same time

A written agreement between the contractor and fuels office is on file

406

Explanation

406

81. On the type III hydrant system, which filter separator control valve function will prevent the elements from bursting and allowing contaminated fuel downstream?

Check valve

Flow control

Water slug valve

Maximum differential pressure shutoff

403

Explanation

403

82. The Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245 is an extension of what part of the AFTO Form 244?

II

III

IV

V

417

Explanation

417

83. On the type III hydrant system, how many differntual pressure transmitters are connected to the 4-inch return venturi tube?

Two

Four

Six

Eight

403

Explanation

403

84. A separate DESC Form 1233 may be maintained for each fillstand meter at the discretion of the

Fillstand attendent

Fuels Operations Superintendent

Fuels Management Team

Squadron Commander

406

Explanation

406

85. Where does the type III hydrant system pressure indicator transmitter sense atmospheric pressure?

Issue line

Return line

Issue venturi

Return venturi

403

Explanation

403

86. The purpose of the dampener tank is to protect the

Quantity gauge on the cryotainer from damage

Cryotainer from being damaged during receipts

Lines from rupturing from excessive pressure buildup

Inner tank from over pressurization from liquid boil off

412

Explanation

412

87. Strainers equipped with a differential pressure (DP) gauge should be inspected and cleaned when the DP reading reaches what pressure?

5 psi

10 psi

15 psi

20 psi

407

Explanation

407

88. On the type V hydrant system, what size (in inches) are the stainless steel pantographs installed inside the hardened shelters?

3

4

5

6

405

Explanation

405

89. How long will the fueling pumps on the type III hydrant system operate if the control circuit is not closed, and what component closes the circuit?

5 seconds; solenoid

5 seconds; flow switch

10 seconds; solenoid

10 seconds; flow switch

403

Explanation

403

90. For how many weeks is the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 134 kept after it is filled in completely?

1

2

3

4

417

Explanation

417

91. The specific time interval between supervisor reviews of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 may be determined by the

Wing commander

Squadron commander

Major command (MAJCOM)

Fuels management flight commander (FMFC)

417

Explanation

417

92. The back-pressure control valve in the type III hydrant system will close at what hydrant loop flow rate?

130 gallons per minute (gpm)

300 gpm

600 gpm

700 gpm

403

Explanation

403

93. What form serves as a record for all issues from and returns to bulk?

DESC Form 1233

AF Form 1235

AF Form 1233

DESC Form 1235

406

Explanation

406

94. What AF Form is used to document liquid oxygen (LOX) and liquid nitrogen (LIN) inventories?

1231

1233

1235

1237

417

Explanation

417

95. In what section of the DESC Form 1233 are returns to bulk recorded?

Issues

Reconciliation

Net issues from bulk

Fueling unti summary

406

Explanation

406

96. Which valve(s) on the type III hydrant system will modulate open, allowing the fuel to pass through when returning to the operating tanks during a defuel operation?

Defuel/flush only

Back pressure control only

Pressure control and defuel/flush

Pressure control and back pressure control

406

Explanation

406

97. Which procedure is only accomplished during a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt?

Test for odor

Monitor the transfer for leaks

Check the Department of Defense (DD) Form 250

Ensure ther is sufficient ullage in the receiving tank

414

Explanation

414

Vehicle Identification Reader (Vir) Quiz Questions & Answers

1. What is the maximum time interval permitted by a vehicle identification reader (VIR) in which to make a pump selection?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. A heavy freeze spot on the outer hose of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose indicates

3. When receiving fuel at the service station, the quantity shown as shipped will be accepted as the quantity received provided

4. When manually gauging a tank, where should fuel-finding paste be applied to the steel tape?

5. An underwriter-approved vent cap is required for a vent line to

6. When obtaining product measurement readings with an automated tank gauging (ATG), what key on the tank control unit is used to access the main menu?

7. What type of dispensing unit has two meters, but only one pump contained within its housing?

8. During type IV hydrant system operations, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the "hot pad"?

9. During receipt operations, danger signs should be placed how far in fron and to the rear of a tank truck when offloading in an unsecure area?

10. The AF Form 1231 is prepared to cover the 24-hour duty day that runs from

11. How many times can the memory chip in the vehicle identification link (VIL) be encoded or revised by fuels management?

12. For safe dispersal of fuel vapors, how many feet must an automotive fuel storage tank vent pipe placed next to a building extend above the roof line?

13. Operation of the product recovery system and the water drain system will be constantly attended by a qualified fuels operator and/or

14. How many slectable fuel product pumps does each master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) have the capacity to control?

15. Who must be notified for product disposition if excessive contamination is detected in motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel receipts?

16. Tank gauge readings are entered on the DESC Form 700 in feet, inches, and

17. Fuel/water mixtures from product recovery systems should be disposed of in accordance with

18. Heat can be transferred in cryotainers by

19. What mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving strainer?

20. What is the difference between the motors used in the self-contained single dispensing and dual dispensing units?

21. How many fuel dispensing pumps will one master vehicle identification reader (MVIR) and a maximum of eight satellite vehicle identification readers (SVIR) control?

22. Which of the following components is used to relieve excessive pressure in the inner tank of a cryotainer?

23. When manually gauging a tank for temperature, how many minutes must the thermometer be left in the fuel to ensure an accurate temperature reading?

24. When using the DESC Form 1233 to record transfers, draw a lint through the words "UNIT NO." in the issues section and write

25. Which service station pumping system has a higher delivery rate?

26. Which component records all of the transaction data for a service station issue?

27. On the type III hydrant system, what will make the automatic bypass valve open and let fuel bypass the filter separator when receiving fuel by cross-country pipeline?

28. What is the maximum flow rate of the R-12's defuel pump?

29. What type III hydrant system component is flush-mounted on the end wall of the pump control panel, is completely solid-state with no moving parts, and indicates an emergency is occuring?

30. The effectiveness of the high-vacuum pump depends on the

31. When using the type IV hydrant system, how many aircraft (depending on the type) can be hot refueled simultaneously in about 8 to 12 minutes?

32. To what component is the differential pressure transmitter on the type III hydrant system connected?

33. What two gauges are permanently installed on cryotainers?

34. On the type III hydrant system, the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve is located on an aboveground operating storage tank on the

35. What type of valve is found on the suction line in the self-contained storage tank?

36. What type of gauging device is normally used to manually gauge service station tanks, and what are the increments of measurements used on this gauging device?

37. On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the "hot pad" should a hose separate from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

38. What type of insulation is used in the annular space of a liquid oxygen/liquid nitrogen (LOX/LIN) transfer hose?

39. Who should be contacted if the DD Form 250, Bill of Lading, or contractor delivery ticket is not available upon arrival of a tank truck?

40. If the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation, the

41. Who is responsible for comparing the quantities transferred/received on an AF Form 834 and entering the gain (loss) on the receipt form?

42. Type III, IV, and V hydrant should ve flushed

43. When emptying through the bottom-loading valve of a mobile refueling unit, what must be activated until the fuel level drops below the float valve reservoir?

44. How many days (minimum) can the battery in the type III hydrant system maintain the microprocessor's memory?

45. How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system and how many gallons will each hold?

46. On the type III hydrant system, the light emitting diode (LED) in the battery backup system in each microprocessor will indicate a problem at least how many days in advance before the battey becomes weak enough to jeopardize the integrity of the memory?

47. When should the Fuels Management Flight Commander (FMFC) and fuels manager/superintendent review the AFTO Form 39?

48. When performing a weekly hydrant system static pressure test, for how long should the system by monitored?

49. The purpose of the lock-out key used on the type III hydrant system is to

50. An entry is required in columns J (TIME IN), and K (TIME OUT) on the AF Form 1231 for products received by

51. What type of valve does the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) require to be installed in the supply line at the base of each individual dispensing device?

52. Which of the following types of strainers should be inspected for damage and cleanliness semiannually?

53. Liquid oxygen (LOX) storage tanks should be purged every how many days?

54. The measurement probe on an automated tank gauging (ATG) system senses pressure from the fuel surrounding it and sends the pressure reading to the

55. When flushing type III, IV, and V hydrant systems, when should a visual sample be drawn on the return line?

56. Fuels management and base CE/LFM personnel develop specific operating instructions for hydrant system flushing based on the

57. Who, together with the fuels management team (FMT), will ensure every effort is made to properly schedule the maximum use of hydrant systems to preclude flushing?

58. Odor will be most prevalent on an odor test for liquid oxygen (LOX) after the

59. The fueling control valve on the type IV hydrant system is opened to perform hot refueling operations by

60. What is the rated capacity of the pumps on the type IV hydrant system?

61. How many storage tanks for each product would be used at an automotive service station that offers motor gasoline (MOGAS) and diesel fuel?

62. What is the best way to slow down the heat transfer by convection in a cryotainer?

63. Who is responsible for completing the "Maintenance Status" column on page 2 of the AFTO Form 39?

64. What symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to represent an unsatisfactory condition exists, but it is not dangerous enough to warrant not using the equipment?

65. How many differential pressure transmitters are installed on the issue line of the type III hydrant system with a refueling capability of more than 2,400 gallons per minute (gpm)?

66. On the type III hydrant system, what size is the hydrant control valve that is designed for a flow rate of 600 gallons per minute (gpm)?

67. Since the type V hydrant system is not required to be manned when it is being operated, inspections are performed every

68. When the product recovery tank on the type III hydrant system is 70 percent full, the

69. Which condition will cause the vibrating horn to sound on the type III hydrant system?

70. The visual sample is obtained on a motor gasoline (MOGAS) transporter with no access to sampling hatches approximately

71. What will happen if the return venturi on the type III hydrant system senses a flow rate of 700 gallons per minute (gpm) for a continuous interval of 15 seconds when fuel is being pumped at a flow rate of 1,200 gpm?

72. On the type III hydrant system, at what pressure will the control system start the lead pump when the system is in the automatic mode in an idle condition?

73. How many gallons will a TMU-20/E cryotainer hold?

74. At a minimum, the measurement probe on an automated tank gauging (ATG) system has how many measurement points?

75. What two valves on the type III hydrant system bleed the pressure down to 75 pounds per square inch (psi) when the lead pump stops?

76. When emptying a mobile refueling unit into aboveground tanks, perform this operation

77. What symbol on the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 245 represents a required special inspection is due?