1.
A lesion to what nerve will cause the eye to assume a down and out (exotropia) position?
Correct Answer
B. Oculomotor (III)
Explanation
A lesion to the Oculomotor (III) nerve will cause the eye to assume a down and out (exotropia) position. The Oculomotor nerve controls the movement of the eye muscles, including the superior rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in weakness or paralysis of these muscles, leading to the eye deviating downward and outward.
2.
The function of this nerve is to turn the eye down and out
Correct Answer
B. Trochlear (IV)
Explanation
The trochlear nerve (IV) is responsible for the function of turning the eye down and out. This nerve innervates the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for these movements. The oculomotor nerve (III) controls most of the other eye movements, while the abducens nerve (VI) controls abduction of the eye (moving it laterally). Therefore, the trochlear nerve is the correct answer for this specific function.
3.
This type of vision allows for detailed recognition of faces, symbols, objects, and locations.
Correct Answer
B. Focal Vision
Explanation
Focal vision refers to the ability to focus on specific details and recognize them with clarity. This type of vision allows for the detailed recognition of faces, symbols, objects, and locations. It is the type of vision that we use when we need to see something clearly and in detail, such as when reading or identifying specific objects. Focal vision is different from ambient vision, which is the ability to perceive the overall environment and detect movement and general shapes.
4.
The anterior visual system controls
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The anterior visual system controls the eye, optic nerve, and optic chiasm. The eye is responsible for receiving visual information, while the optic nerve carries this information from the eye to the brain. The optic chiasm is a crucial structure where the optic nerves from both eyes cross over, allowing for the integration of visual information from both sides of the visual field. Therefore, all of the options mentioned (eye, optic nerve, and optic chiasm) are controlled by the anterior visual system.
5.
The central system consists of the anterior visual system and the posterior visual system.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that the central system indeed consists of two components, namely the anterior visual system and the posterior visual system. These systems are responsible for processing visual information and transmitting it to the brain for interpretation. The anterior visual system includes the cornea, lens, and retina, while the posterior visual system includes the optic nerve, optic chiasm, and visual cortex. Therefore, it is true that the central system comprises both the anterior and posterior visual systems.
6.
The peripheral system consists of the anterior visual system and the cranial nerves.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement is false because the peripheral system does not consist of the anterior visual system and the cranial nerves. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) includes all the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord, while the anterior visual system refers to the structures involved in vision at the front of the eye. The cranial nerves are a part of the PNS, but they do not solely make up the peripheral system.
7.
Focal/Ambient integration allows
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
Focal/Ambient integration allows for the integration of both focused and background information, which is beneficial for various activities such as reading and writing, listening, and sports performance. This integration helps individuals to effectively process and utilize information from both focal and ambient sources, enhancing their performance and understanding in these activities. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."
8.
The oculomotor nerve innervates all muscles except the superior oblique and lateral rectus.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The oculomotor nerve is responsible for innervating most of the muscles that control eye movement. It supplies the superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, and inferior oblique muscles, allowing for vertical and medial eye movements. However, it does not innervate the superior oblique muscle, which is instead innervated by the trochlear nerve, or the lateral rectus muscle, which is innervated by the abducens nerve. Therefore, the statement that the oculomotor nerve innervates all muscles except the superior oblique and lateral rectus is true.
9.
A lesion to the oculomotor nerve will cause (choose all that apply)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Extropia
B. Ptosis
C. Ocular instability
E. Inability to accomodate
Explanation
A lesion to the oculomotor nerve can cause various symptoms including extropia (outward deviation of the eye), ptosis (drooping of the eyelid), ocular instability (unsteady eye movements), and inability to accommodate (difficulty in focusing on objects at different distances). These symptoms occur because the oculomotor nerve controls the movement of the eye muscles and the muscles responsible for opening the eyelid. Additionally, it also controls the muscles that change the shape of the lens in the eye to allow for accommodation.
10.
A lesion on the trochlear nerve will cause the eye to assume a downward posture.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
A lesion on the trochlear nerve will not cause the eye to assume a downward posture. The trochlear nerve is responsible for the movement of the superior oblique muscle, which primarily controls downward and inward eye movements. Therefore, a lesion on the trochlear nerve would result in difficulty moving the eye downward, rather than causing a downward posture.
11.
This nerve's function is to rotate the eye outward. Damage to this nerve will result in the eye assuming medial position.
Correct Answer
C. Abducens nerve
Explanation
The abducens nerve is responsible for rotating the eye outward, away from the midline of the body. Damage to this nerve would affect its ability to control the muscles that move the eye laterally, causing the eye to assume a medial position instead.
12.
An opthalmologist believes in therapy to address visual dysfunction related to neurological involvement.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement suggests that an ophthalmologist believes in using therapy to treat visual dysfunction caused by neurological issues. However, this is not true. While an ophthalmologist may diagnose and treat eye-related conditions, they typically refer patients with neurological involvement to a neurologist or other specialists who are trained to address the underlying neurological causes. Therefore, the correct answer is false.
13.
An occupational therapy visual assessment includes
Correct Answer(s)
A. Visual history
B. Visual acuity
C. Binocular visual skills
D. Visual fields
E. Inattention
Explanation
An occupational therapy visual assessment includes various components that evaluate different aspects of visual function. Visual history involves gathering information about the individual's visual experiences and any existing visual problems. Visual acuity measures the clarity of vision, while binocular visual skills assess the coordination and alignment of both eyes. Visual fields determine the extent of an individual's peripheral vision. Lastly, inattention refers to the assessment of the individual's ability to sustain attention and focus on visual tasks. All of these components together help in understanding and addressing visual impairments and their impact on daily activities.
14.
Partial or complete graying of the lens with a progressive, painless loss of vision is caused by
Correct Answer
B. Cataracts
Explanation
Cataracts cause a partial or complete graying of the lens, leading to a progressive and painless loss of vision. This condition occurs when the proteins in the lens of the eye clump together, causing cloudiness and opacity. As the cataract progresses, it can significantly impair vision and may require surgical intervention to remove the affected lens and replace it with an artificial one. Glaucoma, macular degeneration, and diabetic retinopathy are different conditions that can also cause vision loss, but they are not specifically associated with the graying of the lens seen in cataracts.
15.
Slight to absolute loss of vision due to increased intraocular pressure is caused by
Correct Answer
A. Glaucoma
Explanation
Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, which can lead to a gradual loss of vision. This increased pressure damages the optic nerve, resulting in a gradual loss of peripheral vision that can progress to complete blindness if left untreated. Cataracts, macular degeneration, and diabetic retinopathy can also cause vision loss, but they are not specifically associated with increased intraocular pressure like glaucoma. Therefore, glaucoma is the correct answer in this case.
16.
Mary is a 65 year old woman with a history of hypertension and diabetes. She has recently experienced loss of her central vision and relies on her peripheral vision to see. Mary most likely suffers from
Correct Answer
D. Diabetic retinopathy
Explanation
Mary is a 65-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and diabetes. Her recent loss of central vision and reliance on peripheral vision suggest that she most likely suffers from diabetic retinopathy. This condition is a complication of diabetes that affects the blood vessels in the retina, leading to vision loss. Glaucoma, cataracts, and macular degeneration may also cause vision problems, but given Mary's medical history, diabetic retinopathy is the most likely explanation for her symptoms.
17.
Macular degeneration is the leading cause of low vision among middle aged adults.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Macular degeneration is a common eye condition that primarily affects older adults, particularly those over the age of 50. It is the leading cause of vision loss in older adults, not middle-aged adults. Therefore, the statement that macular degeneration is the leading cause of low vision among middle-aged adults is false.
18.
A visual acuity score of 20/40 means that the individual tested can see
Correct Answer
B. At 20 feet what a typical person sees at 40 feet from the chart
Explanation
A visual acuity score of 20/40 indicates that the individual being tested can see at 20 feet what a typical person with normal vision can see at 40 feet from the chart. This means that their visual acuity is slightly worse than average, as they need to be closer to see the same level of detail as someone with normal vision would see at a farther distance.
19.
This visual acuity test would be appropriate for individuals ages 6 years through adulthood
Correct Answer
C. Snellen chart
Explanation
The Snellen chart is a visual acuity test that measures a person's ability to see small details at a specific distance. It consists of rows of letters or symbols in varying sizes, and the person being tested is asked to read the smallest line they can see clearly. This test is commonly used in eye clinics and is suitable for individuals aged 6 years and above, making it an appropriate choice for the given age range mentioned in the question.
20.
The functional implications of visual acuity are (choose all that apply)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Reading
B. ADL
C. Environmental negotiation
Explanation
Visual acuity refers to the ability to see details and distinguish objects clearly. Reading requires good visual acuity as it involves focusing on small letters and words. Activities of daily living (ADL) such as cooking, dressing, and grooming also rely on visual acuity to perform tasks accurately. Environmental negotiation refers to the ability to navigate and interact with the surroundings, which requires clear vision. However, sleeping does not involve visual acuity as it is a state of rest where the eyes are typically closed.
21.
When testing visual acuity, binocular vision should be tested before monocular vision
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
When testing visual acuity, it is important to test monocular vision before binocular vision. This is because monocular vision allows each eye to be tested individually, which can help identify any vision issues specific to each eye. Testing binocular vision, on the other hand, assesses how well both eyes work together. By testing monocular vision first, any potential problems with each eye can be identified before evaluating how well they function together. Therefore, the statement that binocular vision should be tested before monocular vision is false.
22.
Visual acuity is the last line where ______ or more of the letters were identified correctly
Correct Answer
C. 50%
Explanation
Visual acuity is a measure of the clarity or sharpness of vision. In this context, the statement suggests that the last line of the visual test chart is considered to have the correct visual acuity if at least 50% or more of the letters on that line are identified correctly. This means that the person being tested has a relatively good level of vision if they can correctly identify at least half of the letters on the last line of the chart.
23.
Criteria for the referral is a visual acuity score of 20/40 or poorer, or if there is a greater than 1 line difference between the two eyes.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Greater than 2 line difference.
24.
The ability to change the focus of the eye so that objects at different distances can be seen clearly is
Correct Answer
B. Accommodation
Explanation
Accommodation refers to the ability of the eye to adjust its focus in order to see objects at different distances clearly. This is achieved by changing the shape of the lens to either flatten or thicken it, allowing for proper refraction of light onto the retina. Assimilation refers to the process of incorporating new information into existing knowledge. Dual focus is not a term commonly used in relation to the eye's ability to focus. 20/20 vision refers to normal visual acuity, but it does not specifically address the ability to change focus.
25.
Oculomotor control consists of (choose all that apply)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Saccadic eye movements
D. Smooth pursuit movements
Explanation
Oculomotor control refers to the ability to control eye movements. Saccadic eye movements are rapid, jerky movements that allow the eyes to quickly shift from one point of focus to another. Smooth pursuit movements, on the other hand, are slower and more fluid eye movements that allow the eyes to track moving objects smoothly. Therefore, both saccadic eye movements and smooth pursuit movements are part of oculomotor control. Extropia, which is a form of strabismus where the eyes turn outward, and blinking, which is a reflexive action to moisten and protect the eyes, are not directly related to oculomotor control.
26.
The ability to locate, fixate, and maintain eyes on targets in ll visual fields at both near and far distances is
Correct Answer
B. Visual fixation
Explanation
Visual fixation refers to the ability to locate, fixate, and maintain the eyes on targets in all visual fields at both near and far distances. It involves the coordination of eye movements to keep the gaze steady on a specific target. This ability is essential for clear and focused vision, as it allows the eyes to accurately track and follow objects of interest. Visual fixation is a fundamental aspect of visual perception and is necessary for activities such as reading, driving, and maintaining attention on a specific point in space.
27.
The functional implications of accommodation are
Correct Answer(s)
A. Focusing from one distance to another
B. Copying from the blackboard
C. Looking at a clock while engaged in a nearpoint task
D. Driving
Explanation
Accommodation refers to the ability of the eye to adjust its focus from near to far distances. This adjustment is necessary for tasks such as focusing from one distance to another, copying from the blackboard, looking at a clock while engaged in a nearpoint task, driving, and cooking. In these activities, the eye needs to constantly change its focus to see objects clearly at different distances.
28.
Functional implications of oculomotor skills include
Correct Answer(s)
A. Reading
B. Tracking
C. Maintaining balance
D. Scanning in community
Explanation
The functional implications of oculomotor skills include various activities such as reading, tracking, maintaining balance, and scanning in the community. Oculomotor skills are essential for reading as they involve the coordinated movement of the eyes to follow and track lines of text. These skills also play a role in maintaining balance, as the eyes help to provide visual cues that aid in balance and spatial orientation. Additionally, oculomotor skills are important for scanning in the community, allowing individuals to visually explore their surroundings and gather information.
29.
The eyes smoothly following objects in space (maintaining fixation) in all directions while the head is held steady is
Correct Answer
B. Pursuits
Explanation
Pursuits refer to the smooth tracking of objects in space while maintaining fixation. This means that the eyes are able to smoothly follow objects in all directions while the head remains steady. Pursuits are different from saccades, which are rapid eye movements used to shift focus between different objects or points of interest. Chases, on the other hand, do not accurately describe the action of smoothly following objects in space. Therefore, the correct answer is Pursuits.
30.
To perform a pursuits test you need only a target and an eyepatch.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
A pursuits test is a type of eye examination that assesses eye movement and coordination. During this test, a target is moved in different directions, and the person being tested is required to track the target with their eyes. An eyepatch is used to cover one eye, forcing the person to rely solely on the other eye for tracking the target. Therefore, the statement that you only need a target and an eyepatch to perform a pursuits test is true.
31.
When performing a pursuits test you should
Correct Answer(s)
A. Place target 16 inches from patient's eyes
B. Move target in H, X, O patterns
C. Direct patient to follow target with eyes only
D. Direct patient to keep head still if movement is noted
Explanation
When performing a pursuits test, the target should be placed 16 inches from the patient's eyes. The target should be moved in H, X, O patterns to assess the patient's ability to smoothly track the target. The patient should be instructed to follow the target with their eyes only, without moving their head. If any movement is noted, the patient should be directed to keep their head still. The test should be performed binocularly, meaning both eyes are used together.
32.
When interpreting pursuits you should note
Correct Answer
D. A&B only.
Explanation
When interpreting pursuits, you should note the visual attention span and abnormal jerky eye movements. These two factors are important in understanding the individual's ability to track and follow objects with their eyes. Eye color, on the other hand, does not play a significant role in interpreting pursuits. Therefore, the correct answer is A&B only.
33.
A test of sequenced rapid eye movements that change the line of sight is
Correct Answer
C. Saccades
Explanation
Saccades are rapid eye movements that help shift the line of sight from one point to another. They are crucial for scanning the environment and focusing on different objects. Nystagmus, on the other hand, refers to involuntary eye movements that can cause the eyes to shake or jerk. Pursuits are smooth eye movements used to track a moving object. Visual acuity is a measure of the clarity of vision. Therefore, the correct answer is saccades, as they specifically involve rapid eye movements that change the line of sight.
34.
Saccades testing procedure involves holding a red and blue target 10 inches apart and 16-20 inches from the patient's nose and directing the patient to
Correct Answer
D. Look at each target on command
Explanation
The correct answer is "look at each target on command" because the saccades testing procedure involves the patient looking at each target separately when instructed to do so. This helps assess the patient's ability to rapidly shift their gaze between different points. The other options either involve focusing on one target only or not following the instructions correctly.
35.
The ability of the eyes to process one visual image from both eyes is known as
Correct Answer
C. Binocular visual skills
Explanation
Binocular visual skills refer to the ability of the eyes to work together and process one visual image from both eyes. This includes the coordination of eye movements, depth perception, and the merging of two slightly different images from each eye into a single, three-dimensional perception. Convergence and accommodation are specific aspects of binocular vision, while monocular vision refers to the ability to see with only one eye.
36.
Functional implications of sensory fusion dysfunction include
Correct Answer(s)
A. Double vision or shadows around objects
B. Poor balance
D. Eye strain
Explanation
The functional implications of sensory fusion dysfunction can cause double vision or shadows around objects, poor balance, and eye strain. This means that individuals with this dysfunction may experience difficulty in perceiving a single, clear image, resulting in seeing multiple images or shadows. They may also have trouble maintaining balance, leading to instability or unsteadiness. Additionally, the strain on the eyes can cause discomfort and fatigue, making it challenging to focus or concentrate on tasks such as reading.
37.
The evaluation of sensory fusion includes all of the following except
Correct Answer
C. Pursuits
Explanation
The evaluation of sensory fusion includes testing various aspects of binocular vision, such as convergence (the ability to turn the eyes inward to focus on a near object), stereopsis (the ability to perceive depth and three-dimensional images), and the corneal reflex (the involuntary blinking response when the cornea is touched). Pursuits, on the other hand, refer to smooth eye movements that track a moving object. While pursuits are a part of the evaluation of eye movements, they are not directly related to sensory fusion.
38.
Symmetrical alignment of the eyes at midline is known as
Correct Answer
C. Ocular alignment
Explanation
Ocular alignment refers to the symmetrical alignment of the eyes at the midline. When the eyes are properly aligned, they are able to work together to provide binocular vision, which is the ability to perceive depth and have clear vision. Accommodation refers to the ability of the eyes to focus on near and far objects. Corneal reflex is a protective reflex that causes the eyes to blink in response to a stimulus. Therefore, the correct answer is ocular alignment.
39.
When using a penlight to test a patient's eyes, you should be aware of seizure precautions.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
When using a penlight to test a patient's eyes, it is important to be aware of seizure precautions because bright lights can potentially trigger a seizure in individuals who are susceptible to them. Seizure precautions involve taking measures to minimize the risk of seizures, such as ensuring a safe environment, avoiding triggers, and being prepared to respond appropriately if a seizure occurs. Therefore, it is essential to be cautious and aware of seizure precautions when using a penlight to test a patient's eyes.
40.
The functional implications of ocular alignment include ADL, community management, driving, and watching television.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
This statement is true because ocular alignment refers to the coordination of both eyes to focus on the same object, which is essential for various daily activities. Activities of daily living (ADL), such as reading and writing, require proper ocular alignment to ensure clear vision. Community management involves social interactions, and having aligned eyes helps in maintaining eye contact and interpreting facial expressions accurately. Driving requires good ocular alignment to judge distances and navigate safely. Watching television also requires proper alignment to fully enjoy the visual content. Therefore, ocular alignment has functional implications for ADL, community management, driving, and watching television.
41.
Select the appropriate equipment needed to perform an ocular alignment exam.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Pen light
D. Maddox rod
Explanation
The pen light and Maddox rod are appropriate equipment for performing an ocular alignment exam. A pen light is used to assess pupillary reflexes, while the Maddox rod is used to evaluate eye alignment and detect any deviations. The other options, such as the Snellen chart, red and blue targets, and near/far phoria cards, are not specifically used for assessing ocular alignment.
42.
When testing corneal reflex, a pen light is held __ inches from the nose and the reflection of light in both pupils if observed. When performing this test, you are looking for __________
Correct Answer
C. 16: symmetry of reflection
Explanation
When testing the corneal reflex, a pen light is held 16 inches from the nose and the reflection of light in both pupils is observed. The correct answer, "16: symmetry of reflection," indicates that during the test, you are looking for a symmetrical reflection of light in both pupils. This means that both pupils should react in the same way and show an equal response to the stimulus of the pen light.
43.
When testing ocular alignment with a Maddox rod, you should test both eyes simultaneously.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
When testing ocular alignment with a Maddox rod, it is not necessary to test both eyes simultaneously. The Maddox rod is a diagnostic tool used to assess the alignment of the eyes by creating a streak of light that appears differently to each eye. To perform the test, the Maddox rod is placed in front of one eye at a time, while the other eye is covered. By comparing the position of the streak of light with a reference point, the examiner can determine if there is any misalignment present. Therefore, the correct answer is false.
44.
When testing ocular alignment with a Maddox rod, holding the rod so the lines are oriented horizontally and produce a vertical line on the card will represent horizontal alignment.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
When testing ocular alignment with a Maddox rod, the rod is held in a way that the lines are oriented horizontally. This causes the light to be diffracted in such a way that it produces a vertical line on the card. Since the Maddox rod is used to assess horizontal alignment, the vertical line on the card indicates that the eyes are horizontally aligned. Therefore, the statement is true.
45.
When interpreting near results of ocular alignment, a referral should be made if
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
A referral should be made if any of the following conditions are present: 10 exophoria or greater, 5 esophoria or greater, or a vertical imbalance of 2 diopeters or greater. This means that if any one of these conditions is observed in the near results of ocular alignment, it is necessary to refer the patient for further evaluation or treatment.
46.
The eyes moving together toward the nose to see objects clearly and/or singly is
Correct Answer
C. Convergence
Explanation
Convergence refers to the coordinated movement of both eyes inward towards the nose, allowing them to focus on objects that are close to the viewer. This movement ensures that the eyes are aligned properly and work together to provide clear and single vision. Fixation refers to the ability to maintain steady focus on a specific object, accommodation refers to the adjustment of the lens to focus on objects at different distances, and extropia refers to a condition where the eyes are misaligned and point outward.
47.
Select the equipment needed to test convergence.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Penlight or target
D. Ruler
E. Reading glasses if worn
Explanation
To test convergence, one would need a penlight or target to focus on, a ruler to measure the distance between the eyes and the target, and reading glasses if worn by the person being tested. The penlight or target helps assess the ability of the eyes to converge and focus on a specific point. The ruler is used to measure the distance between the eyes and the target, which is important in determining the convergence ability. Reading glasses, if worn, should be included to ensure accurate testing results.
48.
When performing the convergence test, you should begin the test by holding the target at a distance which causes the patient to see the target in double.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement is false because when performing the convergence test, the target should be held at a distance that causes the patient to see the target as a single image, not double. The convergence test measures the ability of the eyes to turn inward or converge while focusing on a near object. If the target appears double, it indicates a problem with convergence.
49.
_______ is the distance from the patient's nose where the eyes stop tracking, or when both eyes move laterally, or when the patient sees two targets.
Correct Answer
C. Break point
Explanation
The break point refers to the distance from the patient's nose where the eyes stop tracking, or when both eyes move laterally, or when the patient sees two targets. This is the point at which the patient's eyes can no longer maintain focus or alignment, leading to a disruption in their ability to see clearly.
50.
When interpreting convergence
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation
The given question is about interpreting convergence. The explanation for the correct answer, which is "all of the above," is that when interpreting convergence, the blur point should be within 4-6 inches, the break point should be within 2-4 inches, and the recovery point should be within 6-10 inches. In other words, all three points should fall within their respective ranges for convergence to be properly interpreted.