Trivia Questions Quiz On Air Force Operations, Planning And Execution!

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Trivia Questions Quiz On Air Force Operations, Planning And Execution! - Quiz

The trivia Questions Quiz below is on Air Force Operations, Planning and Execution. The quiz is designed to help you see just how much you know about the duties of officers in the air force and why it is seen as one of the major armed forces. Do give it a shot and see just how much more you will learn. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to the United States values and interests may arise from

    • A.

      Adversaries

    • B.

      Dignitaries

    • C.

      Diplomats

    • D.

      Allies

    Correct Answer
    A. Adversaries
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "adversaries" because challenges and threats to the United States values and interests are more likely to come from those who are opposed to them, rather than from dignitaries, diplomats, or allies who generally share similar values and interests. Adversaries are individuals or groups who actively oppose or compete against the United States, making them the most likely source of challenges and threats.

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  • 2. 

    What are the four basic instruments of national power the US relies on for its security?

    • A.

      Informational, strategic, diplomatic, and economic

    • B.

      Diplomatic, strategic, informational, and doctrinal

    • C.

      Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military

    • D.

      Economic, diplomatic, strategic, and military

    Correct Answer
    C. Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military
    Explanation
    The four basic instruments of national power that the US relies on for its security are diplomatic, economic, informational, and military. These instruments work together to protect and advance the country's interests. Diplomatic power involves negotiations and alliances with other nations, economic power involves trade and financial leverage, informational power involves intelligence and propaganda, and military power involves the use of force and defense capabilities. By utilizing these four instruments effectively, the US can maintain its security and influence on the global stage.

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  • 3. 

    The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by

    • A.

      Demobilization planning.

    • B.

      National security policy

    • C.

      Mobilization planning

    • D.

      Joint tactical policy

    Correct Answer
    B. National security policy
    Explanation
    The correct answer is national security policy because it is the overarching framework that guides the United States Armed Forces in shaping and employing the military instrument. National security policy outlines the interests and objectives that need to be defended, and the military instrument is used to achieve those goals. Demobilization planning, mobilization planning, and joint tactical policy are all important aspects of military operations, but they are more specific and tactical in nature compared to the broader national security policy.

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  • 4. 

    What presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power?

    • A.

      Joint force concepts

    • B.

      Operations planning

    • C.

      Security strategy

    • D.

      Doctrine

    Correct Answer
    D. Doctrine
    Explanation
    Doctrine presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power. It provides a framework for decision-making and actions, ensuring that the armed forces operate cohesively and effectively. Doctrine encompasses a set of principles, procedures, and guidelines that define how military forces should operate in various situations, and it helps to establish a common understanding and language among military personnel.

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  • 5. 

    What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces?

    • A.

      Joint doctrine.

    • B.

      Basic doctrine.

    • C.

      Execution planning

    • D.

      Operations planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint doctrine.
    Explanation
    Joint doctrine provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces. It is a set of fundamental principles and guidelines that guides the actions and operations of all branches of the military. Joint doctrine helps to ensure that all branches of the military work together effectively and efficiently to achieve their objectives. It is developed based on the collective knowledge, experience, and lessons learned from past operations, and it provides a standardized framework for planning, executing, and assessing military operations.

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  • 6. 

    The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as

    • A.

      Basic

    • B.

      Joint

    • C.

      Tactical

    • D.

      Operational

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "basic." The basic doctrine refers to the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action. It serves as the foundation for all other doctrines and provides a framework for decision-making and action. This doctrine outlines the core principles, concepts, and values that shape the Air Forces' approach to warfare and helps ensure unity of effort and effectiveness in operations.

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  • 7. 

    A doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environments is referred to as

    • A.

      Basic.

    • B.

      Joint

    • C.

      Tactical.

    • D.

      Operational.

    Correct Answer
    D. Operational.
    Explanation
    The term "doctrine" refers to a set of principles or guidelines that guide the organization and use of military forces. In this context, "operational" refers to the level of warfare that involves the planning and execution of campaigns and large-scale military operations. It encompasses the coordination of multiple forces, functional areas, and environments to achieve specific objectives. Therefore, an operational doctrine would provide guidance on how to properly organize and employ forces in this context.

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  • 8. 

    Which process is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war?

    • A.

      Joint contingency planning.

    • B.

      Joint operations planning

    • C.

      Mobilization planning

    • D.

      Deployment planning

    Correct Answer
    B. Joint operations planning
    Explanation
    Joint operations planning is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war. This process involves the development and coordination of plans and orders to integrate and synchronize military operations across multiple services and organizations. It includes activities such as mission analysis, course of action development, and plan assessment. Joint operations planning ensures that all levels of command are aligned and working towards a common objective, making it the most suitable answer in this context.

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  • 9. 

    At what level does joint operation planning involve developing military objectives and tasks to support the National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish these tasks?

    • A.

      Tactical

    • B.

      Strategic

    • C.

      Functional

    • D.

      Operational

    Correct Answer
    B. Strategic
    Explanation
    Joint operation planning involves developing military objectives and tasks to support the National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish these tasks at the strategic level. This level of planning focuses on the overall goals and objectives of the military operation and how it aligns with the broader national security strategy. Tactical planning, on the other hand, is focused on the specific actions and operations of individual units or small groups. Functional planning relates to specific functions or capabilities within the military, such as logistics or intelligence. Operational planning is at a higher level than tactical planning but lower than strategic planning, focusing on the coordination and execution of military operations.

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  • 10. 

    Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the

    • A.

      Vice president

    • B.

      Chief of staff.

    • C.

      Secretary of defense

    • D.

      Chief master sergeant of the Air Force

    Correct Answer
    C. Secretary of defense
    Explanation
    Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command, which means that it follows a hierarchical structure. The chain of command starts from the president, who is the highest authority, and runs through various positions. The vice president, chief of staff, and chief master sergeant of the Air Force are all positions within the chain of command, but they do not hold the highest authority in terms of defense planning. The secretary of defense, however, is a key position within the chain of command and is responsible for overseeing and coordinating joint operations planning. Therefore, the correct answer is the secretary of defense.

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  • 11. 

    What are the joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders?

    • A.

      Sustainment, reconstitution, mobilization, and employment

    • B.

      Mobilization, deployment, reconstitution, and sustainment

    • C.

      Employment, sustainment, redeployment, and reconstitution

    • D.

      Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment

    Correct Answer
    D. Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment
    Explanation
    The joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders include mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment. These activities involve the preparation and movement of forces, their deployment and utilization in operations, the provision of necessary support and resources to sustain operations, and the withdrawal or relocation of forces after the completion of the mission.

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  • 12. 

    The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity?

    • A.

      Sustainment

    • B.

      Mobilization

    • C.

      Employment

    • D.

      Reconstitution

    Correct Answer
    B. Mobilization
    Explanation
    Mobilization is the correct answer because it refers to the planning process through which the armed forces or a portion of them are prepared and brought to a state of readiness for war or any other national emergency. It involves the activation of personnel, equipment, and resources necessary to support military operations. Sustainment refers to the provision of logistics and support to maintain and prolong military operations. Employment refers to the deployment and use of military forces in operations. Reconstitution refers to the process of rebuilding and restoring military capabilities after a significant loss or damage.

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  • 13. 

    Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint operation planning activity?

    • A.

      Redeployment.

    • B.

      Employment.

    • C.

      Mobilization

    • D.

      Deployment.

    Correct Answer
    D. Deployment.
    Explanation
    Deployment is the correct answer because it refers to the planning and movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination in order to conduct joint operations. Redeployment refers to the movement of forces from one operational area to another, employment refers to the utilization of forces in a specific mission or task, and mobilization refers to the process of assembling and organizing military personnel and resources for active duty.

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  • 14. 

    The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is

    • A.

      Redeployment

    • B.

      Employment

    • C.

      Mobilization.

    • D.

      Deployment

    Correct Answer
    B. Employment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is employment. Employment refers to the joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area. It involves the allocation and use of resources, such as personnel, equipment, and assets, in order to achieve the desired outcomes. This planning activity takes into account various factors, such as the mission, enemy, terrain, troops, and time available (METT-T), to determine the most effective and efficient way to employ military force.

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  • 15. 

    What type of plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)?

    • A.

      Concept.

    • B.

      Operational.

    • C.

      Functional.

    • D.

      Supporting

    Correct Answer
    B. Operational.
    Explanation
    An operational plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD). This type of plan focuses on the execution of specific military operations and provides detailed guidance on how to achieve the objectives. It includes information about the forces involved, their deployment, logistics, and other necessary details. The other options - concept, functional, and supporting - do not specifically mention the inclusion of annexes, appendices, and TPFDD, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 16. 

    A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan?

    • A.

      Concept.

    • B.

      Operation.

    • C.

      Functional

    • D.

      Supporting

    Correct Answer
    A. Concept.
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "Concept." This is because a plan to develop sound operational and support concepts refers to a plan that outlines the overall strategy and approach for a specific operation. It focuses on the conceptual framework and ideas that will guide the development of a detailed operation order (OPORD) if needed. The plan does not provide specific operational details or support functions, but rather sets the foundation for further planning and execution.

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  • 17. 

    Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution?

    • A.

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B.

      Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C.

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)

    • D.

      War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

    Correct Answer
    B. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES). JOPES is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution. It is a system that supports the planning and execution of military operations across the joint force. JOPES provides a common operational picture and facilitates coordination and collaboration among different military services and organizations involved in planning and executing joint operations. It helps in the efficient allocation of resources and ensures effective command and control during military operations.

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  • 18. 

    Which joint and service planning system’s objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures?

    • A.

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B.

      Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C.

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • D.

      War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES). DCAPES is a joint and service planning system that focuses on enabling the Air Force-unique operation planning process, which includes associated joint policy procedures. It helps in planning and executing deliberate and crisis action operations by providing real-time information on resources, training, and readiness.

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  • 19. 

    Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations?

    • A.

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES)

    • B.

      Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C.

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • D.

      War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

    Correct Answer
    D. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
    Explanation
    The War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations. It is a joint and service planning system that aids in the coordination and execution of military operations. The WMP helps ensure that the necessary resources and plans are in place for successful mission execution.

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  • 20. 

    Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations?

    • A.

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B.

      Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C.

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • D.

      War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).

    Correct Answer
    C. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS). SORTS is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) that serves as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations. It provides information on the status of resources, such as personnel, equipment, and training, and helps in planning and executing joint and service operations.

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  • 21. 

    Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees?

    • A.

      Functional directorates

    • B.

      Functional dignitaries

    • C.

      Functional managers

    • D.

      Functional leaders

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional directorates
    Explanation
    Functional directorates are responsible for developing procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees. They are in charge of coordinating and managing the administrative functions within an organization, ensuring that all necessary support is provided to these groups. This includes developing policies, guidelines, and protocols to ensure efficient and effective administrative support. Functional directorates play a crucial role in ensuring that the administrative needs of active, reserve components, and retirees are met.

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  • 22. 

    Which military department was not established by The National Security Act of 1947?

    • A.

      Air Force.

    • B.

      Marines.

    • C.

      Army

    • D.

      Navy

    Correct Answer
    B. Marines.
    Explanation
    The National Security Act of 1947 established the Air Force, Army, and Navy as separate military departments. However, it did not establish the Marines as a separate military department. The Marine Corps is actually a component of the Department of the Navy.

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  • 23. 

    American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except

    • A.

      Crisis.

    • B.

      Peace

    • C.

      Politics

    • D.

      Conflict

    Correct Answer
    C. Politics
    Explanation
    American military power plays a vital role in crisis, peace, and conflict. However, it does not play a direct role in politics. While military power can indirectly influence politics, such as through lobbying or supporting certain political agendas, it is not the primary purpose or function of the military. The military's main focus is on national defense and protecting the country's interests, rather than directly participating in political decision-making or governance.

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  • 24. 

    The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both

    • A.

      Federal and state missions

    • B.

      Federal and overseas missions

    • C.

      State and community missions

    • D.

      Overseas and community missions

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal and state missions
    Explanation
    The Air National Guard (ANG) has the responsibility of fulfilling both federal and state missions. This means that they are not only under the command of the federal government but also have a role in supporting their respective states in times of emergency or disaster. This dual mission allows the ANG to provide assistance at both the national and local levels, making it a unique institution within the military.

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  • 25. 

    Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the

    • A.

      1910s and 20s

    • B.

      1920s and 30s

    • C.

      1930s and 40s.

    • D.

      1940s and 50s.

    Correct Answer
    B. 1920s and 30s
    Explanation
    Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the 1920s and 30s. This is because the Air National Guard was officially established in 1947, but many of its units were formed prior to that as part of the Army Air Corps and Army Air Forces. During the 1920s and 30s, these units were primarily involved in air defense and support missions, and they later transitioned into the Air National Guard when it was created.

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  • 26. 

    The Reserves defend the United States through the control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement?

    • A.

      Regional.

    • B.

      National.

    • C.

      Global.

    • D.

      Local.

    Correct Answer
    C. Global.
    Explanation
    The Reserves defend the United States through the control and exploitation of air and space by supporting global engagements. This means that they are involved in operations and missions that extend beyond the national borders of the United States. They play a crucial role in maintaining the country's security and interests on a global scale.

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  • 27. 

    The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement?

    • A.

      Deployment.

    • B.

      Employment

    • C.

      Mobilization.

    • D.

      Demobilization.

    Correct Answer
    C. Mobilization.
    Explanation
    The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through mobilization. Mobilization refers to the process of activating and deploying reserve forces in response to a crisis or emergency situation. It involves calling up reservists, equipping them, and deploying them to the designated location. Mobilization is essential for quickly increasing the size and capabilities of the military force during times of need.

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  • 28. 

    The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment?

    • A.

      Citizen Airmen, community connections, and personnel stability

    • B.

      Family, personnel stability, and community connections

    • C.

      Manpower, people, and camaraderie

    • D.

      Talent, depth, and experience

    Correct Answer
    D. Talent, depth, and experience
    Explanation
    The Reserves bring talent, depth, and experience to the military environment from their civilian employment. This means that they possess valuable skills and expertise that can contribute to the success of military operations. They have a depth of knowledge and experience in their respective fields, which can enhance the overall capabilities of the military. By leveraging their talents, the Reserves can bring unique perspectives and insights to problem-solving and decision-making processes. Additionally, their experience in civilian employment can provide them with a diverse range of skills that can be applied in various military roles and situations.

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  • 29. 

    The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable.

    • A.

      Responsibility

    • B.

      Commodity

    • C.

      Opportunity.

    • D.

      Job.

    Correct Answer
    B. Commodity
    Explanation
    The phrase "The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is invaluable" suggests that the Reserve forces possess a valuable and unique set of skills and expertise that they bring to the mission and the Air Force. This aligns with the definition of a commodity, which refers to a valuable or useful thing or quality. Therefore, the correct answer is "commodity".

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  • 30. 

    Reserve friendships and team work that develops over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit along with what other strength?

    • A.

      Stability

    • B.

      Liability.

    • C.

      Reliability

    • D.

      Responsibility

    Correct Answer
    A. Stability
    Explanation
    Reserve friendships and team work that develops over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit, which means a sense of unity and camaraderie. This creates stability within the unit, as members can rely on each other and trust in their relationships. Stability is crucial for maintaining a strong and effective team, as it allows for better communication, coordination, and overall performance.

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  • 31. 

    To meet the national security challenges of the 21st century the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept was designed to do what for air and space forces?

    • A.

      Train, manage, and equip.

    • B.

      Equip, train, deploy, and sustain.

    • C.

      Organize, train, equip, and sustain

    • D.

      Organize, manage, train, and equip

    Correct Answer
    C. Organize, train, equip, and sustain
    Explanation
    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept was designed to organize the air and space forces, train them, equip them, and sustain their operations. This concept ensures that the forces are efficiently organized and prepared for any national security challenges they may face in the 21st century. By providing comprehensive training, necessary equipment, and sustained support, the AEF concept enables the air and space forces to effectively carry out their missions and maintain national security.

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  • 32. 

    Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for what type of defense?

    • A.

      Aerial.

    • B.

      Global.

    • C.

      Regional.

    • D.

      National.

    Correct Answer
    D. National.
    Explanation
    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept aims to provide trained and ready air and space forces for national defense. This means that the concept is focused on ensuring that the air and space forces are prepared and equipped to defend the nation against any potential threats or attacks. The AEF concept is designed to support the national defense strategy and protect the country's interests both domestically and internationally.

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  • 33. 

    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide

    • A.

      War-fighter support

    • B.

      Stability to Airmen

    • C.

      Predictability to Airmen.

    • D.

      Fair share tempo band support

    Correct Answer
    A. War-fighter support
    Explanation
    The primary purpose of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is to provide war-fighter support. This means that the AEF is focused on supporting military personnel in combat operations and providing them with the necessary resources, equipment, and assistance to carry out their missions effectively. The AEF's main goal is to ensure that war-fighters have the support they need to succeed in their missions and protect national security.

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  • 34. 

    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do what with air and space forces?

    • A.

      Organize, present, deploy, and sustain.

    • B.

      Organize, present, and deploy

    • C.

      Deploy, present, and sustain

    • D.

      Organize and sustain.

    Correct Answer
    B. Organize, present, and deploy
    Explanation
    The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to organize, present, and deploy air and space forces. This means that the doctrine provides guidance on how to effectively structure and coordinate these forces, how to effectively communicate their capabilities and objectives, and how to efficiently move them to the required locations for missions.

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  • 35. 

    The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      20

    • D.

      25

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    The Air Force organized its total force into 10 air and space expeditionary forces.

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  • 36. 

    In order for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) to maintain a sustainable rotational rhythm, how many AEFs are tasked at any time?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    B. Two
    Explanation
    To maintain a sustainable rotational rhythm, two AEFs are tasked at any time. This allows for a continuous cycle of deployment and rest periods for the AEFs, ensuring that there is always a ready force available for air and space expeditions. By having two AEFs, the workload can be evenly distributed and the force can maintain operational readiness without being overburdened or experiencing burnout.

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  • 37. 

    The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to

    • A.

      Win the war

    • B.

      Place capable personnel in the area of responsibility

    • C.

      Equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.

    • D.

      Equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 15 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.

    Correct Answer
    C. Equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.
    Explanation
    The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to ensure that each of the 10 AEFs has equal capabilities by equitably aligning the available Air Force unit type codes (UTC). This means that each AEF will have the necessary personnel and equipment to carry out their missions effectively and efficiently. By achieving this goal, the Air Force can enhance its readiness and ability to respond to any potential threats or conflicts.

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  • 38. 

    When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an

    • A.

      Air and space expeditionary squadron

    • B.

      Air and space expeditionary group

    • C.

      Numbered expeditionary air force

    • D.

      Air and expeditionary wing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Air and expeditionary wing.
    Explanation
    The air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions. When organizing, it typically forms as an air and expeditionary wing.

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  • 39. 

    What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct is the basic warfighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)?

    • A.

      Air and space expeditionary squadron

    • B.

      Air and space expeditionary element

    • C.

      Air and space expeditionary group

    • D.

      Air and space expeditionary wing

    Correct Answer
    A. Air and space expeditionary squadron
    Explanation
    The air and space expeditionary squadron is the basic warfighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF). It is the smallest operational unit within the AEF construct and is responsible for carrying out specific missions and tasks. The squadron is typically composed of multiple flights and is led by a squadron commander.

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  • 40. 

    Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the

    • A.

      Financial services office (FSO).

    • B.

      Military personnel section (MPS).

    • C.

      Medical treatment facility (MTF).

    • D.

      Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    Correct Answer
    B. Military personnel section (MPS).
    Explanation
    When an Airman arrives at a base, they are required to report to the military personnel section (MPS). The MPS is responsible for handling administrative tasks related to military personnel, such as processing personnel actions, managing personnel records, and providing support for various personnel programs. This includes tasks like in-processing, out-processing, and updating personal information. The MPS plays a crucial role in ensuring that the Airman's personnel needs are met and that they are properly integrated into the base's personnel system.

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  • 41. 

    The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a how many month life cycle?

    • A.

      14-month

    • B.

      18-month.

    • C.

      20-month

    • D.

      24-month

    Correct Answer
    D. 24-month
    Explanation
    The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a 24-month life cycle. This means that the AEF is organized and deployed for a period of 24 months before a new cycle begins. This allows for efficient planning, training, and deployment of personnel and resources. The longer cycle also provides stability and continuity in operations, allowing for better mission execution and effectiveness.

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  • 42. 

    What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?

    • A.

      Air Staff.

    • B.

      Joint Staff

    • C.

      Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

    • D.

      Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    B. Joint Staff
    Explanation
    The Joint Staff is the agency that publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP). This agency is responsible for providing military advice to the President, the Secretary of Defense, and the National Security Council. They coordinate and integrate the military activities of the combatant commands and provide guidance for force management and allocation.

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  • 43. 

    Which capability library contains a fixed capacity that at any given time identifies forces that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling?

    • A.

      Unit type code (UTC).

    • B.

      Air expeditionary force (AEF)

    • C.

      Global Force Management (GFM).

    • D.

      Unit manpower document (UMD).

    Correct Answer
    B. Air expeditionary force (AEF)
    Explanation
    The Air expeditionary force (AEF) capability library contains a fixed capacity that at any given time identifies forces that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling. This means that the AEF library keeps track of the forces that are ready and available for deployment or other operational tasks. The other options, Unit type code (UTC), Global Force Management (GFM), and Unit manpower document (UMD), do not specifically refer to a fixed capacity that identifies forces for scheduling.

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  • 44. 

    At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block(s) and or pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Four

    • D.

      Six

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "one" because the question is asking for the number of AEF blocks and pairs in the AEF vulnerability period. Since the question does not provide any specific information about the number of blocks and pairs in each tempo band, we can assume that there is only one AEF block and one AEF pair in the vulnerability period.

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  • 45. 

    A guideline used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed is when

    • A.

      New equipment needs to be replaced

    • B.

      New equipment types enter the inventory

    • C.

      No program changes occur in manpower or equipment

    • D.

      Deployable units experience no change in either operational concept or mission

    Correct Answer
    B. New equipment types enter the inventory
    Explanation
    When new equipment types enter the inventory, it is necessary to develop a unit type code (UTC) as the existing UTCs may not be applicable for the new equipment. This is because each UTC is specific to a particular type of equipment or unit, and when new equipment is introduced, a new UTC needs to be developed to accurately define and classify the unit. This ensures that the unit is properly organized, staffed, and equipped according to its specific requirements.

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  • 46. 

    In addition to Headquarters Air Force (HAF), which agencies usually initiate the development of a unit type code (UTC)?

    • A.

      Functional area manager (FAM), Direct Reporting Unit (DRU), and Numbered Air Force (NAF).

    • B.

      Major command (MAJCOM), Field Operating Agency (FOA), and NAF

    • C.

      FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU

    • D.

      ANG, FAM, MAJCOM, FOA, and NAF

    Correct Answer
    C. FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU. These agencies are responsible for initiating the development of a unit type code (UTC) along with Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

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  • 47. 

    What are the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces?

    • A.

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B.

      Air and space expeditionary force mapping documents

    • C.

      Time phased force deployment data

    • D.

      Unit type code

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit type code
    Explanation
    Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a fundamental component used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces. Unit type codes are alphanumeric codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes help to identify the capabilities and resources of each unit, allowing for effective planning and coordination of forces during deployments.

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  • 48. 

    Deviations to the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct may be implemented on a case-by-case basis with whose approval?

    • A.

      President.

    • B.

      Chief of staff

    • C.

      Secretary of defense.

    • D.

      Secretary of the Air Force

    Correct Answer
    B. Chief of staff
    Explanation
    The Chief of Staff has the authority to approve deviations to the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct on a case-by-case basis. This means that any changes or modifications to the AEF construct can be made with the approval of the Chief of Staff. The President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of the Air Force may have their own roles and responsibilities in the decision-making process, but the final approval for deviations lies with the Chief of Staff.

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  • 49. 

    The concept of mobilization is associated with “calling up” Reserve Component forces. What does “calling up” do, if anything, to the active duty’s military capability?

    • A.

      Increases military capability

    • B.

      Decreases military capability

    • C.

      Military capability stays the same

    • D.

      Enhances the number of Reserve Component forces.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases military capability
    Explanation
    Calling up Reserve Component forces increases the active duty's military capability. This is because mobilization allows for the deployment of additional trained and ready personnel from the Reserve Component to supplement the active duty forces. These reservists bring their skills, experience, and expertise to enhance the overall military capability and readiness of the active duty forces.

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  • 50. 

    The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to

    • A.

      Partial mobilization

    • B.

      Full mobilization.

    • C.

      Wartime posture

    • D.

      Reconstitution.

    Correct Answer
    C. Wartime posture
    Explanation
    The concept of mobilization refers to the activities required for the transition of military forces from peacetime to a state of readiness for war. This includes both active and Reserve Component forces. While partial mobilization and full mobilization are also related to the mobilization process, they specifically refer to the level of readiness and scale of forces being activated. Reconstitution, on the other hand, refers to the process of rebuilding and restoring military forces after a conflict. Therefore, the most appropriate answer in this context is "wartime posture," as it encompasses the overall state of readiness and preparedness for war.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 28, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Awaters91
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