Volume 1 3CX5X Questions
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The first digit in an AFSC represents the..
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Career Field
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Career Group
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Career Field Subdivision
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Skill Level
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This quiz covers key elements of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSC), focusing on structure, skill levels, and duty positions in the Air Force.
- 2.
What is the combination of the first digit and second-position character of the AFSC?
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Career Group
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Career Field
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Career Field Subdivision
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Air Force Specialty Code
Correct Answer
A. Career FieldExplanation
The combination of the first digit and second-position character of the AFSC refers to the Career Field. The AFSC stands for Air Force Specialty Code, which is a code used by the United States Air Force to identify specific job specialties. The Career Field is the broadest category within the AFSC, representing a group of related job specialties. Therefore, the combination of the first digit and second-position character of the AFSC corresponds to the Career Field.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What does the fourth digit of the AFSC identify?
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Career Group
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Career Field Subdivision
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Skill Level
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Rank
Correct Answer
A. Skill LevelExplanation
The fourth digit of the AFSC identifies the skill level. This means that it indicates the level of expertise or proficiency in a particular career field or occupation. The skill level can range from entry-level positions to advanced or supervisory roles within a specific career field.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The _____ AFSC identifies the authorized manning position to which you are assigned and reflects the job type you are currently performing.
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Duty
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Control
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Primary
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Skill
Correct Answer
A. DutyExplanation
The term "Duty" in this context refers to the authorized manning position that an individual is assigned to and reflects the specific job type they are currently performing. It implies that this AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) is responsible for identifying and designating the duties and responsibilities of personnel within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What skill level identifies personnel initially entered into an AFSC?
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Journeyman
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Craftsman
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Helper
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Apprentice
Correct Answer
A. HelperExplanation
The skill level that identifies personnel initially entered into an AFSC is "Helper." This suggests that individuals who are new to a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) are classified as helpers, indicating that they have limited experience and are in the early stages of their training and development within that particular field.Rate this question:
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- 6.
At what skill level will you be required to perform complex tasks or supervising functions such as installing, troubleshooting, repairing, operating, testing, or modifying assigned systems.
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Apprentice
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Journeyman
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Craftsman
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Superintendent
Correct Answer
A. CraftsmanExplanation
At the craftsman skill level, individuals will be required to perform complex tasks or supervising functions such as installing, troubleshooting, repairing, operating, testing, or modifying assigned systems. This indicates a higher level of expertise and experience compared to an apprentice or journeyman. The craftsman level suggests that the individual has gained a significant amount of knowledge and proficiency in their field, allowing them to handle more complex tasks independently or oversee others in performing these tasks.Rate this question:
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- 7.
An ______ is a comprehensive task list that describes a particular job type or duty position.
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AFQTP
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AFJQS
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CFETP
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CDC
Correct Answer
A. AFJQSExplanation
An AFJQS (Air Force Job Qualification Standard) is a comprehensive task list that describes a particular job type or duty position in the Air Force. It outlines the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for a specific job and serves as a guide for training and evaluating personnel in that job. The AFJQS ensures that individuals are properly trained and qualified to perform their assigned duties effectively and safely.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What do deployable communications capabilities require CIS equipment to be?
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Readily available and modularly designed to support deployed AEFs
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Effectively capable of transmitting data to deployed AEFS
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Able to withstand any weather environment while capable of data transmission
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Low cost and capable of sustaining transmission for 10 days
Correct Answer
A. Readily available and modularly designed to support deployed AEFsExplanation
Deployable communications capabilities require CIS equipment to be readily available and modularly designed to support deployed AEFs. This means that the equipment should be easily accessible and adaptable to different deployment scenarios, allowing for efficient and effective communication support for deployed AEFs. This requirement ensures that the equipment can be quickly deployed and set up, and can be easily reconfigured or replaced as needed in the field.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who will come up with solutions to network and network user related problems and communicate directly with local helpdesk personnel?
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The user
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Functional System Administrators
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Client System Administrators
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Personnel In Chain of Command
Correct Answer
A. Functional System AdministratorsExplanation
Functional System Administrators are responsible for managing and maintaining the network and its users. They have the expertise to identify and solve network and user-related problems. They also have the authority to communicate directly with the local helpdesk personnel to resolve any issues. Therefore, Functional System Administrators are the ones who will come up with solutions to network and network user-related problems and interact with the local helpdesk personnel.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is AFI 31-501?
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Information Security Program Management
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Personnel Security Program Management
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Foreign Security Program Management
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Transmission Security Program Management
Correct Answer
A. Personnel Security Program ManagementExplanation
AFI 31-501 refers to the Personnel Security Program Management. This program is responsible for managing and ensuring the security of personnel within an organization. It involves implementing policies and procedures to protect sensitive information, conducting background checks, and managing access to classified materials. The Personnel Security Program Management plays a crucial role in safeguarding the organization's personnel and preventing unauthorized access to sensitive information.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is minimum amount of OJT training time required to achieve a 7-Skill Level?
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8 months
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12 months
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15 months
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6 months
Correct Answer
A. 15 monthsExplanation
The minimum amount of OJT training time required to achieve a 7-Skill Level is 15 months. This means that it takes at least 15 months of on-the-job training to reach the level of proficiency necessary for a 7-Skill Level.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What are the Regional Training Centers used for?
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Foundation for task proficiency
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Provide weapon systems training
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Build on basic knowledge provided in initial skills training
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Qualify for a specialty career field
Correct Answer
A. Provide weapon systems trainingExplanation
Regional Training Centers are used to provide weapon systems training. These centers are specifically designed to enhance the skills and knowledge of individuals in operating and handling various weapon systems. They offer specialized training programs that focus on the technical aspects of weapon systems, including maintenance, troubleshooting, and operation. By providing this training, the centers aim to ensure that individuals are proficient in using different weapon systems and are prepared to perform their duties effectively in their respective career fields.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is AF Form 623?
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Report of Task Evaluation
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Special Task Certification and Recurring Training
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On The-Job Training Record
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Personnel Clearance List
Correct Answer
A. On The-Job Training RecordExplanation
AF Form 623 is an On The-Job Training Record. This form is used to document and track the training and progress of individuals during their on-the-job training. It includes details such as the trainee's name, job title, training dates, and specific tasks and skills that were covered during the training. This record is important for both the trainee and the organization to ensure that the necessary training has been completed and to track the individual's proficiency and growth in their role.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What is AF IMT 803?
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Report of Task Evaluation
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Special Task Certification and Recurring Training
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On The-Job Training Record
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Personnel Clearance List
Correct Answer
A. Report of Task EvaluationExplanation
AF IMT 803 refers to the Report of Task Evaluation. This document is used to assess and evaluate the performance of individuals or teams in completing specific tasks or assignments within the Air Force. It provides a detailed analysis of the task, including the objectives, standards, and criteria for evaluation. This report is crucial for identifying areas of improvement and ensuring that personnel are properly trained and certified for their assigned tasks.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is AF IMT 1098?
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Report of Task Evaluation
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Special Task Certification and Recurring Training
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On The-Job Training Record
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Personnel Clearance List
Correct Answer
A. Special Task Certification and Recurring TrainingExplanation
AF IMT 1098 refers to Special Task Certification and Recurring Training. This implies that it is a document or form used in the Air Force to certify and track the completion of specialized tasks and ongoing training requirements. It is likely used to ensure that personnel are properly trained and qualified to perform specific tasks within their roles.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who most expects you to strictly adhere to technical data and all other written required procedures?
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Trainer
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Supervisor
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Superintendent
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Unit Commander
Correct Answer
A. Unit CommanderExplanation
The Unit Commander is the person who most expects you to strictly adhere to technical data and all other written required procedures. They are responsible for ensuring that all members of the unit follow the established protocols and guidelines to maintain efficiency and safety. As the highest-ranking authority within the unit, the Unit Commander sets the standards and expects everyone to comply with them.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who must safety hazards be reported to once identifed?
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Supervisor
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Unit safety representative
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Ground safety officer
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Either
Correct Answer
A. EitherExplanation
Safety hazards can be reported to either the supervisor, unit safety representative, or ground safety officer. This means that once a safety hazard is identified, it can be reported to any of these individuals for appropriate action to be taken. This allows for multiple avenues of reporting, ensuring that hazards are addressed promptly and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is AF IMT 457?
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USAF Hazard Report
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CPR Training Record
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Hazardous Material Reporting Checklist
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Lifesaving Skills Checklist
Correct Answer
A. USAF Hazard ReportExplanation
AF IMT 457 refers to the USAF Hazard Report. This form is used by the United States Air Force to report any hazardous conditions or incidents that may pose a risk to personnel, property, or the environment. It allows individuals to document and communicate potential hazards, near misses, and accidents in order to prevent future incidents and ensure the safety of all involved. By completing this report, the Air Force can identify trends, implement corrective actions, and maintain a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What is AFI 36-2238?
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Work Condition Reporting List
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Weapons Training
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Hazardous Material Reporting List
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Self-Aid and Buddy Care Training
Correct Answer
A. Self-Aid and Buddy Care TrainingExplanation
AFI 36-2238 refers to Self-Aid and Buddy Care Training. This training is designed to equip individuals with the knowledge and skills required to provide basic first aid and medical assistance to themselves and their fellow service members in emergency situations. It focuses on teaching techniques for treating common injuries, managing medical emergencies, and stabilizing patients until professional medical help arrives. Self-Aid and Buddy Care Training is an essential component of military training programs to ensure the well-being and safety of personnel in the field.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is primary use of Operational Risk Management?
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Perform efficient steps following regulations and standards set by unit commander to deter foreign risks without emitting classified information to the public
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Follow guidelines while at workcenter to evaulate equipment that may cause classified information to leak to unauthorized Air Force Personnel
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Systematically evulate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation
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To identify and deter foreign threats
Correct Answer
A. Systematically evulate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situationExplanation
The primary use of Operational Risk Management is to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation. This involves analyzing potential risks, assessing their impact, and developing strategies to mitigate or manage them effectively. By following this approach, organizations can proactively address risks and make informed decisions that minimize negative outcomes and maximize benefits.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is AFPAM 90-902?
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Operational Risk Management Program
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Operational Risk Management Guidelines and Tools
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Environmental, Safety, and Occupational Health
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Data Processing Facilities
Correct Answer
A. Operational Risk Management Guidelines and ToolsExplanation
AFPAM 90-902 refers to the Operational Risk Management Guidelines and Tools. This document provides guidance and tools for managing operational risks within an organization. It outlines the processes and procedures that should be followed to identify, assess, and mitigate risks in order to minimize potential losses and maximize mission success. By implementing the guidelines and utilizing the tools provided in AFPAM 90-902, organizations can effectively manage and mitigate operational risks.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is AFI 90-901?
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Operational Risk Management Program
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Operational Risk Management Guidelines and Tools
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Environmental, Safety, and Occupational Health
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Data Processing Facilities
Correct Answer
A. Operational Risk Management ProgramExplanation
AFI 90-901 refers to the Operational Risk Management Program. This document provides guidelines and tools for managing operational risks within an organization. It outlines the processes and procedures to identify, assess, and mitigate risks to ensure the safety and effectiveness of operations. The program aims to minimize the negative impact of risks on mission accomplishment and personnel safety. It emphasizes the importance of proactive risk management and encourages a systematic approach to identify and address potential hazards and vulnerabilities.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is AFPD 90-8?
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Operational Risk Management Program
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Operational Risk Management Guidelines and Tools
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Environmental, Safety, and Occupational Health
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Data Processing Facilities
Correct Answer
A. Environmental, Safety, and Occupational HealthExplanation
AFPD 90-8 refers to Environmental, Safety, and Occupational Health. This document provides guidelines and tools for managing risks related to environmental protection, safety, and occupational health in military operations. It outlines the policies and procedures to be followed to ensure the well-being of personnel and the preservation of the environment. This includes measures to prevent accidents, mitigate hazards, and comply with applicable regulations and standards. The document emphasizes the importance of proactive risk management and the integration of environmental, safety, and occupational health considerations into all aspects of military operations.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which ORM step is to Analyze Risk Control Measures?
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2
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3
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1
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5
Correct Answer
A. 3Explanation
In the given question, the correct answer is 3. This step in ORM (Operational Risk Management) involves analyzing and evaluating the effectiveness of risk control measures that have been implemented. It is important to assess whether these measures are adequate in mitigating the identified risks and if any further actions or improvements are required to enhance risk control. This step helps in identifying any gaps or weaknesses in the existing control measures and allows for adjustments to be made to ensure better risk management.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which decibal level at or above can cause hearing loss?
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65
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75
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85
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95
Correct Answer
A. 85Explanation
Exposure to decibel levels at or above 85 can cause hearing loss. Prolonged or repeated exposure to loud noises, such as concerts or machinery, can damage the delicate hair cells in the inner ear, leading to permanent hearing loss. It is important to protect our ears by wearing earplugs or reducing exposure to loud noises to prevent long-term damage to our hearing.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Tapes and disk packs should be stored where?
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Seperate rooms from vaults and computing systems that use them
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In same rooms as vaults and computing systems that use them
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In vaults away from computing systems that use them
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In rooms with computing systems
Correct Answer
A. Seperate rooms from vaults and computing systems that use themExplanation
Tapes and disk packs should be stored in separate rooms from vaults and computing systems that use them to ensure their safety and security. Storing them in the same rooms as vaults and computing systems may increase the risk of damage or unauthorized access. Similarly, storing them in vaults away from computing systems may also be risky as it may limit accessibility and make it difficult to use them when needed. Therefore, storing them in separate rooms provides a suitable balance between accessibility and security.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which tool covering can generate triboelectricity?
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Steel
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Aluminum
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Plastic
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Rubber
Correct Answer
A. PlasticExplanation
Plastic is a material that can generate triboelectricity. When two different materials come into contact and then separate, they can become electrically charged. This is known as the triboelectric effect. Plastic is one of the materials that is commonly used in the production of objects that can generate triboelectricity, such as static electricity generators or friction-based energy harvesters.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What number system does the computer use to process magnetic bits of information to perform various functions?
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Binary and Hexadecimal
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Binary
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Bits and Bytes
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Hexadecimal
Correct Answer
A. Binary and HexadecimalExplanation
Computers use the binary number system to process magnetic bits of information. The binary system is a base-2 system, meaning it only uses two digits: 0 and 1. These digits, also known as bits, are used to represent and manipulate data within the computer's circuits and memory. However, computers also utilize the hexadecimal number system, which is a base-16 system. Hexadecimal digits range from 0 to 9, and A to F, and they are often used to represent binary values in a more compact and human-readable format. Therefore, the computer uses both binary and hexadecimal number systems to process magnetic bits of information.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What uses 8 bits to store numbers, letters, or special characters?
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ASCII
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EBCDIC
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Hexadecimal
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Byte
Correct Answer
A. EBCDICExplanation
EBCDIC (Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code) is a character encoding system that uses 8 bits to represent characters. It was developed by IBM and is primarily used in mainframe computers. EBCDIC can store numbers, letters, and special characters, making it suitable for a wide range of applications. ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) is another character encoding system that also uses 8 bits, but it is more commonly used in modern computers and communication systems. Hexadecimal is a number system that uses a base of 16, and a byte is a unit of digital information that typically consists of 8 bits.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is a private network that is contained within an organization?
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Internet
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Intranet
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Internetoworking
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Segment
Correct Answer
A. IntranetExplanation
An intranet is a private network that is contained within an organization. It is used to share information and resources among employees within the organization. Unlike the internet, which is a global network accessible to the public, an intranet is only accessible to authorized users within the organization. It provides a secure and controlled environment for internal communication, collaboration, and information sharing.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What selects one of many analog or digital data sources and outputs that source into a single channel of data?
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Media
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Broadcast
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Multiplexer
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Switch
Correct Answer
A. MultiplexerExplanation
A multiplexer is a device that selects one input from multiple sources and transmits it as output. In this context, it selects one of many analog or digital data sources and outputs that source into a single channel of data. This allows for efficient data transmission and reduces the need for multiple channels. Therefore, a multiplexer is the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is an amplifying device used to improve telecommunication transmission reliability of a ussually digital intrafacility metallic transmission line over extended distances by driving the input to the transmission line with a higher than normal signal level?
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Repeater
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Line Driver
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Converter
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Bridge
Correct Answer
A. Line DriverExplanation
A line driver is an amplifying device used to improve telecommunication transmission reliability of a usually digital intrafacility metallic transmission line over extended distances by driving the input to the transmission line with a higher than normal signal level.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is an advantage of a peer to peer network?
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Flexibility to share resources on any workstation in the network
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Network security is easy to manage
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Nondedicated servers speed up the workstation performance
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Cheap and allows computers to send requests to servers
Correct Answer
A. Flexibility to share resources on any workstation in the networkExplanation
An advantage of a peer to peer network is the flexibility to share resources on any workstation in the network. This means that users can access and utilize resources such as files, printers, and software from any computer within the network. This decentralized approach allows for easy collaboration and resource sharing among all connected devices, without the need for a dedicated server.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jul 21, 2009Quiz Created by
Ajepalmer
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