Z3D153 - 2016 Edit Code 3, Volume 2 Part 5

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Z3D153 - 2016 Edit Code 3, Volume 2 Part 5 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which type of advanced waveform enables data and imagery situational awareness and provides enhanced combat effectiveness?

    • A.

      Soldier radio.

    • B.

      Wideband networking.

    • C.

      Mobile user objective system (MUOS).

    • D.

      Adaptive network wideband waveform (ANW2).

    Correct Answer
    A. Soldier radio.
    Explanation
    Soldier radio enables data and imagery situational awareness and provides enhanced combat effectiveness. It allows soldiers to communicate and share information in real-time, facilitating coordination and decision-making on the battlefield. With soldier radio, soldiers can receive updates on the enemy's movements, access maps and imagery, and exchange critical information, thereby enhancing their situational awareness. This advanced waveform technology improves combat effectiveness by enabling seamless communication and information sharing among soldiers, ultimately enhancing their ability to respond effectively to changing battlefield conditions.

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  • 2. 

    In high-frequency (HF) communications, your station’s automatic link establishment (ALE) self-address is the address

    • A.

      The user programmed for his or her station.

    • B.

      It shares with other members.

    • C.

      Of an unprogrammed station.

    • D.

      Of other stations in the net.

    Correct Answer
    A. The user programmed for his or her station.
    Explanation
    In high-frequency (HF) communications, the automatic link establishment (ALE) self-address refers to the address that the user has personally programmed for their station. This address is unique to each station and is used for identification purposes when communicating with other stations in the network.

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  • 3. 

    This is the simplest form of an automatic link establishment (ALE) call.

    • A.

      All.

    • B.

      Any.

    • C.

      Group.

    • D.

      Individual.

    Correct Answer
    D. Individual.
    Explanation
    An individual ALE call refers to a direct communication between two specific stations. This means that only the intended recipient station will receive and respond to the call, ensuring a private and targeted communication. In contrast, a group ALE call would involve multiple stations receiving the call, while an all ALE call would include all stations within range. Therefore, the given correct answer, "Individual," signifies that the simplest form of ALE call involves direct communication between two specific stations.

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  • 4. 

    Which automatic link establishment (ALE) call option lets you call a predefined group of stations with a single shared address, and requires them to respond, one at a time, in a predefined order?

    • A.

      Handshake.

    • B.

      Channel.

    • C.

      Group.

    • D.

      Net.

    Correct Answer
    D. Net.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Net." In automatic link establishment (ALE), a "Net" is an ALE call option that allows you to call a predefined group of stations with a single shared address. When using the Net option, the stations in the group are required to respond one at a time in a predefined order. This allows for efficient and organized communication within the group.

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  • 5. 

    Where is the primary high frequency global communications system (HFGCS) network control station located?

    • A.

      Offutt, Nebraska.

    • B.

      Grand Forks, North Dakota.

    • C.

      Andrews AFB, Maryland.

    • D.

      Croughton, England.

    Correct Answer
    C. Andrews AFB, Maryland.
    Explanation
    The primary high frequency global communications system (HFGCS) network control station is located at Andrews AFB, Maryland.

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  • 6. 

    This is not a major network within the Military Auxiliary Radio Service (MARS).

    • A.

      Mission support network (MSN).

    • B.

      Phone patch network (PPN).

    • C.

      Very high frequency (VHF) network.

    • D.

      Ultra-high frequency (UHF) network.

    Correct Answer
    D. Ultra-high frequency (UHF) network.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Ultra-high frequency (UHF) network. This is because the question states that the network in question is not a major network within the Military Auxiliary Radio Service (MARS). The other options, such as Mission support network (MSN), Phone patch network (PPN), and Very high frequency (VHF) network, are not specifically mentioned as being part of the MARS network. Therefore, the only option left is the Ultra-high frequency (UHF) network.

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  • 7. 

    The process of unscrambling encrypted information so that it is intelligible is known as

    • A.

      Decryption.

    • B.

      Encryption.

    • C.

      Cryptography.

    • D.

      Cryptanalysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Decryption.
    Explanation
    Decryption refers to the process of converting encrypted information back into its original, intelligible form. It involves using a decryption algorithm or key to reverse the encryption process and make the data readable again. Encryption, on the other hand, is the process of converting plain text into an unreadable form to protect it from unauthorized access. Cryptography is a broader term that encompasses both encryption and decryption techniques. Cryptanalysis, on the other hand, involves analyzing encrypted data to decipher its meaning without having the decryption key.

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  • 8. 

    Which type of cryptographic algorithm permits the encryption key to be public?

    • A.

      Asymmetric.

    • B.

      Symmetric.

    • C.

      Encoder.

    • D.

      Secret.

    Correct Answer
    A. Asymmetric.
    Explanation
    Asymmetric cryptographic algorithms allow the encryption key to be public. In this type of encryption, there are two different keys: a public key and a private key. The public key is used for encryption, while the private key is kept secret and used for decryption. This allows anyone to encrypt data using the public key, but only the owner of the private key can decrypt it. This type of encryption is commonly used for secure communication and digital signatures.

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  • 9. 

    Which secure communications device operates by simply sliding the key tape into the reader?

    • A.

      KYK–13.

    • B.

      KOI–18.

    • C.

      KY–57.

    • D.

      KY–99A.

    Correct Answer
    B. KOI–18.
    Explanation
    The KOI-18 secure communications device operates by simply sliding the key tape into the reader.

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  • 10. 

    The common name for the method of changing encryption keys over the radio channel in a two-way radio system is called

    • A.

      Over-the-air rekeying (OTAR).

    • B.

      Asymmetric.

    • C.

      Symmetric.

    • D.

      Off-line.

    Correct Answer
    A. Over-the-air rekeying (OTAR).
    Explanation
    Over-the-air rekeying (OTAR) is the common name for the method of changing encryption keys over the radio channel in a two-way radio system. This process allows for secure and efficient key management by transmitting new encryption keys wirelessly, eliminating the need for physical interaction or manual key updates. OTAR ensures that the communication remains secure by regularly updating the encryption keys used in the system, preventing unauthorized access and maintaining the confidentiality of the transmitted data.

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  • 11. 

    Which type of conventional land mobile radio (LMR) device maximizes the communications distance between lower-powered equipment items?

    • A.

      Mobile.

    • B.

      Portable.

    • C.

      Repeater.

    • D.

      Base station.

    Correct Answer
    C. Repeater.
    Explanation
    A repeater is a type of conventional land mobile radio (LMR) device that maximizes the communication distance between lower-powered equipment items. It receives a weak signal from a portable or mobile device and then retransmits it at a higher power, extending the range of communication. This allows for better coverage and ensures that signals can reach areas that may have poor reception due to distance or obstacles.

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  • 12. 

    In a land mobile radio (LMR) repeater system, a device that separates and isolates the incoming receive signal from the outgoing transmit signal and vice versa is known as a

    • A.

      Duplexer.

    • B.

      Comparator.

    • C.

      Key-unkey relay.

    • D.

      Transmit-receive switch.

    Correct Answer
    A. Duplexer.
    Explanation
    A duplexer is a device in a land mobile radio (LMR) repeater system that separates and isolates the incoming receive signal from the outgoing transmit signal and vice versa. It allows the repeater to transmit and receive signals simultaneously on the same antenna without interference. The other options, such as comparator, key-unkey relay, and transmit-receive switch, do not perform the specific function of separating and isolating signals in the same way as a duplexer.

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  • 13. 

    Which type of site configuration was designed to provide coverage for a small geographical area?

    • A.

      Single-site.

    • B.

      Multi-site.

    • C.

      Simulcast.

    • D.

      Multicast.

    Correct Answer
    A. Single-site.
    Explanation
    The single-site configuration is designed to provide coverage for a small geographical area. This means that all the communication equipment and infrastructure are located in a single site, allowing for efficient coverage within a limited range. In contrast, multi-site configurations are designed to cover larger areas by utilizing multiple sites and interconnected systems. Simulcast is a technique used to broadcast the same signal simultaneously from multiple sites, while multicast refers to the simultaneous transmission of data to multiple recipients. However, in the context of providing coverage for a small geographical area, the single-site configuration is the most appropriate choice.

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  • 14. 

    This provides the interface between dispatch consoles and the central controller in a typical trunking system.

    • A.

      Modems.

    • B.

      Access control.

    • C.

      Switching equipment.

    • D.

      System management computer.

    Correct Answer
    C. Switching equipment.
    Explanation
    Switching equipment is the correct answer because it serves as the interface between dispatch consoles and the central controller in a typical trunking system. It facilitates the communication between the two by routing and directing the signals and data. Modems are devices used for transmitting data over communication channels, access control refers to the process of controlling access to a system or network, and a system management computer is responsible for managing and monitoring the overall system, but none of these options directly relate to the interface between dispatch consoles and the central controller in a trunking system.

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  • 15. 

    When setting up a trunking network, users with common missions or functions are assigned as

    • A.

      Nets.

    • B.

      Channels.

    • C.

      Talkgroups.

    • D.

      Subscribers.

    Correct Answer
    C. Talkgroups.
    Explanation
    When setting up a trunking network, users with common missions or functions are assigned as talkgroups. Talkgroups allow users to communicate with each other within the network. This grouping helps to organize and streamline communication by ensuring that only relevant users are included in a conversation. By assigning users to specific talkgroups, it becomes easier for individuals to connect with others who share similar objectives or roles, facilitating efficient and effective communication in the network.

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  • 16. 

    Which statement is not a benefit of having a trunking network?

    • A.

      Selective radio inhibit.

    • B.

      Faster system access.

    • C.

      Unbalanced channel loads.

    • D.

      Better channel efficiency.

    Correct Answer
    C. Unbalanced channel loads.
    Explanation
    Having unbalanced channel loads is not a benefit of having a trunking network. Trunking networks are designed to efficiently allocate and manage communication resources, such as channels, among multiple users. This ensures that the available channels are utilized optimally, resulting in better channel efficiency and faster system access. However, unbalanced channel loads can lead to inefficient resource allocation and may cause some users to experience delays or congestion. Therefore, unbalanced channel loads are not considered a benefit of trunking networks.

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  • 17. 

    This differentiates the enterprise land mobile radio (ELMR) network from a regular trunking or conventional network.

    • A.

      Advanced encryption standard (AES) encryption.

    • B.

      Association of Public-Safety Communications Officials (APCO) P25 standard.

    • C.

      Repeater.

    • D.

      Centralized core controller.

    Correct Answer
    D. Centralized core controller.
    Explanation
    A centralized core controller is what differentiates the enterprise land mobile radio (ELMR) network from a regular trunking or conventional network. This controller is responsible for managing and controlling the entire ELMR network, ensuring efficient communication and coordination between different devices and users. It acts as a central hub, allowing for better control and management of the network, as well as providing advanced features such as centralized encryption and authentication. This centralized approach enhances the overall performance and security of the ELMR network, making it a preferred choice for enterprise communication needs.

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  • 18. 

    Which Air Force instruction (AFI) requires communications squadrons to maintain installation notification and warning systems (INWS)?

    • A.

      AFI 10–2501, Air Force Emergency Management Program.

    • B.

      AFI 10–2801, Force Development Concepts.

    • C.

      AFI 33–115, Air Force Information Technology Service Management.

    • D.

      AFI 33–217, Voice Call Sign Program.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 10–2501, Air Force Emergency Management Program.
  • 19. 

    In the giant-voice system, this controls the system’s signal routing and power distribution.

    • A.

      Landline board.

    • B.

      Control board.

    • C.

      Radio board.

    • D.

      Encoder.

    Correct Answer
    B. Control board.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is control board. In the giant-voice system, the control board is responsible for managing the signal routing and power distribution. It acts as the central hub for controlling and coordinating the various components of the system. The control board ensures that the signals are routed correctly and that power is distributed efficiently to all the necessary components. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall functionality and effectiveness of the giant-voice system.

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  • 20. 

    Which is not a major component of the giant-voice system?

    • A.

      Siren cabinet.

    • B.

      Siren stack.

    • C.

      Decoder.

    • D.

      Encoder.

    Correct Answer
    C. Decoder.
    Explanation
    The giant-voice system is a warning system used to alert people in emergency situations. It typically consists of various components such as a siren cabinet, siren stack, decoder, and encoder. The siren cabinet houses the siren and other necessary equipment. The siren stack is the physical structure that holds the sirens. The encoder is responsible for converting the warning message into a format that can be understood by the system. However, the decoder is not a major component of the giant-voice system as it is not directly involved in the functioning of the system.

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  • Current Version
  • Jul 16, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 30, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Scott
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