Langley CST - Z3dx5x Vol 1
Z3DX5X VOL 1 EDIT 02
- 1.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
D. Radio Frequency Transmission.Explanation
The 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) of Radio Frequency Transmission is responsible for tasks such as deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This AFS focuses on managing and maintaining the transmission of radio frequency signals, ensuring effective communication and connectivity for the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
Spectrum Operations.
- B.
Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
C. Cable and Antenna Systems.Explanation
Cable and Antenna Systems are responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations. This includes setting up and maintaining the cables and antennas that are used for communication and data transmission within the Air Force. Spectrum Operations deals with managing and controlling the electromagnetic spectrum, Ground Radar Systems are responsible for operating and maintaining radar systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission involves the transmission of radio signals. However, neither of these specialties specifically focus on network wiring installation and maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
- A.
Core task.
- B.
Duty competency.
- C.
Core competency.
- D.
Duty position task.
Correct Answer
D. Duty position task.Explanation
According to AFI 36-2201, the Air Force Training Program, the enlisted training element that is assigned by the supervisor is the duty position task. This means that the supervisor is responsible for assigning specific tasks and responsibilities to individuals based on their duty position within the Air Force. This ensures that each individual is trained and prepared to fulfill their specific role and duties within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals within the Air Force career field, ensuring that they are on track for career progression and success. The AFCFM is knowledgeable about the specific requirements and opportunities within the career field and can provide valuable insight and advice to individuals seeking guidance. They play a crucial role in shaping the careers of Air Force personnel and ensuring that they are able to reach their full potential within their chosen career field.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from certain training requirements based on their specific circumstances or qualifications. The unit training manager (UTM), base functional manager (BFM), and major command functional manager (MFM) may have some authority in training and career development decisions, but the AFCFM has the ultimate authority in waiving CFETP requirements.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM).Explanation
The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the interests and needs of their specific career field within the MAJCOM. They provide input and guidance on matters related to training and utilization of personnel within their career field. The MFM plays a crucial role in shaping the policies and decisions made during these workshops, ensuring that the needs of their career field are adequately addressed.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM).Explanation
The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC). This means that the MFM is responsible for selecting individuals who have the necessary expertise to contribute to the development of these tests and courses. The MFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the content of the SKT and CDC is accurate and relevant to the specific career field.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
B. Base functional manager (BFM).Explanation
The correct answer is Base functional manager (BFM). This title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). The BFM is responsible for managing and coordinating the functional operations of a specific base or installation. They ensure that the cyberspace systems and networks are functioning effectively and efficiently. They also provide guidance and support to other personnel within their unit. The BFM plays a crucial role in maintaining the overall cyber readiness and security of the base.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
- A.
Modify local training.
- B.
Allocate manpower.
- C.
Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
- D.
Assist the unit training manager in course development.
Correct Answer
C. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).Explanation
Occupational surveys are used to gather information about specific job roles and the skills required for those roles. This information is then used to develop a Career Development Course (CDC), which provides training and development opportunities for individuals in those job roles. The CDC helps individuals enhance their knowledge and skills, and prepares them for career advancement within their field. Therefore, developing a CDC is another important use of occupational surveys, as it helps in creating targeted and effective training programs for specific job roles.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Conduct climate training surveys.
- B.
Develop Career Development Courses.
- C.
Review the occupational analysis report.
- D.
Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
Correct Answer
D. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).Explanation
The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive plan for the education and training of individuals in a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary courses, certifications, and skills needed for individuals to succeed in their careers. By establishing this plan, the U&TW can ensure that individuals receive the proper training and development opportunities to excel in their chosen field.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).
- B.
Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME.
- C.
MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME).
- D.
AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.
Correct Answer
D. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.Explanation
The correct answer is AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM. The AFCFM, or Air Force Career Field Manager, is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field and its training requirements. The TPM, or Training Pipeline Manager, is responsible for coordinating and scheduling the training pipeline for the career field. Together, they work collaboratively to schedule the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and ensure that the necessary training is provided to meet the requirements of the career field.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
- A.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- B.
Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
- C.
On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.
- D.
Occupational Analysis Program.
Correct Answer
C. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.Explanation
The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their specific job role, gaining hands-on experience and practical training. OJT programs are designed to provide a structured learning environment where individuals can acquire the necessary skills and competencies needed for their job, ensuring they are fully prepared and qualified to perform their duties effectively.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
Quality Assessments.
- B.
Quality Assurance.
- C.
Quality System.
- D.
Trend Analysis.
Correct Answer
B. Quality Assurance.Explanation
In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, Quality Assurance itself is not considered an essential element. Quality Assurance refers to the systematic activities implemented in a process to ensure that the quality requirements for a product or service are met. However, in a QA program, Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis are essential elements. Quality Assessments involve evaluating the performance of the quality system, while Quality System refers to the documented procedures and processes that ensure quality. Trend Analysis involves analyzing data over time to identify patterns and make informed decisions.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
Technical Evaluation.
- B.
Personnel Evaluation.
- C.
Managerial Evaluation.
- D.
Standard Evaluation.
Correct Answer
D. Standard Evaluation.Explanation
The correct answer is Standard Evaluation. In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, various evaluations are conducted to assess different aspects of the program. Technical Evaluation assesses the technical aspects of the program, Personnel Evaluation assesses the performance of the personnel involved, and Managerial Evaluation assesses the managerial aspects of the program. However, Standard Evaluation is not a specific assessment type in a QA program. It is likely that this option refers to the use of standard criteria or benchmarks for evaluation purposes rather than being a distinct evaluation type.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
- A.
Trend analysis.
- B.
Quality System.
- C.
Quality Assessments.
- D.
Managerial Assessments.
Correct Answer
A. Trend analysis.Explanation
Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on processes sampled by QA personnel. It helps identify patterns and trends over time, allowing for the identification of potential issues or areas for improvement. Quality System refers to the overall framework and processes in place for ensuring quality, while Quality Assessments and Managerial Assessments are methods of evaluating and assessing the effectiveness of the quality assurance process.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
- A.
Management Inspection (MI).
- B.
Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
- C.
Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).
- D.
Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).
Correct Answer
B. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).Explanation
Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) is the correct answer because it combines elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a comprehensive assessment of a unit's effectiveness. This type of inspection evaluates the unit's ability to meet its mission objectives and assesses its overall performance and efficiency. It goes beyond traditional compliance inspections by also considering the unit's readiness and effectiveness in carrying out its assigned tasks. The UEI helps identify areas of improvement and provides valuable feedback to enhance the unit's effectiveness and operational capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
- A.
Remedy.
- B.
Training Business Area.
- C.
Telephone Management System.
- D.
Integrated Maintenance Data System.
Correct Answer
A. Remedy.Explanation
Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that is specifically designed to manage the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. It helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses, ensuring that they are properly maintained and retired when necessary. Remedy also provides features for asset tracking, inventory management, and compliance with IT asset management best practices. Therefore, it is the most suitable option for the given question.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- A.
Title 10
- B.
Title 18
- C.
Title 32
- D.
Title 50
Correct Answer
A. Title 10Explanation
Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
- A.
Title 3.
- B.
Title 8.
- C.
Title 10.
- D.
Title 18.
Correct Answer
C. Title 10.Explanation
The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 specifically deals with the organization and structure of the armed forces, including the military justice system. The UCMJ is a set of laws that governs the conduct of members of the military and outlines the legal rights and responsibilities of service members. It covers a wide range of offenses and punishments, ensuring discipline and order within the military.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?
- A.
National Military Cyberspace Strategy.
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
- C.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace.
- D.
National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.Explanation
The correct answer is National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace. This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. It provides guidance and direction for protecting critical infrastructure, preventing cyber threats, and promoting cybersecurity awareness and education. The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace focuses on collaboration between government agencies, private sector organizations, and international partners to ensure the security and resilience of the nation's cyberspace.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
- A.
National Security Policy.
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
- C.
Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.
- D.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.Explanation
The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace is a policy that prioritizes the prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. It outlines a strategic approach to enhance cybersecurity and protect the nation's information and communication systems. This policy recognizes the importance of securing cyberspace and addresses the need for collaboration between government agencies, private sector organizations, and international partners to mitigate cyber threats.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?
- A.
National Security Policy.
- B.
National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
- C.
Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.
- D.
National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
Correct Answer
D. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.Explanation
The National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations outlines the US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to ensure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. This policy specifically focuses on the military's use of cyberspace and provides guidance on how to achieve and maintain superiority in this domain. It is a specific strategy that addresses the unique challenges and opportunities presented by cyberspace for the US military.Rate this question:
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- 23.
When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
- A.
Title 10.
- B.
Title 30.
- C.
Title 50.
- D.
Title 52.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.Explanation
Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, but in order to execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status.Rate this question:
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- 24.
An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
- A.
Misuse of position.
- B.
Covered relationships.
- C.
Non-public information.
- D.
Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
B. Covered relationships.Explanation
Covered relationships refer to an unethical situation in which an employee or employer relationship creates the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This can occur when a person in a position of power shows bias towards someone with whom they have a personal or professional relationship. It is considered unethical because it compromises fairness and objectivity in decision-making processes.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
- A.
Misuse of position.
- B.
Covered relationship.
- C.
Personal conflict of interest.
- D.
None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.
Correct Answer
B. Covered relationship.Explanation
A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is in a position of power or authority over them. In this case, the question suggests that the members of a household or close relatives fall under this category. This can create ethical concerns as it may lead to favoritism, bias, or conflicts of interest in decision-making processes. Therefore, the correct answer is covered relationship.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?
- A.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
- B.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- C.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- D.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. It is responsible for ensuring the security and control of cyberspace operations within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC). This system is responsible for managing and securing the Air Force's cyberspace operations.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.Explanation
The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for controlling and securing the Air Force's internal network, ensuring that only authorized users have access to it. It acts as a defense mechanism against cyber threats and helps maintain the integrity and confidentiality of the Air Force's information.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?
- A.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System
- B.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System
- C.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System
- D.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System -
- 30.
What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?
- A.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- B.
Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- C.
Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.Explanation
The Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. This system is specifically designed to provide command and control capabilities in cyberspace, allowing for effective management and coordination of cyber operations. It enables the Air Force to maintain control and security over its networks, ensuring that they are available and reliable for carrying out missions globally.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
- A.
Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System
- B.
Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System
- C.
Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System
- D.
Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
Correct Answer
A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon SystemExplanation
The correct answer is the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System. This system is designed to identify vulnerabilities in critical mission networks and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk associated with these vulnerabilities. It helps in identifying potential weaknesses in cyberspace defenses and allows for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate the risks. The other options mentioned are not specifically focused on vulnerability assessment and do not provide the same level of comprehensive assessment as the Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
- A.
Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force
- B.
Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force
- C.
Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force
- D.
Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air ForceExplanation
Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.
- A.
Active and reactive.
- B.
Evasive and decisive.
- C.
Subversive and divisive.
- D.
Offensive and defensive.
Correct Answer
A. Active and reactive.Explanation
Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing as well as directly countering an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to detect and respond to threats in real-time, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense involves responding to an ongoing attack or intrusion, such as implementing incident response plans, isolating compromised systems, and patching vulnerabilities. These two defenses work together to actively detect and respond to cyber threats, minimizing the impact of attacks and protecting the network.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
- A.
Counterintelligence (CI).
- B.
Operation Security (OPSEC).
- C.
Military deception (MILDEC)
- D.
Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
Correct Answer
C. Military deception (MILDEC)Explanation
MILDEC, or military deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating information or creating false impressions. Since MISO and PA both target a specific audience, MILDEC can be used to deceive that audience and achieve strategic objectives. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and neutralizing threats to national security, Operation Security (OPSEC) aims to protect sensitive information, and Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves gathering information about the enemy. While these activities may involve some level of deception, MILDEC is specifically designed for misleading purposes.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
- A.
Strategic Considerations.
- B.
Military Strategic Framework.
- C.
Implementation and Assessment.
- D.
Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.
Correct Answer
D. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.Explanation
The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides a framework for the Department of Defense to plan and prioritize its efforts in securing cyberspace. It outlines the strategic objectives, priorities, and resources needed to address cyber threats and ensure the security of military networks and systems. The guidance also helps to align the Department of Defense's cyber efforts with national security objectives and overall defense strategy.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
- A.
Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
- B.
Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
- C.
National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).
- D.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
Correct Answer
D. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency within the Department of Defense that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They are tasked with ensuring the security and functionality of the GIG, which is the military's worldwide network of information systems. Therefore, DISA is the correct agency responsible for these matters.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
- A.
644th Combat Communication Squadron.
- B.
85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
- C.
83th Network Operations Squadron.
- D.
4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.
Correct Answer
B. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.Explanation
The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 (Command, Control, Communications, and Computers) systems for combatant commanders. They have the capability to do this anywhere at any time, making them the unit that fulfills this role.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- D.
Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
Correct Answer
A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).Explanation
The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community aims to reduce training and enhance the warfighter capacity. This implies that the ESU is focused on streamlining processes and providing efficient services to the warfighters, allowing them to focus more on their core duties rather than spending excessive time on training or dealing with technical issues. By doing so, the ESU contributes to increasing the overall operational readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?
- A.
Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
Area Processing Center (APC).
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- D.
Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
Correct Answer
B. Area Processing Center (APC).Explanation
The correct answer is Area Processing Center (APC). Regional computing and data centers, such as the APC, provide enterprise services like messaging, web access, and storage. These centers are responsible for processing and managing data for a specific geographical area or region. They ensure that businesses have access to essential services and resources for their operations.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
- A.
Manpower.
- B.
Efficiency.
- C.
Reduce costs.
- D.
Department of Defense 8570 mandate
Correct Answer
B. Efficiency.Explanation
The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, eliminate redundancies, and optimize resource allocation. This consolidation allows for better coordination and communication, leading to faster response times, improved problem resolution, and overall increased efficiency in managing network operations and providing IT support services.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
- A.
2009.
- B.
2010.
- C.
2011.
- D.
2012.
Correct Answer
B. 2010.Explanation
In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which allowed support to all locations within a single ticketing system. This means that starting from 2010, the Air Force had a unified ticketing system that provided support to all locations, making it more efficient and streamlined.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
- A.
Subordinate unified command and geographical command.
- B.
Unified command and subordinate unified command.
- C.
Functional command and geographical command.
- D.
Unified command and functional command.
Correct Answer
B. Unified command and subordinate unified command.Explanation
Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: unified command and subordinate unified command. Unified command refers to the overall command structure responsible for coordinating and directing the JTF's operations. Subordinate unified command, on the other hand, refers to the lower level command structures that are responsible for executing specific tasks and reporting to the unified command. This division allows for effective coordination and delegation of tasks within the JTF, ensuring efficient and organized operations.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
- A.
Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).
- B.
Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).
- C.
Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).
- D.
Joint Force Commander (JFC).
Correct Answer
D. Joint Force Commander (JFC).Explanation
The correct answer is Joint Force Commander (JFC). The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). The JFC is responsible for the overall planning and execution of joint military operations involving multiple services and components. They coordinate and integrate air and space forces from different branches to achieve the objectives of the joint force.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?
- A.
Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).
- B.
Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).
- C.
Unit type codes (UTC)
- D.
Stratum levels (SL).
Correct Answer
A. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).Explanation
The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology involves organizing and deploying Air Force personnel, equipment, and capabilities in a structured and rotational manner to meet operational requirements. The AEF system ensures that forces are readily available and capable of supporting combatant commanders' needs, while also allowing for predictable and sustainable deployments.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
- A.
Coding.
- B.
Positioning.
- C.
Tempo bands.
- D.
Unit type code.
Correct Answer
D. Unit type code.Explanation
Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes help in organizing and coordinating the deployment of forces by providing a common language and understanding of the capabilities and requirements of different units. By using unit type codes, planners can efficiently allocate resources and ensure that the right units are deployed for specific missions or operations.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?
- A.
Service Transition.
- B.
Service Strategy.
- C.
Service Contact
- D.
Service Design
Correct Answer
C. Service ContactExplanation
The correct answer is Service Contact. This is not one of the stages in the ITIL Service Life Cycle. The ITIL Service Life Cycle consists of five stages: Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not a recognized stage in this framework.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?
- A.
A rewriting of the main point.
- B.
A well-written summary
- C.
A postscript message.
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
B. A well-written summaryExplanation
A well-written summary tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose. It requires you to condense the main points of the message into a concise and clear summary, demonstrating your comprehension of the content and your ability to communicate it effectively.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
- A.
Continual Service Improvement.
- B.
Service Transition.
- C.
Service Strategy.
- D.
Service Design.
Correct Answer
A. Continual Service Improvement.Explanation
Continual Service Improvement is the stage in the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) that focuses on maintaining service quality. This stage involves constantly evaluating and improving the effectiveness and efficiency of IT services to meet the changing needs of the business. It includes activities such as monitoring performance, identifying areas for improvement, implementing changes, and measuring the impact of those changes. By continuously striving to improve service quality, organizations can ensure that their IT services align with business objectives and deliver value to customers.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
- A.
Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment
- B.
Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
- C.
Improve the effectiveness of the mission.
- D.
Improve the efficiency of the mission.
Correct Answer
B. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.Explanation
The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to empower users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to provide tools and resources that enable users to effectively utilize and leverage information across the entire organization. By doing so, EIM can help improve decision-making, enhance productivity, and drive innovation within the enterprise.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
- A.
Article 32.
- B.
Article 40.
- C.
Article 92.
- D.
Article 100.
Correct Answer
C. Article 92.Explanation
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. This article pertains to the failure to obey orders or regulations and includes acts such as willfully disobeying a lawful order, dereliction of duty, and failure to follow instructions. In this case, not adhering to the guidelines outlined in AFMAN 33-153 would be considered a violation of Article 92.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 23, 2017Quiz Created by
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