Purpose Of The Mishap Prevention Program Quiz
Do you want to know more about the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program? Let's take this quiz and learn more about it now!
- 1.
(201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200.
- B.
AFI 91–202.
- C.
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200.
- D.
AFMAN 91–202.
Correct Answer
B. AFI 91–202. -
- 2.
(201) What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
- B.
Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
- C.
Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
- D.
Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer
D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.Explanation
The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from potential harm. This program aims to prevent any damage, loss, injury, or even death that may occur as a result of accidents or mishaps. By implementing safety measures and protocols, the program ensures the well-being and safety of both the organization's assets and its personnel.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(201) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
- A.
Commerce.
- B.
The Treasury.
- C.
Defense.
- D.
Labor.
Correct Answer
D. Labor.Explanation
The correct answer is Labor. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a regulatory agency that falls under the United States Department of Labor. OSHA's main objective is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees by enforcing workplace safety regulations, providing training, and conducting inspections.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(201) Whose responsibility is to advise commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
- A.
Air Staff.
- B.
Civil Engineering.
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Installation safety office.
Correct Answer
D. Installation safety office.Explanation
The installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They are specifically designated to ensure the implementation of safety protocols and guidelines, providing guidance and support to all personnel regarding safety practices and regulations. Their role is crucial in maintaining a safe working environment and preventing accidents or incidents on the installation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(201) What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
- A.
Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO).
- B.
Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).
- C.
Review AF Form 55.
- D.
Certify the employee.
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA).Explanation
Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves carefully examining the task to identify potential hazards and develop appropriate safety measures. By conducting a JSA, supervisors can ensure that employees are aware of the risks associated with the task and are adequately prepared to mitigate them. This helps to promote a safe working environment and prevent accidents or injuries.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
- A.
475.
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
C. 978.Explanation
Air Force (AF) form 978 is used to report ground mishaps. This form is specifically designed to document any accidents or incidents that occur on the ground involving Air Force personnel, equipment, or facilities. It is an important tool for gathering information and conducting investigations to prevent similar mishaps in the future.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(201) What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
- A.
475.
- B.
480.
- C.
978.
- D.
980.
Correct Answer
A. 475.Explanation
The correct answer is 475. This form is used to report a hazard in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?
- A.
Physiological, physical, stress.
- B.
Physiological, Physical, social.
- C.
Stress, organizational, physical.
- D.
Physical, physiological, organizational.
Correct Answer
D. pHysical, pHysiological, organizational.Explanation
The three sub-categories that make up human factors are physical, physiological, and organizational. Physical factors refer to the physical environment and conditions in which humans operate. Physiological factors relate to the capabilities and limitations of the human body, including sensory and cognitive processes. Organizational factors encompass the social and organizational aspects that influence human performance, such as communication, teamwork, and workload distribution.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(202) Which action is a physiological factor?
- A.
Performing a task while fatigued.
- B.
Performing a task while intoxicated.
- C.
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
- D.
Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.
Correct Answer
C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders. -
- 10.
(202) Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering.
- B.
Installation safety office.
- C.
Base civil engineer.
- D.
Supervisors.
Correct Answer
A. Bioenvironmental Engineering.Explanation
Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for recommending controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the potential risks and develop appropriate measures to protect the health and safety of individuals. This includes conducting assessments, providing guidance on protective equipment, implementing control measures, and monitoring the effectiveness of these measures. They work closely with other stakeholders such as the installation safety office, base civil engineer, and supervisors to ensure a comprehensive approach to health risk management.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
- A.
Isolating operations.
- B.
Providing administrative controls.
- C.
Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).
- D.
Substitution a less hazardous material or process.
Correct Answer
C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE).Explanation
The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. While PPE can provide some level of protection, it does not eliminate the hazard at its source and may not be effective in all situations. It is more effective to eliminate or reduce hazards through methods such as isolating operations, providing administrative controls, or substituting a less hazardous material or process. PPE should be used in conjunction with other control measures to provide a comprehensive approach to hazard control.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(202) How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
B. Two.Explanation
Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to protect against two different levels of impact. The classifications are usually determined by the type and amount of force that the hardhat can withstand. Having two impact classifications allows for better protection in different work environments, ensuring that workers are adequately shielded from potential head injuries.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(202) Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
- A.
A.
- B.
C.
- C.
E.
- D.
G.
Correct Answer
B. C.Explanation
Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. This is because helmet class C is a conductive helmet, meaning it is designed to conduct electricity and does not provide insulation against electrical hazards. Helmet classes A and E provide protection against contact with electrical conductors, while helmet class G provides protection against contact with low-voltage electrical conductors.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
- A.
Falls.
- B.
Poor lighting.
- C.
Horseplay.
- D.
Poor ergonomics.
Correct Answer
A. Falls.Explanation
Falls are the greatest hazard in a typical office environment. This is because slips, trips, and falls are common accidents that can lead to serious injuries. Factors such as wet floors, cluttered walkways, improper footwear, and lack of handrails contribute to the risk of falls. It is important for employers to maintain a safe working environment by ensuring proper housekeeping, providing slip-resistant flooring, and promoting awareness among employees to prevent falls.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(203) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
- A.
1 to 2.
- B.
2 to 2.5.
- C.
2 to 4.5.
- D.
2.5 to 3.
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 2.5.Explanation
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
- A.
8.
- B.
9.
- C.
10.
- D.
11.
Correct Answer
C. 10.Explanation
Chapter 10 in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(203) How are fires classified?
- A.
Fuel type.
- B.
Heat source.
- C.
Temperature.
- D.
Atmospheric conditions.
Correct Answer
A. Fuel type.Explanation
Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different fuels produce different types of fires, such as Class A fires involving ordinary combustible materials like wood or paper, Class B fires involving flammable liquids or gases, Class C fires involving electrical equipment, and so on. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters and emergency responders can determine the appropriate extinguishing methods and safety precautions to effectively control and extinguish the fire.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(203) What classification do flammable liquids receive?
- A.
Class A.
- B.
Class B.
- C.
Class C.
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
B. Class B.Explanation
Flammable liquids receive the classification of Class B. This classification is given to liquids that have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit. Class B liquids are highly flammable and can easily ignite and burn. They include substances such as gasoline, ethanol, and acetone. It is important to handle and store Class B liquids with caution to prevent accidents and fires.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(203) Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
- A.
Class A.
- B.
Class B.
- C.
Class C.
- D.
Class D.
Correct Answer
C. Class C.Explanation
When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they will change to Class C. This change in classification occurs because the introduction of an electric current can cause these fuels to become conductive, increasing the risk of electrical hazards. Class C fuels are those that have a higher conductivity and are more likely to conduct electricity, making them potentially more dangerous in the presence of electrical equipment or sources.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(203) What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building.
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible.
- C.
Call the fire department.
- D.
Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
D. Sound the fire alarm.Explanation
When encountering a fire, the first action to take should be to sound the fire alarm. This is important because it alerts everyone in the building to the presence of a fire and allows them to begin evacuating immediately. Evacuating personnel from the building should be the next step, followed by calling the fire department for professional assistance. While extinguishing the fire if possible is a valid action, it should only be attempted if it can be done safely and does not delay the evacuation process.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(203) What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building.
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible.
- C.
Call the fire department.
- D.
Sound the fire alarm.
Correct Answer
B. Extinguish the fire if possible.Explanation
The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate fire extinguishing methods and equipment to try and eliminate the fire. It is an important step in preventing the fire from spreading further and causing more damage. Evacuating personnel from the building, calling the fire department, and sounding the fire alarm are also important steps in the firefighting procedure, but they are not specifically mentioned as the fourth step.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(203) Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
- A.
50.
- B.
40.
- C.
20.
- D.
10.
Correct Answer
A. 50.Explanation
Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps can cause cardiac arrest. This level of current is considered extremely dangerous and can disrupt the normal electrical signals of the heart, leading to a potentially fatal condition. It is important to avoid exposure to such high levels of current to prevent cardiac emergencies.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(203) Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
- A.
Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
- B.
Carrying material while ascending of descending a ladder.
- C.
Using a ladder as a scaffold.
- D.
Using a homemade ladder.
Correct Answer
A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.Explanation
Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a risk of electric shock or electrocution. However, using a ladder as a scaffold, carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder, and using a homemade ladder may all be prohibited because they can increase the risk of falls and accidents.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
- D.
Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.Explanation
The action of applying the risk management process irregularly and continuously is not a part of risk management. Risk management involves accepting no unnecessary risk, making risk decisions at the appropriate level, and integrating risk management into operations and planning at all levels. Applying the process irregularly and continuously would be inconsistent and ineffective in managing risks.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(204) The risk management process includes how many steps?
- A.
Four.
- B.
Five.
- C.
Six.
- D.
Seven.
Correct Answer
B. Five.Explanation
The risk management process includes five steps. These steps involve identifying risks, assessing and analyzing them, developing strategies to mitigate them, implementing the strategies, and monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of the risk management plan. Each step is crucial in effectively managing risks and ensuring the success of a project or business.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
D. Four.Explanation
The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is composed of four volumes. Each volume provides guidance and standards for different aspects of the framework, including the overall architecture, the data and information exchange, the systems, and the technical standards. These volumes work together to establish a comprehensive and standardized approach to architecture development within the Department of Defense.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(205) Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
- A.
Office of Administration.
- B.
Office of Communications.
- C.
Office of Public Engagement.
- D.
Office of Management and Budget.
Correct Answer
D. Office of Management and Budget.Explanation
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments. This evaluation is done through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management. The OMB plays a crucial role in overseeing and managing the federal budget, including the allocation of funds for IT investments. They ensure that agencies are making effective and efficient use of resources and that the investments align with the overall goals and priorities of the government.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
- A.
State level.
- B.
Federal level.
- C.
Congressional level.
- D.
Department of Defense level.
Correct Answer
B. Federal level.Explanation
The correct answer is Federal level. Air Force architectures are developed based on requirements mandated at the federal level. This means that the development of these architectures is guided by the needs and regulations set by the federal government, specifically those related to the Air Force. These requirements ensure that the architectures align with national objectives and priorities, and that they effectively support the Air Force's mission and operations.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
- A.
Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.
- B.
Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.
- C.
Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
- D.
Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.
Correct Answer
C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.Explanation
The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes information related to the installation, such as project documentation, approvals, and permits. The drawing record contains all the diagrams, plans, and layouts of the installation. The maintenance record documents the maintenance activities performed on the system, including repairs, upgrades, and inspections. These three parts together provide a comprehensive record of the installation, ensuring that all necessary information is documented and easily accessible.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
- A.
Administrative record.
- B.
Maintenance record.
- C.
Drawing record.
- D.
Outage record.
Correct Answer
C. Drawing record.Explanation
The part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) that depicts the physical layout of communications and information systems and provides engineering data is the drawing record. This record includes detailed drawings and diagrams that show the placement and configuration of the systems, as well as any necessary engineering specifications. It is an important resource for understanding the physical aspects of the installation and ensuring proper maintenance and troubleshooting.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
- A.
Administrative record.
- B.
Maintenance record.
- C.
Drawing record.
- D.
Outage record.
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance record.Explanation
The correct answer is "Maintenance record." In a Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR), the maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center. This record contains information about the maintenance activities performed on the communication and information systems, including repairs, inspections, and upgrades. It helps to track the maintenance history and ensure that the systems are functioning properly. The maintenance record is crucial for troubleshooting issues, planning future maintenance tasks, and ensuring the overall reliability and performance of the systems.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(207) What functions do the seven layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?
- A.
Programming.
- B.
Transport.
- C.
Network.
- D.
Data.
Correct Answer
C. Network.Explanation
The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions within a network. The Network layer, specifically, is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets between different networks. It ensures that data is properly addressed, routed, and delivered to the correct destination. This layer also handles the logical addressing and subnetting of networks, allowing for efficient and reliable communication between devices across different networks.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.
- A.
Data Transport and Application.
- B.
Session and Data Transport.
- C.
Network and Presentation.
- D.
Application and Session.
Correct Answer
A. Data Transport and Application.Explanation
The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The OSI reference model consists of seven layers, which are divided into two categories. The lower category includes the Physical, Data Link, and Network layers, while the upper category includes the Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application layers. The Data Transport layer is responsible for reliable end-to-end delivery of data, while the Application layer provides services for user applications.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(207) The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
- A.
Transport.
- B.
Data Link.
- C.
Physical.
- D.
Session.
Correct Answer
B. Data Link.Explanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for error detection and correction, as well as controlling the flow of data between devices on the same network. The LLC sublayer specifically handles the logical communication between devices, including addressing and sequencing of data frames. Therefore, the correct answer is Data Link.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(207) What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
- B.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium.
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
B. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.Explanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for providing a reliable and error-free link between the sender and receiver. It handles flow control, error detection and correction, and sequencing of frames. By managing communications over a single link, the LLC sublayer ensures that data is successfully transmitted between devices within the same network segment.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(207) What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
- B.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium.
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
C. Protocol access to the pHysical network medium.Explanation
The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network access and use the physical medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies, for communication. The MAC sublayer ensures that devices take turns using the medium, avoid collisions, and adhere to the specific protocols and rules for accessing the network medium.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(208) When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network’s
- A.
Transport topology.
- B.
Physical topology.
- C.
Physical medium.
- D.
Logical topology.
Correct Answer
B. pHysical topology.Explanation
When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's physical topology. This means that it is referring to the physical layout or arrangement of the network, including the physical connections between devices and the overall structure of the network. It does not refer to the logical arrangement or the specific physical medium used for communication.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
- A.
Star.
- B.
Ring.
- C.
Loop.
- D.
Linear.
Correct Answer
D. Linear.Explanation
A bus topology is a network configuration where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. The term "linear" is synonymous with a bus topology because the devices are arranged in a straight line, with each device connected to the main cable. The other options, such as star, ring, and loop, refer to different network topologies with distinct configurations and connectivity patterns.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(208) What topology offers centralized management of a network?
- A.
Bus.
- B.
Star.
- C.
Ring.
- D.
Radial.
Correct Answer
B. Star.Explanation
The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which allows for easy monitoring and control of the network. The central hub acts as a central point of control, making it easier to manage and troubleshoot network issues. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and scalability compared to other topologies like bus or ring, making it a preferred choice for networks that require centralized management.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(208) What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
- A.
There are no negative effects.
- B.
A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.
- C.
Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.
- D.
When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
Correct Answer
D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.Explanation
When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage the communication between devices. If this central node point fails, it can cause large portions of the network to become isolated, resulting in a loss of communication between those devices. This can have a negative effect on the overall network connectivity and functionality.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(209) Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
- A.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
- B.
Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
- C.
Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
- D.
Department of Defense (DOD).
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).Explanation
The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body responsible for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. They provide secure and reliable communications and IT services to the DOD and other government agencies. DISA ensures that the DOD's information systems are protected, connected, and capable of supporting military operations. They also play a crucial role in the development and implementation of IT policies and standards for the DOD.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(210) What is a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) socket?
- A.
Regular of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
- B.
Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).
- C.
Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.
- D.
Preventer of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
Correct Answer
C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.Explanation
A TCP socket is a combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers. This means that when a process wants to communicate over a network, it needs to specify a port number and an IP address to establish a connection with another process on a different machine. The TCP socket acts as a unique identifier for the process, allowing it to send and receive data over the network.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
- A.
Request network services and pass arguments between layers.
- B.
Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.
- C.
Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
- D.
Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
Correct Answer
D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.Explanation
A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the flow of data between the sender and receiver. It allows the sender to transmit a certain amount of data before waiting for an acknowledgement from the receiver. This helps in preventing network congestion by ensuring that the transmitting device does not overwhelm the receiving device with too much data at once. Once the receiver acknowledges the received data, the window slides forward, allowing the sender to transmit more data.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(211) What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
- A.
Version Identification.
- B.
Header Checksum.
- C.
Time to Live.
- D.
Flags.
Correct Answer
B. Header Checksum.Explanation
The correct answer is Header Checksum. The Header Checksum portion of the IP Datagram allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them. The checksum is a value calculated from the header contents, and it is included in the header itself. When the receiving IP checks the checksum, it recalculates the value based on the received header and compares it to the included checksum. If they don't match, it means the header has been corrupted during transmission, and the datagram is discarded. This helps ensure the integrity of the IP packets being transmitted over the network.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(211) What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?
- A.
239.
- B.
254.
- C.
255.
- D.
256.
Correct Answer
C. 255.Explanation
The maximum value of an octet in Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) is 255. An octet is a group of 8 bits, and in IPv4, each octet represents a number ranging from 0 to 255. This allows for a total of 256 possible values, starting from 0 and ending at 255. Therefore, 255 is the highest value that can be assigned to an octet in IPv4.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(211) Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
- A.
Class A address.
- B.
Class B address.
- C.
Class C address.
- D.
Class D address.
Correct Answer
C. Class C address.Explanation
Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In Class C addresses, the first three octets are used for network identification, while the last octet is used for host identification. Since there are 8 bits in the last octet, it can represent a maximum of 256 different values. However, two of these values are reserved for network address (all bits set to 0) and broadcast address (all bits set to 1). Therefore, the actual number of usable hosts per network is 256-2=254.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(211) What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
- A.
Class A address.
- B.
Class B address.
- C.
Class C address.
- D.
Class D address.
Correct Answer
D. Class D address.Explanation
Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a method of sending data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. In IPv4, multicast addresses are identified by the range of addresses starting from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. These addresses are used for applications such as video streaming, online gaming, and audio conferencing, where data needs to be sent to multiple recipients at the same time. Class D addresses are specifically designated for multicast communication and are not used for traditional unicast or broadcast communication.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(212) What range of numbers are those of well know port numbers?
- A.
0–1023.
- B.
1024–49151.
- C.
49152–65535.
- D.
65536–87000.
Correct Answer
A. 0–1023.Explanation
The range of numbers that are well known port numbers is 0-1023. Well known port numbers are assigned to specific services or protocols and are commonly used by applications for communication. These port numbers are standardized and recognized by most operating systems and networking devices.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(213) What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?
- A.
ROM is volatile, RAM in non-volatile.
- B.
ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.
- C.
RAM has a slower access time versus ROM.
- D.
ROM has a slower access time versus RAM.
Correct Answer
B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile.Explanation
The major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM) is their volatility. ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when power is turned off. On the other hand, RAM is volatile, which means that it loses its data when power is turned off.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?
- A.
Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM).
- B.
Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.
- C.
Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.
- D.
Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.
Correct Answer
C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data.Explanation
The main purpose of system cache is to reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache is a small, high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions. By keeping this data closer to the CPU, it reduces the time it takes for the CPU to access the data from the main memory or other storage devices. This helps in improving the overall system performance and efficiency.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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May 17, 2016Quiz Created by
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