2f051 Edit Code 6 Volume 1
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(001) The general Air Force specialty code (AFSC) used when you entered basic training is
- A.
A. 2F011.
- B.
B. 2F031.
- C.
C. 2F051.
- D.
D. 9T000.
Correct Answer
D. D. 9T000.Explanation
The correct answer is d. 9T000. This is because the general Air Force specialty code (AFSC) used when entering basic training is typically a code that represents a general career field, such as logistics or transportation. The AFSC 9T000 represents the Transportation career field, which includes various roles related to the movement of personnel and cargo. The other options provided (2F011, 2F031, and 2F051) do not correspond to general AFSCs used in basic training.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(001) What character in the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is used to identify the Fuels career field?
- A.
0
- B.
2
- C.
F
- D.
X
Correct Answer
C. FExplanation
The correct answer is F. In the Air Force specialty code (AFSC), the character F is used to identify the Fuels career field.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(002) Who forms a team to maintain command and control of the flight and is referred to as the Fuels Management Team?
- A.
Fuels manager and fuels supervisor.
- B.
Flight commander and fuels manager.
- C.
Fuels superintendent and fuels manager.
- D.
Flight commander and fuels supervisor.
Correct Answer
B. Flight commander and fuels manager.Explanation
The correct answer is Flight commander and fuels manager. The flight commander is responsible for overall command and control of the flight, while the fuels manager is responsible for managing the fuel resources. Together, they form a team to maintain command and control of the flight and ensure efficient fuel management. The other options do not include the flight commander, who plays a crucial role in the team.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(002) Unit type codes have how many alphanumeric characters designating a manpower, equipment, or both manpower and equipment force that is tasked with completing a specific mission?
- A.
Six
- B.
Five
- C.
Four
- D.
Three
Correct Answer
B. FiveExplanation
Unit type codes have five alphanumeric characters designating a manpower, equipment, or both manpower and equipment force that is tasked with completing a specific mission.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(003) A three-digit code that identifies personnel with special training or experience to meet contingency and base-level requirements is called a
- A.
Special experience indicator.
- B.
Special experience identifier.
- C.
Specific experience indicator.
- D.
Specific experience identifier.
Correct Answer
B. Special experience identifier.Explanation
A three-digit code that identifies personnel with special training or experience to meet contingency and base-level requirements is called a special experience identifier. This code is used to distinguish individuals who have specific expertise or qualifications that are necessary for certain tasks or roles. It allows organizations to quickly identify and assign personnel with the necessary skills and experience to handle specific situations or requirements.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(003) What system was developed to complement and eventually replace the Fuels Support Equipment components?
- A.
Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery.
- B.
Forward Area Refueling Point Equipment.
- C.
Cryotainer Maintenance and Support Equipment.
- D.
Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment.
Correct Answer
D. Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment.Explanation
The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment was developed to complement and eventually replace the Fuels Support Equipment components. This system is designed to enhance the operational readiness and efficiency of fuel support operations. It includes various equipment and tools that are essential for fuel storage, distribution, and maintenance. By utilizing this system, the military can ensure a reliable and effective fuel supply chain, thereby supporting mission success.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(003) The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) System is not capable of
- A.
Aircraft refueling.
- B.
Aircraft defueling.
- C.
Tank truck off-loading.
- D.
Storage bladder transferring.
Correct Answer
B. Aircraft defueling.Explanation
The Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) System is a system that is not capable of aircraft defueling. This means that it cannot be used to remove fuel from aircraft. The system may be capable of other functions such as aircraft refueling, tank truck off-loading, and storage bladder transferring, but it does not have the capability to perform aircraft defueling.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(004) Technical orders (TO) that cover installing, operating, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling Air Force military systems are called
- A.
Index TO.
- B.
Time compliance TOs (TCTO).
- C.
Operations and maintenance TOs.
- D.
Methods and procedures TOs (MPTO).
Correct Answer
C. Operations and maintenance TOs.Explanation
Operations and maintenance TOs are technical orders that provide instructions for installing, operating, troubleshooting, repairing, calibrating, servicing, or handling Air Force military systems. These TOs cover a wide range of tasks related to the maintenance and operation of military systems, ensuring that they are kept in proper working condition and are used correctly. Index TOs, Time compliance TOs, and Methods and procedures TOs may cover other aspects of military systems, but they do not specifically focus on the operations and maintenance tasks mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(004) Which technical order is issued to prevent use of equipment or procedures due tohazardous safety conditions that could cause a serious injury or death?
- A.
Safety.
- B.
Abbreviated.
- C.
Time compliance.
- D.
Methods and procedures.
Correct Answer
C. Time compliance.Explanation
A time compliance technical order is issued to prevent the use of equipment or procedures due to hazardous safety conditions that could cause serious injury or death. This type of technical order specifies a deadline by which the equipment or procedures must be updated or replaced to ensure safety.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(004) Which specialized publications are primarily used to organize and simplify instructions?
- A.
Time compliance technical orders.
- B.
Technical manual supplements.
- C.
Abbreviated technical orders.
- D.
Commercial technical orders.
Correct Answer
C. Abbreviated technical orders.Explanation
Abbreviated technical orders are specialized publications primarily used to organize and simplify instructions. These orders provide concise and condensed versions of the information found in full-length technical manuals or other technical publications. They are designed to make instructions more accessible and easier to understand, particularly in situations where time is limited or when a quick reference is needed.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(004) The technical order (TO) that explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs is
- A.
TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.
- B.
TO 00–5–15, AF Time Compliance Technical Order Process.
- C.
TO 00–5–18. Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Numbering System.
- D.
TO 00–5–3, Methods and Procedures AF Technical Order Life cycle Management.
Correct Answer
A. TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.Explanation
The correct answer is TO 00-5-1, AF Technical Order System because it specifically explains the procedures for reporting improvements in TOs. The other options may be related to technical orders or procedures, but they do not specifically address reporting improvements in TOs.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(004) Which form would you most likely use to report technical order (TO) deficiencies?
- A.
AF Form 457, USAF Hazard Report.
- B.
AFTO Form 422, Differential Pressure Log.
- C.
AF Form 847, Recommendation for Change of Publication.
- D.
AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.
Correct Answer
D. AFTO Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply.Explanation
AFTO Form 22 is used to report technical manual (TM) deficiencies and recommend changes. It is specifically designed for this purpose and is the most appropriate form to report TO deficiencies. AF Form 457 is used to report hazards, AFTO Form 422 is used to record differential pressure measurements, and AF Form 847 is used to recommend changes in publications, but none of these forms are specifically designed for reporting TO deficiencies. Therefore, AFTO Form 22 is the most likely form to use for reporting TO deficiencies.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(004) Which improvement recommendation should be submitted for a technical order (TO) deficiency that would result in a fatal or serious injury to personnel, or destruction of equipment?
- A.
Urgent.
- B.
Routine.
- C.
Emergency.
- D.
Time compliance.
Correct Answer
C. Emergency.Explanation
The improvement recommendation that should be submitted for a technical order (TO) deficiency that would result in a fatal or serious injury to personnel, or destruction of equipment is "Emergency." This means that the issue is of utmost urgency and immediate action is required to prevent any harm or damage.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(004) Within how many hours is the responsible technical content manager required to take action on a technical order (TO) emergency improvement recommendation report?
- A.
6
- B.
12
- C.
24
- D.
48
Correct Answer
D. 48Explanation
The responsible technical content manager is required to take action on a technical order (TO) emergency improvement recommendation report within 48 hours. This means that they have a maximum of 48 hours to review the report, assess the recommendations, and implement any necessary improvements or changes. It is important for the manager to act promptly in order to address any urgent issues or concerns identified in the report.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(004) What type of recommendation must the technical content manager take action on within 40 days?
- A.
Urgent.
- B.
Routine.
- C.
Emergency.
- D.
Critical hazard.
Correct Answer
A. Urgent.Explanation
The technical content manager must take action on a recommendation that is labeled as "urgent" within 40 days. This suggests that the recommendation requires immediate attention and cannot be delayed. The manager should prioritize this recommendation over others and address it promptly to prevent any potential negative consequences or delays in the technical content.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(004) Which technical order (TO) improvement recommendation requires a reply within 45 days?
- A.
Urgent.
- B.
Routine.
- C.
Emergency.
- D.
Critical hazard.
Correct Answer
B. Routine.Explanation
The correct answer is Routine. This is because routine technical order (TO) improvement recommendations require a reply within 45 days. Urgent, emergency, and critical hazard TO improvement recommendations may require immediate action or a quicker response time, but they do not specifically require a reply within 45 days.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(005) Which type of Air Force publication includes instructions and manuals?
- A.
Standard.
- B.
Technical.
- C.
Recurring.
- D.
Specialized.
Correct Answer
A. Standard.Explanation
Standard Air Force publications include instructions and manuals. These publications provide standardized guidance and procedures for various tasks and operations within the Air Force. They serve as a reference for personnel to ensure consistency and uniformity in carrying out their duties. Technical publications, on the other hand, focus on specific technical information and procedures related to equipment and systems. Recurring publications cover routine and regularly occurring topics, while specialized publications are tailored to specific areas or functions within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(005) An example of a directive standard publication is a
- A.
Bulletin.
- B.
Pamphlet.
- C.
Staff digest.
- D.
Supplement.
Correct Answer
D. Supplement.Explanation
A directive standard publication is a type of publication that provides specific instructions or guidance on a particular topic. A supplement is a publication that is added to an existing publication to provide additional or updated information. Therefore, a supplement would be an example of a directive standard publication as it is designed to provide additional guidance or instructions on a specific topic.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(005) Publications that set up the standard of management and control the official business of the Air Force are called
- A.
Manuals.
- B.
Pamphlets.
- C.
Instructions.
- D.
Operating instructions.
Correct Answer
C. Instructions.Explanation
Publications that set up the standard of management and control the official business of the Air Force are called "instructions". Instructions are typically detailed documents that provide guidance and direction on how to perform specific tasks or procedures. They are used to ensure consistency and efficiency in the execution of official business within the Air Force. Manuals, pamphlets, and operating instructions may also be used in the Air Force, but instructions specifically refer to the publications that establish management standards and control procedures.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(006) What characteristic refers to how easy a liquid changes into a vapor state?
- A.
Viscosity.
- B.
Volatility.
- C.
Boiling point.
- D.
Vapor pressure.
Correct Answer
B. Volatility.Explanation
Volatility refers to the characteristic of how easily a liquid changes into a vapor state. It is a measure of the tendency of a substance to vaporize. A highly volatile liquid evaporates quickly at room temperature, while a less volatile liquid evaporates more slowly. This property is often used to determine the evaporation rate of solvents and fuels.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(006) Which term is used to describe the temperature at which a liquid actively starts to vaporize?
- A.
Volatility.
- B.
Fire point.
- C.
Flash point.
- D.
Boiling point.
Correct Answer
D. Boiling point.Explanation
The term "boiling point" is used to describe the temperature at which a liquid actively starts to vaporize. This is the point at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the atmospheric pressure, causing bubbles of vapor to form throughout the liquid. The other options, volatility, fire point, and flash point, are not specifically related to the temperature at which vaporization begins.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(006) What term is used to describe the ability of a substance to support combustion?
- A.
Volatility.
- B.
Fire point.
- C.
Flash point.
- D.
Flammability.
Correct Answer
D. Flammability.Explanation
Flammability is the correct answer because it refers to the ability of a substance to support combustion. Flammable substances are those that can easily catch fire and burn when exposed to a heat source or an open flame. The term "volatility" refers to the tendency of a substance to vaporize, while "fire point" and "flash point" are specific temperatures at which a substance will ignite or produce a flammable vapor, respectively. Therefore, flammability is the most appropriate term to describe the ability of a substance to support combustion.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(006) What is the minimum temperature in degrees Fahrenheit (°F) at which combustible liquids have a flash point?
- A.
100 F
- B.
120 F
- C.
140 F
- D.
150 F
Correct Answer
A. 100 FExplanation
Combustible liquids have a flash point, which is the minimum temperature at which they can produce enough vapor to ignite when exposed to an open flame or spark. The flash point is the lowest temperature at which the liquid can release enough vapors to form a flammable mixture with air. In this case, the correct answer is 100 F, indicating that combustible liquids can have a flash point at or above this temperature.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(006) What temperature in degrees Fahrenheit (°F) is the minimum flash point of JP–5 jet fuel?
- A.
-20 F
- B.
-40 F
- C.
100 F
- D.
140 F
Correct Answer
D. 140 FExplanation
The minimum flash point of JP-5 jet fuel is 140 degrees Fahrenheit. The flash point is the lowest temperature at which the fuel can produce enough vapor to ignite in the presence of an ignition source. This means that JP-5 jet fuel will not ignite at temperatures below 140 degrees Fahrenheit.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(006) The lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid gives off sufficient vapors, when mixed with air to support combustion, is known as a product’s
- A.
Fire point.
- B.
Flash point.
- C.
Lower flammable limit.
- D.
Auto ignition temperature.
Correct Answer
A. Fire point.Explanation
The fire point is the lowest temperature at which a flammable liquid gives off sufficient vapors, when mixed with air, to support combustion. This means that at the fire point, the liquid is heated enough to release vapors that can ignite and sustain a fire. The flash point, on the other hand, is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air, but not necessarily sustain combustion. The lower flammable limit refers to the minimum concentration of a flammable substance in air that will ignite, while the auto ignition temperature is the lowest temperature at which a substance can ignite without an external ignition source.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(006) What is the freeze point for Jet-A jet fuel?
- A.
–40 degrees Fahrenheit (F).
- B.
–58 degrees Celsius (C).
- C.
–51 °F.
- D.
–40 °C.
Correct Answer
A. –40 degrees Fahrenheit (F).Explanation
The freeze point for Jet-A jet fuel is -40 degrees Fahrenheit (°F). This means that at temperatures below -40°F, the jet fuel will solidify and become unusable. It is important for aircraft operators to be aware of the freeze point of the fuel to ensure that it does not freeze during flight or while stored in cold temperatures.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(006) The ability of a material to transmit or conduct electricity is known as
- A.
Resistivity.
- B.
Conductivity.
- C.
Flammability.
- D.
Current density.
Correct Answer
B. Conductivity.Explanation
Conductivity refers to the ability of a material to transmit or conduct electricity. It is a measure of how easily electrons can move through a material. Materials with high conductivity allow electric current to flow easily, while materials with low conductivity impede the flow of electric current. Resistivity, on the other hand, is the opposite of conductivity and measures how much a material resists the flow of electric current. Flammability and current density are unrelated to the ability to transmit or conduct electricity.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(007) At what temperature in degrees Fahrenheit (°F) will liquid oxygen (LOX) vaporize into a gaseous state?
- A.
-297 F
- B.
-321 F
- C.
-379 F
- D.
-395 F
Correct Answer
A. -297 FExplanation
Liquid oxygen (LOX) vaporizes into a gaseous state at a temperature of -297 degrees Fahrenheit.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(007) How many cubic feet of gaseous oxygen at atmospheric pressure will one cubic foot (7.5 gallons) of liquid oxygen (LOX) expand to?
- A.
500
- B.
760
- C.
800
- D.
860
Correct Answer
D. 860Explanation
When liquid oxygen (LOX) is converted to gaseous oxygen, it expands in volume. The question asks how many cubic feet of gaseous oxygen one cubic foot of liquid oxygen will expand to at atmospheric pressure. The correct answer is 860 cubic feet. This means that when the liquid oxygen is converted to gas, it will increase in volume by a factor of 860.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(007) Which is not a hazard of liquid nitrogen?
- A.
Reduces the concentration of oxygen.
- B.
Freezes or badly damages human tissue upon contact.
- C.
Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel.
- D.
Builds up to tremendous pressure if it evaporates in a confined area.
Correct Answer
C. Burns or explodes upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel.Explanation
Liquid nitrogen does not burn or explode upon contact with oil, grease, and jet fuel. It is a cryogenic liquid that can cause severe frostbite or tissue damage upon contact with skin or other organic materials due to its extremely low temperature. It can also reduce the concentration of oxygen in an area if it evaporates, potentially leading to asphyxiation. Additionally, if liquid nitrogen evaporates in a confined area, it can build up to high pressure, posing a risk of explosion. However, it does not have a direct reaction with oil, grease, or jet fuel that would cause burning or explosion.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(008) Much time and expense are involved in investigating and
- A.
Solving accidents.
- B.
Reporting accidents.
- C.
Validating accidents.
- D.
Discovering accidents.
Correct Answer
B. Reporting accidents.Explanation
The correct answer is reporting accidents. This is because reporting accidents involves documenting and recording the details of an accident, which can be time-consuming and require a significant amount of effort. Additionally, reporting accidents is necessary for legal and insurance purposes, as well as for identifying trends and implementing safety measures to prevent similar accidents in the future.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(008) What is the process of connecting two or more metallic objects together using a conductor?
- A.
Bonding.
- B.
Strapping
- C.
Equalizing
- D.
Grounding
Correct Answer
A. Bonding.Explanation
Bonding is the process of connecting two or more metallic objects together using a conductor. This is done to create a low-resistance path for electrical current, ensuring that all objects are at the same electrical potential. It helps to prevent dangerous potential differences and reduces the risk of electrical shock or damage to equipment. Bonding is commonly used in electrical systems to ensure safety and proper functioning.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(008) How many minutes must pass after filling a tank before inserting any object, even to determine the level of the fuel?
- A.
15
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
35
Correct Answer
C. 30Explanation
After filling a tank, it is necessary to wait for at least 30 minutes before inserting any object, even to determine the level of the fuel. This waiting period allows the fuel to settle and stabilize within the tank, ensuring accurate measurements and preventing any potential accidents or spills.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(008) What is the maximum allowable speed in miles per hour (mph) when driving a specialpurpose vehicle on the flight line?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
B. 10Explanation
The maximum allowable speed when driving a special-purpose vehicle on the flight line is 10 miles per hour (mph). This speed limit ensures the safety of personnel and equipment on the flight line, as higher speeds can increase the risk of accidents or damage to aircraft or other equipment. It is important to adhere to this speed limit to maintain a safe and efficient operation on the flight line.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(008) Which vehicles do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft?
- A.
“Follow Me” trucks.
- B.
Refueling units.
- C.
Fire trucks.
- D.
Tugs.
Correct Answer
A. “Follow Me” trucks.Explanation
"Follow Me" trucks do not have to yield the right of way to moving aircraft. These trucks are used at airports to guide aircraft on the ground and direct them to their designated parking spots or runways. They are equipped with flashing lights and signs to communicate with pilots. Since their primary function is to ensure the safe movement of aircraft, they are exempt from yielding to the aircraft themselves. Refueling units, fire trucks, and tugs, on the other hand, are required to yield to moving aircraft as they provide support services and must prioritize the safety of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(008) What does a flashing red and green light signal from the air traffic control tower mean to a moving vehicle on the flight line?
- A.
General warning, use extreme caution.
- B.
Return to starting point.
- C.
Safe to cross.
- D.
Stop.
Correct Answer
A. General warning, use extreme caution.Explanation
A flashing red and green light signal from the air traffic control tower indicates a general warning and advises the moving vehicle on the flight line to use extreme caution. This signal is used to alert the vehicle operator of potential hazards or dangers in the area and to ensure that they proceed with heightened awareness and caution to prevent accidents or mishaps.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(008) When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, under most circumstances, you will not position it any closer than what minimum distance (feet) from any portion of an aircraft?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
25
- D.
50
Correct Answer
B. 10Explanation
When positioning a refueling vehicle for servicing, it is important to maintain a safe distance from the aircraft to prevent any potential accidents or damage. The minimum distance that the refueling vehicle should be positioned from any portion of the aircraft is 10 feet. This distance ensures that there is enough space for maneuvering and reduces the risk of any accidental contact between the vehicle and the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(008) Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within how many feet of operating aircraft radar?
- A.
100
- B.
150
- C.
200
- D.
300
Correct Answer
D. 300Explanation
Fuel servicing operations should not be conducted within 300 feet of operating aircraft radar. This is because the radar system can emit strong electromagnetic waves that can interfere with the fueling process and potentially cause safety hazards. Keeping a distance of 300 feet ensures that there is no interference or damage to the radar system and allows for safe fuel servicing operations to take place.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(008) You should discontinue fuel operations when electrical storms are within how many nautical miles of a fuel servicing area?
- A.
3
- B.
5
- C.
10
- D.
25
Correct Answer
B. 5Explanation
Fuel operations should be discontinued when electrical storms are within 5 nautical miles of a fuel servicing area. This is because electrical storms pose a significant risk of lightning strikes, which can ignite fuel and cause fires or explosions. Discontinuing fuel operations within a 5-mile radius helps to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent accidents.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(008) A fuel spill less than two feet in any plane direction is classified in this spill category.
- A.
Class I.
- B.
Class II.
- C.
Class III.
- D.
Class IV.
Correct Answer
A. Class I.Explanation
A fuel spill less than two feet in any plane direction is classified as a Class I spill. This means that the spill is small and localized, posing a minimal risk to the environment and requiring minimal cleanup efforts. Class I spills are typically easier to contain and clean up compared to larger spills, making them less hazardous.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(008) Which fuel spill classification involves an area not more than 10 feet in any plane direction?
- A.
Class I.
- B.
Class II.
- C.
Class III.
- D.
Class IV.
Correct Answer
B. Class II.Explanation
Class II fuel spill classification involves an area not more than 10 feet in any plane direction. This means that the spill is relatively small and contained within a limited area. Class II spills are considered less severe compared to Class I spills, which involve larger areas. Class III and Class IV spills are not relevant in this context.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(008) Operating aircraft can commonly produce noise levels in decibel ranges of
- A.
40 to 90.
- B.
80 to 100
- C.
90 to 110
- D.
110 to 130
Correct Answer
D. 110 to 130Explanation
Operating aircraft can commonly produce noise levels in decibel ranges of 110 to 130. This means that the noise produced by aircraft during operation typically falls within this range. Noise levels in this range can be quite high and can cause disturbances and discomfort for people living near airports or in the vicinity of flight paths.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(008) Normally, what minimum safe distance (in feet) should be maintained from the front and sides of jet engine intakes?
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
25
- D.
50
Correct Answer
C. 25Explanation
A minimum safe distance of 25 feet should be maintained from the front and sides of jet engine intakes. This distance is necessary to prevent any potential hazards or accidents that could occur due to the powerful suction and exhaust of the engine. Being too close to the engine intake can pose a risk of being sucked in or injured by the forceful air movement. Therefore, it is important to maintain a safe distance to ensure the safety of individuals and to avoid any damage to the engine.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(008) At a minimum, how many feet behind an aircraft’s operating jet engine is considered safe?
- A.
50
- B.
100
- C.
150
- D.
200
Correct Answer
D. 200Explanation
A minimum safe distance of 200 feet behind an aircraft's operating jet engine is considered safe. This distance is necessary to prevent any potential hazards caused by the engine's exhaust, such as heat, noise, and debris. Maintaining this distance ensures the safety of personnel, equipment, and other aircraft in the vicinity.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(008) What is the minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area?
- A.
661 Barrels
- B.
561 Barrels
- C.
661 Gallons
- D.
561 Gallons
Correct Answer
C. 661 GallonsExplanation
The minimum capacity for aboveground storage tanks that would require a dike area is 661 gallons. A dike area is typically required for tanks that have a certain capacity in order to contain any potential spills or leaks. In this case, any tank with a capacity equal to or greater than 661 gallons would require a dike area.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(008) Unlike most other fueling operations, cryogenic production does not stop when electrical storms are within
- A.
1 nautical mile.
- B.
3 nautical miles.
- C.
5 nautical miles.
- D.
7 nautical miles.
Correct Answer
C. 5 nautical miles.Explanation
Cryogenic production is unique in that it does not need to stop during electrical storms within 5 nautical miles of the operation. This suggests that cryogenic production is not significantly affected by electrical storms at this distance, possibly due to safety measures or equipment design that allows for continued operation.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(008) Fuels laboratories must have certain features, such as
- A.
A deluge shower in the corner of the laboratory.
- B.
Windows made of reinforced wire safety glass.
- C.
At least 210 square feet of working space.
- D.
Doors that are fireproof and open inward.
Correct Answer
B. Windows made of reinforced wire safety glass.Explanation
Fuels laboratories must have windows made of reinforced wire safety glass because this type of glass is designed to withstand high temperatures and prevent shattering. In a laboratory where fuels are being tested or handled, there is a risk of fire or explosions, and the reinforced wire safety glass can help contain any potential hazards. It provides an added layer of protection by preventing the glass from breaking into sharp shards that could cause injury.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(008) What is the minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building?
- A.
15 min
- B.
30 min
- C.
45 min
- D.
60 min
Correct Answer
D. 60 minExplanation
The minimum fire rating for all interior walls separating the laboratory from other portions of the building is 60 minutes. This means that these walls are designed to withstand fire for at least 60 minutes before the fire spreads to other areas of the building. A higher fire rating indicates a higher level of fire resistance, providing more time for evacuation and reducing the risk of fire spreading to other parts of the building.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(008) Self-closing metal containers used for combustible waste disposal in fuels laboratories are identified by being painted
- A.
Red with yellow letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE.
- B.
Yellow with red letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE.
- C.
Red with yellow band and COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE stenciled in 2-inch letters inside the band.
- D.
Yellow with red band and COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE stenciled in 2-inch letters inside the band.
Correct Answer
B. Yellow with red letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE.Explanation
The correct answer is yellow with red letters designating COMBUSTIBLE SOLID WASTE. This is because self-closing metal containers used for combustible waste disposal in fuels laboratories are specifically identified by being painted yellow with red letters. This color combination is used to clearly indicate the type of waste that should be placed in these containers, which is combustible solid waste.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
(008) At least how many feet from the fuels laboratory building must a 55-gallon waste drum be positioned?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
50
- D.
100
Correct Answer
C. 50Explanation
A 55-gallon waste drum must be positioned at least 50 feet away from the fuels laboratory building. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of the building and prevent any potential accidents or hazards that may arise from the waste drum. It allows for sufficient space in case of any leakage, spillage, or combustion of the waste drum contents.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Oct 04, 2018Quiz Created by
Marshall
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