3P071 - Security Forces Craftsman: Volume 2. Integrated Defense - Edit Code 06

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    (206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is...

    • Arson
    • Bombing
    • Hijacking
    • Assassination
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in Security Forces Craftsman training, focusing on integrated defense principles, structures, and operational tactics. It tests understanding of foundational concepts, guiding principles, and strategic asset protection within the Air Force.

Security Forces Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    (201) Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?

    • Security Forces

    • Intelligence fusion cell

    • Other Air Force members

    • Air Force Office of Special Investigations

    Correct Answer
    A. Security Forces
    Explanation
    Security Forces provide the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept. The ID concept involves the coordination and integration of various security measures to protect military installations and personnel. Security Forces are responsible for maintaining law and order, protecting assets, and responding to threats on Air Force bases. Their role in implementing and enforcing security protocols makes them essential in establishing the foundation of the ID concept.

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  • 3. 

    (203) What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?

    • Physical barriers

    • Night vision device

    • Infrared imaging device

    • Closed-circuit television

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical barriers
    Explanation
    Physical barriers can effectively delay intruders because they create obstacles that prevent or slow down unauthorized access to a certain area. These barriers can include fences, walls, gates, or other physical structures that are difficult to breach. By delaying intruders, security forces have more time to assess the threat and respond accordingly, allowing for a more accurate classification of the threat and a more effective response.

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  • 4. 

    (224) Range is given in what unit of measurement?

    • Feet

    • Yards

    • Meters

    • Kilometers

    Correct Answer
    A. Meters
    Explanation
    The range is a measure of distance, typically referring to the maximum distance a projectile can travel. In this case, the correct answer is meters, as it is a commonly used unit of measurement for distance. Feet, yards, and kilometers are also units of measurement for distance, but meters is the most commonly used unit in scientific and international contexts.

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  • 5. 

    (205) "To fight and win our nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders" is the mission of the...

    • Army

    • Navy

    • Air Force

    • Marine Corps

    Correct Answer
    A. Army
    Explanation
    The given statement describes the mission of the Army. It states that the Army's mission is to fight and win the nation's wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders. This aligns with the role and responsibilities of the Army as a branch of the military that primarily operates on land and is responsible for ground warfare.

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  • 6. 

    (209) Rules of engagement are the commander's rules for

    • Mission requirements

    • National policy goals

    • The use of force

    • The rule of law

    Correct Answer
    A. The use of force
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the use of force". Rules of engagement refer to the guidelines and limitations set by a commander regarding the use of force in military operations. These rules determine when and how force can be employed, ensuring that military actions are conducted within legal and ethical boundaries. By establishing rules of engagement, commanders aim to minimize civilian casualties, protect their own forces, and achieve mission objectives effectively.

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  • 7. 

    (219) The technique that requires great patience is movement with...

    • Speed

    • Stealth

    • Purpose

    • Precision

    Correct Answer
    A. Stealth
    Explanation
    The technique that requires great patience is movement with stealth. Stealth involves moving quietly and carefully, taking precautions to avoid being detected. This requires a high level of patience as it often involves slow and deliberate movements to remain unnoticed. Speed, purpose, and precision may also be important in certain situations, but they do not necessarily require the same level of patience as stealth.

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  • 8. 

    (205) What is the Navy's largest formation?

    • Fleet

    • Flotilla

    • Task Force

    • Strike Group

    Correct Answer
    A. Fleet
    Explanation
    The Navy's largest formation is a fleet. A fleet consists of multiple task forces, squadrons, and other naval units, and is responsible for conducting major operations and deployments. It is a large and powerful force that is capable of carrying out a wide range of missions, including combat operations, humanitarian assistance, and disaster relief.

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  • 9. 

    (206) The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

    • Non-state-supported

    • State-supported

    • State-organized

    • State-directed

    Correct Answer
    A. State-supported
    Explanation
    A terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments is referred to as "state-supported." This means that while the group may not be directly organized or directed by a government, it receives assistance, funding, or other forms of support from them. This support can come in various forms, such as financial aid, training, weapons, or safe havens, and it allows the terrorist group to carry out its activities more effectively.

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  • 10. 

    (206) What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

    • Activity

    • Intentions

    • Operation capability

    • Operating environment

    Correct Answer
    A. Intentions
    Explanation
    The term that describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is "intentions". Intentions refer to the purpose or aim behind someone's actions, in this case, the desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests. It suggests that there is a deliberate plan or motive behind these attacks.

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  • 11. 

    (208) Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?

    • Disguise

    • Decoy

    • Blend

    • Hide

    Correct Answer
    A. Decoy
    Explanation
    Decoy means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target. It is used to divert attention or deceive someone by presenting a false or imitation target.

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  • 12. 

    (219) Which method of movement do you keep your body off the ground and rest on your forearms and lower legs?

    • Rush

    • Low crawl

    • High crawl

    • Spider crawl

    Correct Answer
    A. High crawl
    Explanation
    The high crawl is a method of movement where the body is kept off the ground and rests on the forearms and lower legs. This technique is commonly used in military training or tactical situations where stealth and speed are required. By keeping the body elevated, it reduces the chances of making noise or leaving footprints, making it an effective method for moving through difficult terrain or avoiding detection.

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  • 13. 

    (221) In fire and maneuver operations, most of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from...

    • M2s

    • MK19s

    • Mortars

    • Team's own weapons

    Correct Answer
    A. Team's own weapons
    Explanation
    In fire and maneuver operations, the majority of the maneuvering forces fire support comes from the team's own weapons. This means that the team relies on their own firearms, such as rifles and machine guns, to provide covering fire while advancing or maneuvering on the enemy. This allows the team to maintain constant fire and suppress the enemy, providing protection and support for the maneuvering forces. The other options listed, M2s, MK19s, and mortars, may also provide fire support, but the primary source of support in this scenario is the team's own weapons.

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  • 14. 

    (204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are...

    • Existing and reinforcing

    • Disrupting and turning

    • Blocking and turning

    • Turning and fixing

    Correct Answer
    A. Existing and reinforcing
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "existing and reinforcing". This answer suggests that the two types of obstacles commonly encountered are those that already exist and those that are being reinforced. This implies that there are obstacles that are already present and obstacles that are being made stronger or more difficult to overcome.

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  • 15. 

    (207) Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?

    • Agent activity

    • Sympathizers

    • Terrorists

    • Partisans

    Correct Answer
    A. Terrorists
    Explanation
    Terrorists are individuals or small groups who engage in acts of violence using a variety of weapons, including small arms, explosives, and incendiary devices. They aim to create fear and panic among the general population and often have political, ideological, or religious motivations behind their actions.

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  • 16. 

    (222) Which operations order paragraph provides a clear, concise statement of the task to be accomplished?

    • Mission

    • Situation

    • Execution

    • Service and support

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission
    Explanation
    The mission paragraph in an operations order provides a clear and concise statement of the task to be accomplished. It outlines the overall objective or goal that the operation aims to achieve. This paragraph sets the tone and direction for the entire order, ensuring that all personnel involved understand the purpose and focus of the mission. It helps to align everyone's efforts towards a common goal and provides a clear sense of direction for the operation.

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  • 17. 

    (209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?

    • Legal

    • Policy

    • Military

    • Civilian

    Correct Answer
    A. Civilian
    Explanation
    The Rules of Engagement are guidelines that dictate the circumstances and limitations under which military forces can engage in combat. They are primarily driven by legal, policy, and military considerations. Legal considerations ensure that military actions comply with international and domestic laws. Policy considerations align military actions with the goals and objectives of the government. Military considerations focus on operational effectiveness and protection of military personnel. However, civilian considerations do not drive the Rules of Engagement as they are primarily focused on protecting military forces and achieving military objectives.

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  • 18. 

    (201) Integrated defense does not require the capability to

    • Deny

    • Deter

    • Delay

    • Defuse

    Correct Answer
    A. Defuse
    Explanation
    Integrated defense refers to a comprehensive approach that combines various military and non-military strategies to protect a country from potential threats. In this context, "defuse" refers to the act of diffusing or de-escalating a potentially dangerous situation. The other options, such as deny, deter, and delay, are all related to actively countering or preventing threats. Therefore, the capability to defuse is not necessarily a requirement for integrated defense, as it focuses more on proactive measures to neutralize or deter threats rather than resolving them peacefully.

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  • 19. 

    (206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

    • Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals

    • One week prior to scheduled attack execution

    • Just before departing for the target

    • Before executing the attack

    Correct Answer
    A. Just before departing for the target
    Explanation
    Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target. This suggests that they do conduct rehearsals, but it is specifically done right before they leave for the target location. This allows them to go over the plan one last time and ensure that everyone is clear on their roles and responsibilities before executing the attack.

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  • 20. 

    (213) At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    In order to meet the minimum requirement for after action reports (AARs) to be submitted, at least two AARs must be submitted. This implies that submitting only one AAR would not meet the minimum requirement.

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  • 21. 

    (216) Upon opening an exclusion area, members requesting entry must have

    • Technical knowledge of the task being performed

    • A valid reason to be in the exclusion area and be members of an authorized two-person concept team

    • A valid restricted area badge

    • A valid entry authority list

    Correct Answer
    A. A valid reason to be in the exclusion area and be members of an authorized two-person concept team
    Explanation
    Members requesting entry into an exclusion area must have a valid reason to be in the area and be part of an authorized two-person concept team. This means that they should have a legitimate purpose for being in the exclusion area and must be accompanied by another authorized individual. This requirement ensures that there is always someone else present in case of emergencies or accidents, promoting safety and accountability within the exclusion area. Simply having technical knowledge or possessing restricted area badges or entry authority lists is not sufficient; the presence of a valid reason and adherence to the two-person concept team is crucial.

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  • 22. 

    (220) What type of patrol conducts attacks on a position or installation followed by a planned withdrawal?

    • Raid

    • Ambush

    • Area reconnaissance

    • Zone reconnaissance

    Correct Answer
    A. Raid
    Explanation
    A raid is a type of patrol that involves conducting attacks on a position or installation and then executing a planned withdrawal. This means that the patrol initiates an offensive action, engages the enemy or target, and then retreats or withdraws from the area. The objective of a raid is to surprise and disrupt the enemy, causing damage or capturing objectives, and then quickly disengaging to avoid prolonged engagement or counterattacks.

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  • 23. 

    (223) Consolidating reports is a task performed in which Tactical Operations Center (TOC) function?

    • Analyzing information

    • Receiving information

    • Distributing information

    • Submitting recommendations

    Correct Answer
    A. Analyzing information
    Explanation
    Consolidating reports is a task performed in the Analyzing Information function of a Tactical Operations Center (TOC). This function involves gathering and organizing data from various sources to identify patterns, trends, and insights. By consolidating reports, the TOC can synthesize information from different channels and make informed decisions based on the analysis. This helps in understanding the overall situation and formulating appropriate strategies and recommendations.

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  • 24. 

    (213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification?

    • Combat arms or training incident

    • Shooting incident

    • Security incident

    • Miscellaneous

    Correct Answer
    A. Miscellaneous
    Explanation
    The use of electronic control devices does not fall under any specific incident classification such as combat arms or training incident, shooting incident, or security incident. Instead, it is categorized as miscellaneous, as it does not fit into any of the predefined classifications.

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  • 25. 

    (217) (DCNI) Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted within what timeframe of the pre-arrival window?

    • 48 hrs

    • 36 hrs

    • 24 hrs

    • 12 hrs

    Correct Answer
    A. 48 hrs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 48 hrs. Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) rehearsals should be conducted within 48 hours of the pre-arrival window. This timeframe allows for adequate preparation and coordination before the actual arrival, ensuring that all necessary procedures and protocols are followed effectively. Conducting the rehearsals within this timeframe also allows for any necessary adjustments or modifications to be made in case of any unforeseen circumstances or changes in the situation.

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  • 26. 

    (204) A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as...

    • A safe area

    • A search area

    • A denial area

    • An exclusion area

    Correct Answer
    A. A search area
    Explanation
    A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for the identification of personnel and vehicles. This suggests that within this area, there are measures in place to ensure the safety and security of individuals and vehicles. It implies that there are protocols in place for searching and identifying personnel and vehicles entering or exiting the area, which helps to maintain a certain level of security.

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  • 27. 

    (204) What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?

    • Parking area

    • Staging area

    • Overwatch

    • Search pit

    Correct Answer
    A. Staging area
    Explanation
    The staging area should be as far back from the search facility as possible. This is because the staging area is where resources and personnel are gathered and prepared before being deployed to the search facility. By keeping the staging area far back, it ensures that there is enough space for equipment, vehicles, and personnel to be organized and ready for deployment without obstructing the search facility or causing congestion. It also allows for a clear and unobstructed path for resources to be transported from the staging area to the search facility when needed.

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  • 28. 

    (206) Generally, specially trained terrorist are of above average intelligence and between the ages of...

    • 16 and 24

    • 21 and 28

    • 23 and 30

    • 25 and 32

    Correct Answer
    A. 23 and 30
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 23 and 30. Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and fall within the age range of 23 and 30. This age range is often considered prime for individuals to be recruited and radicalized, as they are young enough to be easily influenced and manipulated, yet old enough to possess the necessary physical and mental capabilities required for terrorist activities.

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  • 29. 

    (211) The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in which deployment phase?

    • Deployment

    • Employment

    • Re-deployment

    • Pre-deployment

    Correct Answer
    A. Deployment
    Explanation
    The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in the Deployment phase. This phase involves the actual movement and placement of personnel, equipment, and supplies to the designated area of operation. It includes activities such as setting up communication systems, establishing base camps, and organizing logistics support. The Reception phase involves the arrival and initial processing of personnel and equipment, while the Staging phase involves preparing and organizing them for onward movement. The Onward-Movement phase involves the actual transportation and movement to the operational area, and the Integration phase involves the integration of personnel and equipment into the existing operational structure.

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  • 30. 

    (217) (DCNI) Who must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF)?

    • Courier only

    • Entry controller

    • SF representative only

    • Courier and SF representative

    Correct Answer
    A. Courier and SF representative
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Courier and SF representative. Both the courier and the Security Forces (SF) representative must authenticate all entry authority lists (EALs) for the Primary Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF). This ensures that the individuals responsible for handling and transporting nuclear materials are properly authorized and have the necessary security clearances. The courier is responsible for physically transporting the EALs, while the SF representative verifies the authenticity and accuracy of the lists before granting entry authority.

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  • 31. 

    (223) Who has the primary responsibility of knowing where all SF units are throughout the duration of the tour of duty?

    • Flight sergeant

    • Area supervisor

    • Flight commander

    • Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller

    Correct Answer
    A. Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller
    Explanation
    The Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC) controller is responsible for knowing the whereabouts of all SF units throughout the tour of duty. This role requires constant monitoring and coordination to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the SF units. The BDOC controller acts as the central point of contact and has access to real-time information and communication channels to track the movements and activities of the SF units. This responsibility is crucial for maintaining situational awareness and making informed decisions in case of emergencies or operational requirements.

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  • 32. 

    (224) In which fire control measure does the leader control the fire?

    • Secondary

    • Standoff

    • Indirect

    • Direct

    Correct Answer
    A. Direct
    Explanation
    In the direct fire control measure, the leader has direct control over the fire. This means that the leader is actively involved in aiming and firing the weapons at the intended target. This allows for more precise and immediate engagement of the enemy, as the leader can make real-time adjustments to the fire as needed. It is a more aggressive and hands-on approach to controlling the fire, as opposed to indirect fire control measures where the leader relies on other personnel or equipment to deliver the fire.

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  • 33. 

    (203) What is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for"?

    • Integrated Defense Plan

    • Integrated Defense Concepts

    • Integrated Defense Security Systems

    • Integrated Defense Risk Management Process

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Defense Plan
    Explanation
    An Integrated Defense Plan is defined as "organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for." This means that the plan involves coordinating and managing the various defense efforts of different agencies to ensure that all necessary aspects of defense are covered and accounted for. It emphasizes the integration of different defense measures and strategies to create a comprehensive and effective defense plan.

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  • 34. 

    (203) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units...

    • Only if the installation is a full time reserve or guard installation/unit

    • Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources

    • Only if the installation has non-Protection Level (PL) resources

    • Only during war

    Correct Answer
    A. Only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources
    Explanation
    IDPs are integrated defense plans that are implemented by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard (ANG) installations/units. These plans are executed only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources. This means that the installation is tasked with safeguarding critical assets, infrastructure, or resources that require heightened security measures. Other installations that do not have protection level resources may not be required to develop or implement IDPs. Therefore, the correct answer is "only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources."

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  • 35. 

    (205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force...

    • Squadron

    • Group

    • Flight

    • Wing

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight
    Explanation
    A Marine Corps platoon is the smallest unit in the Marine Corps, consisting of around 40 to 60 Marines. Similarly, a flight is the smallest unit in the Air Force, typically consisting of around 20 to 30 personnel. Both the platoon and the flight are responsible for carrying out specific tasks and operations within their respective branches. Therefore, the most equivalent unit to a Marine Corps platoon in the Air Force would be a flight.

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  • 36. 

    (207) Which threat level 1 activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

    • Agent activity

    • Sympathizers

    • Terrorists

    • Partisans

    Correct Answer
    A. Sympathizers
    Explanation
    Sympathizers are individuals who may not directly engage in terrorist activities themselves, but they support and sympathize with the cause. This threat level 1 activity involves random acts against targets of opportunity, which suggests that these sympathizers may carry out sporadic attacks without a specific plan or target in mind. While terrorists and partisans are also involved in threat level 1 activities, the description provided in the question aligns more closely with sympathizers.

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  • 37. 

    (211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?

    • Installation deployment readiness cell

    • Installation personnel readiness team

    • Installation deployment officer

    • Unit deployment manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation deployment readiness cell
    Explanation
    The Installation Deployment Readiness Cell is the focal point for all base deployments in the deployment process. This cell is responsible for ensuring that all necessary preparations and requirements are met before a deployment takes place. They coordinate with various personnel and units to ensure that all necessary resources, training, and documentation are in place. The Installation Deployment Readiness Cell plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth and efficient execution of deployments at the base.

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  • 38. 

    (214) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by...

    • Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) Localized threat capability assessment (TCA), and local threat assessment

    • Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC)

    • Major Command Inspector General (MAJCOM IG)

    • Department of Defense Inspector General (DOD IG)

    Correct Answer
    A. Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) Localized threat capability assessment (TCA), and local threat assessment
    Explanation
    Inspections and visits primarily focus on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) Localized threat capability assessment (TCA), and local threat assessment. This means that during inspections and visits, the security program is evaluated based on its ability to handle potential threats and risks specific to the local area, as assessed by the DIA and local threat assessments. The goal is to ensure that the security program is capable of effectively protecting nuclear weapons against potential threats.

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  • 39. 

    (217) What is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons?

    • Missile field

    • Weapons storage area (WSA)

    • Weapons storage and security system (WS3)

    • Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC)
    Explanation
    The Kirtland underground munitions maintenance storage complex (KUMMSC) is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons. This facility is specifically designed for the storage and maintenance of nuclear weapons. It is located underground, providing enhanced security and protection for the weapons. The KUMMSC is a critical component of the United States' nuclear weapons infrastructure, ensuring the safe and secure storage of these weapons.

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  • 40. 

    (223) Due to the nature of the responsibilities, a BDOC is considered...

    • Limited area

    • Restricted area

    • Controlled area

    • Exclusion area

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled area
    Explanation
    A BDOC (Battlefield Distribution Operations Center) is responsible for coordinating and controlling the distribution of supplies and resources on the battlefield. This requires strict oversight and management to ensure that resources are allocated efficiently and effectively. Therefore, a BDOC is considered a controlled area where access is restricted and closely monitored to maintain operational security and prevent unauthorized individuals from interfering with the distribution process.

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  • 41. 

    (226) What is the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman?

    • M4

    • M24

    • M40

    • M110

    Correct Answer
    A. M4
    Explanation
    The M4 is not the standard issue weapon for a designated marksman. The M4 is a carbine rifle that is commonly used by infantry soldiers, but it is not specifically designed for designated marksmen. Designated marksmen typically use more specialized rifles such as the M24, M40, or M110, which are specifically designed for long-range precision shooting.

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  • 42. 

    (227) When must every defender perform shoot, move, and communicate training?

    • Every 4 months

    • Between 5 and 7

    • Between 8 and 10

    • Annually with qualification

    Correct Answer
    A. Between 5 and 7
    Explanation
    Every defender must perform shoot, move, and communicate training between 5 and 7 times. This suggests that the training should occur multiple times throughout the year, but not too frequently. This frequency allows defenders to regularly practice and improve their skills in shooting, moving, and communicating, which are essential for their role. Performing the training too infrequently may result in a lack of proficiency, while doing it too often may be impractical and time-consuming. Therefore, scheduling the training between 5 and 7 times strikes a balance between regular practice and efficiency.

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  • 43. 

    (208) What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?

    • Cover, Camouflage, and deception

    • Concealing camouflage deceitfully

    • Deceptive camouflage concealment

    • Camouflage, concealment, deception

    Correct Answer
    A. Camouflage, concealment, deception
    Explanation
    Camouflage, concealment, and deception are defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy. This involves using various techniques to conceal oneself or military assets, such as using natural or artificial materials to blend into the environment, creating decoys to divert attention, and employing tactics to deceive the enemy. By utilizing these principles, forces can make it more difficult for the enemy to detect and target them, increasing their chances of survival and success in combat.

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  • 44. 

    (210) When the need for a new unit type code or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at

    • Any level

    • Unit level

    • MAJCOM level

    • Air Staff level only

    Correct Answer
    A. Any level
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "any level". This means that the need for a new unit type code or a major change in an existing UTC can be initiated at any level within the organization. This allows for flexibility and decentralization in the decision-making process, as individuals or units at various levels can identify the need for a change and take appropriate action. It also ensures that the organization can adapt and respond to evolving requirements in a timely manner, without being restricted to a specific level of authority.

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  • 45. 

    (210) What unit type code, when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 - 180) deployed Security Forces unit?

    • QFEBU

    • QFEPR

    • QFEBF

    • QFEBA

    Correct Answer
    A. QFEBA
    Explanation
    The QFEBA unit type code provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large deployed Security Forces unit when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS.

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  • 46. 

    (213) What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?

    • Any deficiencies

    • Any hazards

    • Any threats

    • Any risks

    Correct Answer
    A. Any deficiencies
    Explanation
    Security Forces (SF) must ensure that any deficiencies are identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force. Identifying deficiencies is crucial as it allows for prompt action to address and rectify any weaknesses or shortcomings in security measures. By identifying deficiencies, SF can take appropriate steps to enhance security, prevent potential breaches, and ensure the safety and protection of personnel, facilities, and assets. This proactive approach helps to mitigate risks and maintain a robust security posture throughout the Air Force.

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  • 47. 

    (216) If an emergency arises that requires and evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is the possibility of...

    • A stay behind threat

    • A two-person concept violation

    • An error on the EAL

    • An incorrect count by the Sole Vouching Authority (SVA)

    Correct Answer
    A. A stay behind threat
    Explanation
    If an emergency arises that requires an evacuation and all personnel are not accounted for, there is the possibility of a stay behind threat. This means that someone may have chosen to remain behind instead of evacuating, which could pose a risk to their safety and hinder the overall evacuation process. It is important to ensure that all personnel are safely evacuated to minimize any potential threats or dangers during an emergency situation.

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  • 48. 

    (207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?

    • I

    • II

    • III

    • IV

    Correct Answer
    A. III
    Explanation
    Threat level doctrine III stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers. This means that in this particular threat level, it is recommended to use battalion-size units and helicopters to penetrate enemy territory up to a distance of 50 kilometers. This approach allows for swift and efficient deployment of troops to a significant depth, enhancing the chances of success in the mission.

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  • 49. 

    (209) What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces?

    • Hostile act

    • Hostile Force

    • Hostile intent

    • Elements of self-defense

    Correct Answer
    A. Hostile intent
    Explanation
    Hostile intent is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces, including the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces. This means that it refers to the intention or plan to carry out a hostile act against the U.S. or its forces, which may include actions that hinder or obstruct their mission or duties. It is important to identify and assess hostile intent in order to effectively respond and defend against potential threats.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 31, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Riley1jace
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