CDC 2s071; Volume 1. Materiel Management (Unit Review Exercises)
Materiel Management Craftsman
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(001) What unit type code (UTC) provides mobility support and when required by the Expeditionary Theater Distribution Center (ETDC) augmentation to the combat supply activity at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)cooperative security location (CSL)?
- A.
JFBDC - Deploy Computer Operations Support.
- B.
JFBMR - Superitendent Materiel Receiving.
- C.
JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
- D.
JFBMM - Materiel Control.
Correct Answer
C. JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.Explanation
The correct answer, JFBCW - Superintendent Mobility Support, is the unit type code (UTC) that provides mobility support to the Expeditionary Theater Distribution Center (ETDC) when required at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL). This UTC is responsible for ensuring the smooth movement and transportation of supplies and equipment to support combat operations.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(001) What unit type code (UTC) provides supply expertise during initial beddown at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?
- A.
JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.
- B.
JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.
- C.
JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
- D.
JFBFM – Initial Supply Beddown Package.
Correct Answer
D. JFBFM – Initial Supply Beddown Package.Explanation
The correct answer is JFBFM – Initial Supply Beddown Package. This UTC provides supply expertise during the initial beddown at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL). This means that they are responsible for setting up the initial supply chain and logistics support at these locations, ensuring that all necessary supplies and equipment are available for operations to begin smoothly.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(001) What unit type code (UTC) provides materiel management support to accountable officers, responsible officers, and responsible persons, in the control and accountability of class IX and class VII at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL)?
- A.
JFBME – Superintendent Materiel Mgt Equipment.
- B.
JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.
- C.
JFBMR – Superintendent Materiel Receiving.
- D.
JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
Correct Answer
A. JFBME – Superintendent Materiel Mgt Equipment.Explanation
The correct answer, JFBME - Superintendent Materiel Mgt Equipment, is the unit type code (UTC) that provides materiel management support to accountable officers, responsible officers, and responsible persons. This UTC specifically focuses on the control and accountability of class IX and class VII at a main operating base (MOB)/forward operating site (FOS)/cooperative security location (CSL). This role involves managing and overseeing the equipment and materials used in these locations, ensuring proper control and accountability measures are in place.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(001) What unit type code (UTC) monitors the overall maintenance and supply interface and resolves supply support problems?
- A.
JFBDC – Deploy Computer Operations Support.
- B.
JFBCW – Superintendent Mobility Support.
- C.
JFBSL – Maintenance Supply Liaison.
- D.
JFBMM – Materiel Control.
Correct Answer
C. JFBSL – Maintenance Supply Liaison.Explanation
The correct answer is JFBSL - Maintenance Supply Liaison. This UTC is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance and supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a liaison between maintenance and supply personnel, ensuring that the necessary resources and materials are available for maintenance operations. They also coordinate with other units and agencies to address any supply issues and ensure efficient supply chain management.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(002) When does the selection panel convene which is chaired by the 2S career field manager (CFM)?
- A.
August/September
- B.
July/August
- C.
June/July
- D.
May/June
Correct Answer
D. May/JuneExplanation
The selection panel, chaired by the 2S career field manager (CFM), convenes in May/June.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(002) Who notifies the individual by message not later than 30 days after selection?
- A.
Head Quarters Air Force Personnel Center Materiel Management Functional Manager (HQ AFPC/DPAA).
- B.
Air Force Material Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Center (ALC).
- C.
Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R.
- D.
Major Command (MAJCOM)/A4R.
Correct Answer
C. Head Quarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4R. -
- 7.
(003) What flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?
- A.
Squadron superintendent.
- B.
Vehicle management flight.
- C.
Materiel Management flight.
- D.
Deployment and distribution flight.
Correct Answer
D. Deployment and distribution flight.Explanation
The correct answer is Deployment and distribution flight. This flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations. They also handle the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property during these operations.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(003) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight is the primary liaison between customers and the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?
- A.
Fuels Management Flight.
- B.
Vehicle Management Flight.
- C.
Materiel Management Flight.
- D.
Deployment and Distribution Flight.
Correct Answer
C. Materiel Management Flight.Explanation
The Materiel Management Flight is the primary liaison between customers and the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC). They are responsible for managing and coordinating the flow of supplies, equipment, and materials to meet the needs of the customers. They work closely with the AFGLSC to ensure timely and efficient delivery of these resources.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(003) Who is responsible for the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) unit control center (UCC) and also maintains the squadron’s recall roster?
- A.
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Mobility Support.
- B.
Materiel Management Flight.
- C.
Squadron Readiness.
- D.
Logistics Manager.
Correct Answer
C. Squadron Readiness.Explanation
Squadron Readiness is responsible for the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) unit control center (UCC) and also maintains the squadron's recall roster.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(003) Who serves as the materiel management liaison and equipment accountability authority for wing customers?
- A.
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Mobility Support.
- B.
Customer Support section.
- C.
Squadron Readiness.
- D.
Logistics Manager.
Correct Answer
B. Customer Support section.Explanation
The Customer Support section serves as the materiel management liaison and equipment accountability authority for wing customers. They are responsible for managing and coordinating the flow of materials and equipment to meet the needs of customers within the wing. This includes ensuring proper accountability and tracking of equipment, as well as providing support and assistance to customers in managing their materiel requirements.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(004) Who is responsible for providing supply support to maintenance activities?
- A.
Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).
- B.
Maintenance Supply Liaison.
- C.
Maintenance Officer.
- D.
Operations Officer.
Correct Answer
A. Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).Explanation
The Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC) is responsible for providing supply support to maintenance activities. This individual oversees the logistics operations and ensures that necessary supplies and resources are available for maintenance personnel to effectively carry out their tasks. They coordinate with maintenance officers, operations officers, and other stakeholders to ensure a smooth flow of supplies and materials to support maintenance activities.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(004) Who coordinates maintenance and supply actions, manage supply transactions for their assigned maintenance activity, manage the production of assets in the repair cycle, resolve supply support problems and report aircraft parts status to maintenance supervision?
- A.
Maintenance officer.
- B.
Maintenance personnel.
- C.
Decentralized supply support personnel.
- D.
Logistics Readiness Squadron Commander (LRS/CC).
Correct Answer
C. Decentralized supply support personnel.Explanation
Decentralized supply support personnel are responsible for coordinating maintenance and supply actions, managing supply transactions for their assigned maintenance activity, managing the production of assets in the repair cycle, resolving supply support problems, and reporting aircraft parts status to maintenance supervision. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for maintenance activities and that any issues with supply support are addressed efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(005) What is the central, process driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the Expeditionary Logistics for the 21st Century (eLog21) campaign?
- A.
Supply Chain Operation (SCO).
- B.
Supply Chain Management (SCM).
- C.
Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).
- D.
Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC).Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC). This is the central, process-driven initiative designed to ensure the success of the Expeditionary Logistics for the 21st Century (eLog21) campaign. The AFGLSC is responsible for managing and coordinating logistics support for the Air Force, including supply chain management, transportation, and maintenance. It focuses on improving efficiency and effectiveness in logistics operations to support the needs of the Air Force worldwide.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(005) How many functions does the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) perform?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
The Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) performs three functions.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(005) How many primary organizations comprise the Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC)?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
C. 3Explanation
The Air Force Global Logistics Support Center (AFGLSC) is comprised of three primary organizations.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(006) What Air Force manual (AFMAN) governs Materiel Management?
- A.
36–123, Supply Manual.
- B.
23–110, USAF Supply Manual.
- C.
36–2108, Enlisted Classification.
- D.
23–2308, Material Classification.
Correct Answer
B. 23–110, USAF Supply Manual.Explanation
The correct answer is 23–110, USAF Supply Manual. This manual governs Materiel Management in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(006) How often is Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, published?
- A.
Annually.
- B.
Semi-annually.
- C.
Quarterly.
- D.
Monthly.
Correct Answer
C. Quarterly.Explanation
AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, is published on a quarterly basis. This means that it is updated and released every three months. The manual provides guidance and procedures for supply management within the United States Air Force. Keeping it updated on a regular basis ensures that the information remains current and relevant for supply personnel.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(006) What are provided for each volume, part and chapter of Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23– 110, USAF Supply Manual?
- A.
Table of contents.
- B.
Search Tools.
- C.
Hyperlinks.
- D.
Find Tools.
Correct Answer
A. Table of contents.Explanation
The correct answer is "Table of contents." In the Air Force manual (AFMAN) 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, a table of contents is provided for each volume, part, and chapter. This table of contents helps users navigate through the manual and find the specific information they are looking for. It provides an organized outline of the manual's content, allowing users to easily locate the relevant sections they need to reference.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(007) Which record retrieval code is used to obtain inquiry input on the repair cycle data?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
D. 5Explanation
Record retrieval code 5 is used to obtain inquiry input on the repair cycle data.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(008) What is an Air Mobility Command air transportation system that supports fixed, deployed, and mobile sites?
- A.
Global Transportation Network (GTN).
- B.
Global Decision Support System (GDSS).
- C.
Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
- D.
Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
Correct Answer
D. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).Explanation
The Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) is an air mobility command air transportation system that supports fixed, deployed, and mobile sites. It is responsible for managing and executing air transportation operations globally. GATES helps coordinate the movement of personnel and cargo, ensuring efficient and timely delivery to various locations. It provides real-time visibility and tracking of shipments, allowing for effective planning and execution of air transportation missions.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(008) What is the Air Mobility Command’s (AMC) force level command and control (C2) system supporting Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?
- A.
Global Transportation Network (GTN).
- B.
Global Decision Support System (GDSS).
- C.
Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
- D.
Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES).
Correct Answer
B. Global Decision Support System (GDSS).Explanation
The correct answer is Global Decision Support System (GDSS). The GDSS is the Air Mobility Command's force level command and control system that supports the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) in executing authority for effective airlift mission management. The GDSS provides real-time situational awareness, planning, and decision support capabilities for AMC's global mobility operations. It enables the TACC to monitor and manage the movement of personnel and cargo, coordinate air refueling operations, and optimize airlift missions.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(009) What is an automated logistics decision support tool which predicts the combat Capabilities of tactical, strategic, and airlift weapon systems for a given set of operations plans, logistics assets, and logistics performance factors?
- A.
Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM).
- B.
Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS).
- C.
Requirement/Execution Availability Logistics Module (REALM).
- D.
Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS).
Correct Answer
A. Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM).Explanation
The correct answer is Sustainability Assessment Module (SAM). This tool is an automated logistics decision support tool that predicts the combat capabilities of tactical, strategic, and airlift weapon systems. It takes into account operations plans, logistics assets, and logistics performance factors to provide accurate predictions.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(009) What provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance community?
- A.
TRACKER.
- B.
Propulsion Requirements System (PRS).
- C.
Weapon System Management Information System (WSMIS).
- D.
Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System (EXPRESS).
Correct Answer
B. Propulsion Requirements System (PRS).Explanation
The Propulsion Requirements System (PRS) provides the capability to compute whole engine requirements for the maintenance community. It is a system specifically designed to handle the maintenance needs and requirements of the propulsion systems used in various aircraft. It helps in calculating the necessary resources, parts, and manpower needed for the maintenance of engines. The PRS ensures that the maintenance community has the necessary information and support to effectively and efficiently maintain the engines, thus contributing to the overall readiness and performance of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(010) Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
A. IExplanation
Difficulty report (DIREP) category code I is assigned when problems include system loops, lost audit trails, and incorrect accountable record updating.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(010) Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
B. IIExplanation
Category II difficulty report (DIREP) code is assigned when a problem stops the computer from processing input, but it does not cause looping or destroy accountable records. This category indicates a significant issue that affects the system's functionality but does not result in a complete halt or loss of data.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(010) A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected
- A.
Over the telephone with the materiel management system control center.
- B.
On an Air Force suggestion form.
- C.
In the next scheduled release.
- D.
As workload permits.
Correct Answer
C. In the next scheduled release.Explanation
A category III difficulty report (DIREP) is a report that identifies a problem or issue with a piece of equipment or system. This type of report does not require immediate action and can be addressed in the next scheduled release. This means that the issue will be fixed or corrected during the next planned maintenance or update. It may not be considered urgent or critical enough to stop processing or require immediate attention.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(011) How often are surveillance visits to all materiel management functions scheduled?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semiannually.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
D. Annually.Explanation
Surveillance visits to all materiel management functions are scheduled annually. This means that these visits occur once every year. During these visits, the materiel management functions are inspected and assessed to ensure that they are operating effectively and in compliance with relevant regulations and standards. The annual frequency allows for regular monitoring and evaluation of these functions to maintain their efficiency and effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(011) Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable officer function?
- A.
Check in and out with the flight chief.
- B.
Submit a written report within 15 workdays of the exit briefing.
- C.
Follow the standard Air Force directive for conducting such a visit.
- D.
Bypass areas that have not had deficiencies within the past three years.
Correct Answer
A. Check in and out with the flight chief.Explanation
The correct answer is "Check in and out with the flight chief." This is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to an accountable officer function. Checking in and out with the flight chief ensures that the visit is properly documented and that the necessary protocols are followed. It also helps to maintain accountability and communication between the visiting officer and the flight chief.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(011) If you find deficiencies during a surveillance visit to a function, you must furnish a detailed written report to the flight chief within
- A.
15 days after checking in.
- B.
Five days after checking in.
- C.
15 workdays after the exit briefing.
- D.
Five workdays after the exit briefing.
Correct Answer
D. Five workdays after the exit briefing.Explanation
During a surveillance visit to a function, if deficiencies are found, a detailed written report must be provided to the flight chief within five workdays after the exit briefing.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(011) A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many days of the date on the surveillance report?
- A.
7.
- B.
10.
- C.
15.
- D.
30.
Correct Answer
C. 15.Explanation
The function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within 15 days of the date on the surveillance report. This means that the organization or individual responsible for reviewing the report and providing a response should do so within this time frame to ensure timely communication and follow-up on any issues or concerns raised in the report.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(011) Who is the primary point of contact (POC) for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander?
- A.
Procedures element.
- B.
Customer service.
- C.
Computer operations.
- D.
Receiving section.
Correct Answer
A. Procedures element.Explanation
The primary point of contact (POC) for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander is the Procedures element. This element is responsible for ensuring that all procedures related to special topics are followed and implemented correctly. They act as the main liaison between the management officer/commander and other departments or units, providing necessary information and coordinating activities. They play a crucial role in maintaining smooth operations and efficient communication within the organization.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(012) An effective analysis program must be based on
- A.
Mission requirements.
- B.
Management seminars.
- C.
Organizational objectives.
- D.
The analysis of operating instructions.
Correct Answer
C. Organizational objectives.Explanation
An effective analysis program must be based on organizational objectives because it needs to align with the goals and priorities of the organization. By focusing on the organizational objectives, the analysis program can identify the key areas that need improvement or optimization. This ensures that the program is targeted towards achieving the desired outcomes and contributes to the overall success of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(012) Experience and standards data are factors used in which type of analysis?
- A.
Trend.
- B.
Problem.
- C.
Important.
- D.
Performance.
Correct Answer
A. Trend.Explanation
Experience and standards data are factors used in trend analysis. Trend analysis involves examining historical data to identify patterns or trends over a period of time. By analyzing experience and standards data, one can observe and analyze the changes or trends that have occurred over time, which can be helpful in making predictions or decisions for the future.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(013) A basic ingredient of any analysis program is
- A.
Charts.
- B.
Opinions.
- C.
A database.
- D.
Relaible and valid data.
Correct Answer
D. Relaible and valid data.Explanation
A basic ingredient of any analysis program is reliable and valid data. This is because analysis programs rely on accurate and trustworthy information to generate meaningful insights and conclusions. Without reliable and valid data, the analysis program would not be able to provide accurate results or make informed decisions. Therefore, having reliable and valid data is crucial for the effectiveness and reliability of any analysis program.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(013) You should request “as required” computer products by using the
- A.
AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request.
- B.
AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request.
- C.
DD Form 1530, Supply Request.
- D.
Telephone or message only.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request.Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request. This form is specifically designed for requesting computer products as required. The other options, AF Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request, and DD Form 1530, Supply Request, are not specifically tailored for computer products. The option of using telephone or message only is not a formal method of requesting computer products and may not provide the necessary documentation and tracking.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(014) What forms can management indicators take?
- A.
Subjective and informational.
- B.
Informational and available.
- C.
Quantitative or qualitative.
- D.
Available or subjective.
Correct Answer
C. Quantitative or qualitative.Explanation
Management indicators can take the form of either quantitative or qualitative measures. Quantitative indicators involve numerical data and measurements, such as financial figures or production output. On the other hand, qualitative indicators involve subjective assessments or observations, such as customer satisfaction or employee morale. Both types of indicators are commonly used in management to assess performance, make informed decisions, and track progress towards organizational goals.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(014) Stockage effectiveness is the basic measure of
- A.
Issue effectiveness.
- B.
Supply support to the customer.
- C.
Supply support to the contractor.
- D.
How often an item was requested.
Correct Answer
B. Supply support to the customer.Explanation
Stockage effectiveness refers to the ability of a supply system to provide timely and adequate support to the customer, ensuring that the right items are available when needed. It measures the effectiveness of supply support provided to the customer, ensuring that their needs are met efficiently. This includes factors such as inventory management, stock availability, and delivery speed. Therefore, the correct answer is "supply support to the customer."Rate this question:
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- 38.
(015) How is a decision normally made on whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of property?
- A.
Automatically by the automated general support operating program (AGSOP).
- B.
Automatically under the Materiel Management System program control.
- C.
Externally by the accountable officer.
- D.
Externally by the flight chief.
Correct Answer
B. Automatically under the Materiel Management System program control.Explanation
The correct answer is "Automatically under the Materiel Management System program control." This means that the decision on whether to give a customer a refund for the turn-in of property is made automatically by the Materiel Management System program. The program is designed to control and manage the materials and resources of an organization, including the decision-making process for refunds.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(015) What product does the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager use to review non-reimbursable issues from the SMAG?
- A.
R01.
- B.
Q07.
- C.
D18.
- D.
D20.
Correct Answer
D. D20.Explanation
The SMAG manager uses product D20 to review non-reimbursable issues from the SMAG.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(015) Who must approve the use of credit code “Y’ in the materiel management system program control before processing a stock fund turn-in?
- A.
Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager.
- B.
Maintenance or supply inspector.
- C.
Division SMAG officer.
- D.
Accounting and finance.
Correct Answer
A. Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager.Explanation
The correct answer is the Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG) manager. The SMAG manager is responsible for approving the use of credit code "Y" in the materiel management system program. This credit code is used for processing a stock fund turn-in, and it is important to have the approval of the SMAG manager to ensure proper control and accountability of the stock funds. The SMAG manager has the authority and knowledge to make informed decisions regarding the use of credit codes in the materiel management system program.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(016) Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
- A.
Logistics Readiness Squadron/Commander (LRS/CC).
- B.
All Air Force members and employees.
- C.
Management and systems flight.
- D.
Maintenance officer.
Correct Answer
B. All Air Force members and employees.Explanation
All Air Force members and employees will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use. This means that anyone who is part of the Air Force, regardless of their specific role or position, can be held responsible for any harm caused to government property through their actions or lack of action. It is important for all members and employees to exercise care and responsibility when handling government property to avoid any potential liability.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(016) What can be assessed if it appears that an individual’s actions, or failure to act, constituted negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
- A.
Letter of counseling.
- B.
Financial liability.
- C.
Letter of reprimand.
- D.
Fine.
Correct Answer
B. Financial liability.Explanation
If it appears that an individual's actions or failure to act constituted negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use, they can be assessed with financial liability. This means that they may be held responsible for any financial damages or losses that resulted from their actions or lack thereof. This could involve having to pay for repairs, replacements, or compensation to affected parties. It is a more severe consequence compared to a letter of counseling or reprimand, and it is also different from a fine, which is typically imposed by a legal or regulatory authority.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(017) Where are all suspense files of the Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) kept?
- A.
Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
- B.
Stock Control.
- C.
Receiving.
- D.
Inspection.
Correct Answer
B. Stock Control.Explanation
The correct answer is Stock Control. In the context of Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR), stock control is responsible for keeping track of inventory and managing stock levels. Therefore, it is logical to assume that the suspense files of SDRs would be kept in the stock control department. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS), Receiving, and Inspection may be involved in the process of handling SDRs, but they are not specifically responsible for keeping the suspense files.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(017) Who is responsible for evaluating and controlling all incoming Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) from activities that receive discrepant shipments from your materiel management account?
- A.
Procedures.
- B.
Stock Control.
- C.
Receiving.
- D.
Inspection.
Correct Answer
A. Procedures.Explanation
Procedures are responsible for evaluating and controlling all incoming Supply Discrepancy Reports (SDR) from activities that receive discrepant shipments from your materiel management account. Procedures refer to the set of established guidelines and protocols that dictate how certain tasks or processes should be carried out. In this case, there are specific procedures in place to handle and assess SDRs, ensuring that any issues or discrepancies with incoming shipments are properly evaluated and addressed.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(018) What system prepares data reports for off-base distribution?
- A.
Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).
- B.
Supply Interface System (SIFS).
- C.
ADRSS II.
- D.
User.
Correct Answer
A. Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS).Explanation
The correct answer is Automated Data Reports Submission System (ADRSS). This system is responsible for preparing data reports for off-base distribution. It automates the process of submitting data reports, making it more efficient and accurate. It eliminates the need for manual preparation and distribution of reports, saving time and resources. ADRSS ensures that the reports are submitted in a timely manner and reach the intended recipients off-base.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(018) Who must review the residue portion of the supply interface system end-of-day report to ensure users clear residue images in a timely manner?
- A.
Accountable officer.
- B.
Individual flight chiefs.
- C.
Procedures and accountability.
- D.
Management and system officer.
Correct Answer
C. Procedures and accountability.Explanation
The residue portion of the supply interface system end-of-day report needs to be reviewed by Procedures and accountability to ensure that users clear residue images in a timely manner. This means that it is the responsibility of the Procedures and accountability department to ensure that the necessary procedures are in place for users to clear residue images and to hold them accountable for doing so.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(019) Who maintains accountability by validating all transaction images have processed?
- A.
Post post control team (PPCT) Chief.
- B.
Procedures and Accountability.
- C.
Individual flight chiefs.
- D.
PPCT member.
Correct Answer
A. Post post control team (PPCT) Chief.Explanation
The Post Post Control Team (PPCT) Chief is responsible for maintaining accountability by validating all transaction images have processed. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that all transactions have been accurately recorded and processed. They have the authority to review and verify the transaction images to ensure that they are correct and complete. This role is crucial in maintaining the accuracy and integrity of the transaction records.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(019) How often is long term performed?
- A.
Monthly.
- B.
Quarterly.
- C.
Semiannually.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
D. Annually.Explanation
Long term is performed once a year. This is indicated by the word "annually" in the answer option.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(020) Who may force delete rejects using the reject processor program?
- A.
Accountable officers.
- B.
Reject monitors.
- C.
Procedures and analysis.
- D.
Management and system officer.
Correct Answer
B. Reject monitors.Explanation
Reject monitors may force delete rejects using the reject processor program. They are responsible for monitoring and managing rejected transactions and have the authority to delete them from the system. This task requires a thorough understanding of the reject processor program and the ability to analyze and identify which rejects should be deleted. Accountable officers, procedures and analysis, and management and system officers may have different roles and responsibilities, but the question specifically asks about the individuals who can force delete rejects, which is the reject monitors.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(020) What listing shows all rejects cleared by the monitor?
- A.
D818.
- B.
D04.
- C.
D11.
- D.
D20.
Correct Answer
D. D20.Explanation
The correct answer is D20 because it is the only option that mentions the monitor. The question asks for the listing that shows all rejects cleared by the monitor, and D20 is the only option that includes the monitor. The other options do not mention the monitor, so they are not relevant to the question.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 21, 2013Quiz Created by
Joshuajones02
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