EOC 2S051 Expeditionary Logistics

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Questions: 123 | Attempts: 1,373 | Updated: Mar 22, 2023

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EOC 2S051 Expeditionary Logistics - Quiz

Questions and Answers

1.

Materiel management specialist are not responsible for
- A.
  
  A. Providing support to maintenance activities.
- B.
  
  B. Researching and identifying materiel requirements.
- C.
  
  C. Performing materiel management systems control functions.
- D.
  
  D. Preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data.
Correct Answer
C. C. Performing materiel management systems control functions.

Explanation
Materiel management specialists are responsible for providing support to maintenance activities, researching and identifying materiel requirements, and preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data. However, they are not responsible for performing materiel management systems control functions. This task typically falls under the purview of materiel management systems analysts or other related roles.

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2.

To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than how many years time-in-service?
- A.
  
  9
- B.
  
  15
- C.
  
  13
- D.
  
  11
Correct Answer
B. 15

Explanation
To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than 15 years time-in-service. This means that individuals with 15 or more years of service are not eligible for the program.

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3.

Which Expeditionary Logistics 21^st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?
- A.
  
  A. Effect One: Enterprise View
- B.
  
  B. Effect Two: Integrated Processes
- C.
  
  C. Effect Three: Optimized Resources
- D.
  
  D. Effect Four: Integrated Technology
Correct Answer
A. A. Effect One: Enterprise View

Explanation
The correct answer, Effect One: Enterprise View, ensures that logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force. This means that logistics operations are viewed and managed from a holistic perspective, considering the needs and requirements of the entire organization rather than just individual units or departments. This approach allows for better coordination, collaboration, and resource allocation, resulting in more effective and efficient logistics operations.

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4.

In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21^st Century (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource?
- A.
  
  A. financial
- B.
  
  B. acquisition
- C.
  
  C. technology
- D.
  
  D. infrastructure
Correct Answer
C. C. technology

Explanation
In support of the eLog21 integrated processes, financial resources are needed to fund the logistics operations, acquisition resources are required to procure necessary equipment and supplies, and infrastructure resources are necessary for the physical facilities and transportation systems. However, technology is not considered a resource in this context. While technology may be utilized in the logistics processes, it is not categorized as a resource alongside financial, acquisition, and infrastructure resources.

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5.

What organization has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system?
- A.
  
  A. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO)
- B.
  
  B. General Services Administration (GSA)
- C.
  
  C. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)
- D.
  
  D. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
Correct Answer
C. C. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)

Explanation
The Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) is responsible for the cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system. This means that AFMC oversees the entire lifecycle of these systems, from their initial development and acquisition to their retirement and disposal. AFMC ensures that these weapon systems are properly maintained, repaired, and upgraded throughout their lifespan, and also manages their storage, distribution, and disposal when they are no longer needed. This comprehensive responsibility makes AFMC the organization that is accountable for the entire management process of Air Force weapon systems.

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6.

Which source of supply manages and purchases common consumable items used by all of the military services and some of the civilian agencies?
- A.
  
  A. Local manufacturers.
- B.
  
  B. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
- C.
  
  C. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)
- D.
  
  D. General Services Administration (GSA)
Correct Answer
B. B. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

Explanation
The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) is the correct answer because it is responsible for managing and purchasing common consumable items used by all of the military services and some civilian agencies. The DLA is a combat support agency of the Department of Defense and is tasked with providing logistics support to the military and other government organizations. They are responsible for procuring and distributing a wide range of supplies and equipment, including common consumables, to ensure the readiness and effectiveness of the military and other agencies.

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7.

Which class of supply includes weapon?
- A.
  
  A. II
- B.
  
  B. IV
- C.
  
  C. VI
- D.
  
  D. VIII
Correct Answer
A. A. II

Explanation
Class II supplies include weapon systems, ammunition, and components. This class of supply is specifically designated for items that are necessary for the operation and maintenance of weapon systems. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that weapons are included in Class II supplies.

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8.

Which class of supply consists of ammunition?
- A.
  
  A. III
- B.
  
  B. V
- C.
  
  C. VII
- D.
  
  D. IX
Correct Answer
B. B. V

Explanation
Class V supply consists of ammunition. This class includes all types of ammunition, such as bullets, shells, grenades, and rockets. It also includes associated components and accessories, such as fuses, primers, and propellants. Class V supply is vital for military operations as it ensures that the necessary ammunition is available for combat and training purposes.

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9.

What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provides logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment tasks?
- A.
  
  A. Readiness
- B.
  
  B. Traffic management
- C.
  
  C. Material management
- D.
  
  D. Management and systems
Correct Answer
A. A. Readiness

Explanation
The correct answer is A. Readiness. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provides logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment tasks. This means that they are responsible for ensuring that personnel are prepared and equipped to handle deployment tasks efficiently and effectively. This includes training in areas such as transportation, supply chain management, and equipment readiness.

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10.

Which division is responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and records maintenance?
- A.
  
  A. Management and systems
- B.
  
  B. Command section
- C.
  
  C. Mission readiness
- D.
  
  D. Sustainment
Correct Answer
A. A. Management and systems

Explanation
The division responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and records maintenance is the Management and Systems division. This division is in charge of overseeing and managing the various systems and processes related to supply management and ensuring efficient and effective operations.

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11.

Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in SBSS?
- A.
  
  A. Administration
- B.
  
  B. Item accounting
- C.
  
  C. File maintenance
- D.
  
  D. Accounting and finance
Correct Answer
A. A. Administration

Explanation
The correct answer is A. Administration. This is because the question asks for a process that is not one of the four supply major processes in SBSS. The four supply major processes in SBSS are item accounting, file maintenance, and accounting and finance. Administration is not mentioned as one of the four processes, therefore it is the correct answer.

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12.

Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?
- A.
  
  A. Interchangeable and substitute group (ISG)
- B.
  
  B. Miscellaneous file maintenance
- C.
  
  C. Follow-up
- D.
  
  D. Status
Correct Answer
B. B. Miscellaneous file maintenance

Explanation
The correct answer is B. Miscellaneous file maintenance because this process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations. The term "miscellaneous" implies that it covers a wide range of file maintenance tasks, including updating different types of records.

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13.

How many different types of reports can be processed through the materiel management computer system?
- A.
  
  A. Five
- B.
  
  B. Six
- C.
  
  C. Seven
- D.
  
  D. Eight
Correct Answer
A. A. Five

Explanation
The correct answer is A. Five. The question asks how many different types of reports can be processed through the materiel management computer system. The answer is five, indicating that there are five distinct types of reports that can be generated and processed using the system.

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14.

What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?
- A.
  
  A. Part
- B.
  
  B. Section
- C.
  
  C. Volume
- D.
  
  D. Paragraph
Correct Answer
C. C. Volume

Explanation
The largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual is a volume. A volume is a larger division of a book or manual that contains multiple sections and chapters. In this case, AFMAN 23-110 is divided into different volumes, each covering specific topics or areas related to supply management in the United States Air Force.

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15.

How would the document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 be identified in a search of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?
- A.
  
  A. 0223
- B.
  
  B. 02023
- C.
  
  C. 020203
- D.
  
  D. 0202030
Correct Answer
C. C. 020203

Explanation
In a search of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, the document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 would be identified as "020203". This is because the file name format follows a pattern where each digit represents a different level of hierarchy in the document's organization. The first two digits represent the volume, the next two digits represent the part, and the last two digits represent the chapter. Therefore, "02" represents Volume 2, "02" represents Part 2, and "03" represents Chapter 3.

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16.

What releveling flag is used on a requirement computation inquiry in SBSS to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?
- A.
  
  A. C
- B.
  
  B. D
- C.
  
  C. F
- D.
  
  D. R
Correct Answer
D. D. R

Explanation
The correct answer is D. R. In SBSS, the releveling flag "R" is used on a requirement computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag allows users to view and analyze the requirements for a specific stock number, helping them make informed decisions regarding inventory management and procurement.

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17.

Under the Consolidated Transaction History (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date?
- A.
  
  A. Stock number
- B.
  
  B. Transaction serial number
- C.
  
  C. Batch miscellaneous option
- D.
  
  D. Batch transaction date and serial number
Correct Answer
A. A. Stock number

Explanation
The correct answer is A. Stock number. Under the Consolidated Transaction History (CTH) system, selecting records using the stock number and transaction date is done through the stock number inquiry. This allows users to search for specific transactions related to a particular stock number and transaction date.

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18.

Under the Consolidated Transaction History (CTH) system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print?
- A.
  
  A. Abbreviated format (Option A)
- B.
  
  B. Short format (Option B)
- C.
  
  C. Short format (Option S)
- D.
  
  D. Long format (Option L)
Correct Answer
A. A. Abbreviated format (Option A)

Explanation
The correct answer is A. Abbreviated format (Option A). This option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print. The Consolidated Transaction History (CTH) system allows users to view transaction histories in different formats, and the abbreviated format provides a condensed version of the history for easier viewing and understanding.

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19.

The database key in a TRACE inquiry consists of the area name and the
- A.
  
  A. calc key.
- B.
  
  B. area key.
- C.
  
  C. trace key.
- D.
  
  D. record key.
Correct Answer
B. B. area key.

Explanation
In a TRACE inquiry, the database key consists of the area name and the area key. The area key is used to uniquely identify a specific area within the database. Therefore, option B is the correct answer as it accurately describes the key used in a TRACE inquiry.

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20.

Which term indicates that any update the SBSS application program may have made since starting, or since it executed its last FREE DMR command, will be undone?
- A.
  
  A. Rollback (RB) code
- B.
  
  B. Error function
- C.
  
  C. RB function
- D.
  
  D. Error code
Correct Answer
A. A. Rollback (RB) code

Explanation
The correct answer is A. Rollback (RB) code. The term "rollback" refers to the process of undoing any updates made by an application program. In this context, the SBSS application program has the ability to undo any changes it has made since starting or since its last execution of the FREE DMR command. The RB code is responsible for initiating this rollback process, ensuring that any updates are reversed and the system is restored to its previous state.

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21.

Who reviews part 8 of the D20, Base Surveillance Report, Daily Security Violation List?
- A.
  
  A. Management and systems officer
- B.
  
  B. Computer operations supervisor
- C.
  
  C. Individual flight chief
- D.
  
  D. Accountable officer
Correct Answer
A. A. Management and systems officer

Explanation
The correct answer is A. Management and systems officer. The management and systems officer is responsible for reviewing part 8 of the D20, Base Surveillance Report, Daily Security Violation List. This role is typically responsible for overseeing the management and operation of computer systems and ensuring compliance with security protocols. They would be the most appropriate person to review and address any security violations listed in the report.

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22.

Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listing must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual; an AF FORM 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or
- A.
  
  A. A flight request.
- B.
  
  B. A job order number.
- C.
  
  C. A cumulative reject.
- D.
  
  D. An approved supplement
Correct Answer
D. D. An approved supplement

Explanation
The correct answer is D. An approved supplement. This means that in order for the production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listing to be supported, there must be an approved supplement. This supplement could be in the form of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual, an AF FORM 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request, or any other approved document that outlines the specific requirement for the scheduling.

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23.

Which functional area is responsible for the completeness and accuracy of all management reports and listings?
- A.
  
  A. Flight line services
- B.
  
  B. Computer operations
- C.
  
  C. Procedures and analysis
- D.
  
  D. Management and systems
Correct Answer
D. D. Management and systems

Explanation
Management and systems are responsible for the completeness and accuracy of all management reports and listings. This functional area ensures that the information presented in these reports is reliable and reflects the true state of the organization. They oversee the processes and systems used to collect, analyze, and report data, ensuring that it is accurate and complete. By doing so, management and systems help provide decision-makers with the necessary information to make informed choices and drive the organization's success.

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24.

Who establishes a supply management activity group?
- A.
  
  A. Office of Management and Budget
- B.
  
  B. Secretary of the Air Force
- C.
  
  C. Secretary of Defense
- D.
  
  D. Congress
Correct Answer
D. D. Congress

Explanation
Congress establishes a supply management activity group. This is because Congress has the authority to create and establish various government agencies and groups through legislation. In this case, Congress would establish the supply management activity group to oversee and manage the supply chain and procurement activities within the government. The Office of Management and Budget, Secretary of the Air Force, and Secretary of Defense do not have the authority to establish such a group.

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25.

The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into how many divisions?
- A.
  
  A. Four
- B.
  
  B. Five
- C.
  
  C. Six
- D.
  
  D. Seven
Correct Answer
C. C. Six

Explanation
The correct answer is C. Six. The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into six divisions.

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26.

How frequently should you schedule a surveillance visit?
- A.
  
  A. As required
- B.
  
  B. Quarterly
- C.
  
  C. Semiannually
- D.
  
  D. Annually
Correct Answer
D. D. Annually

Explanation
You should schedule a surveillance visit annually because it is important to regularly monitor and assess the activities and operations being surveilled. An annual visit allows for a comprehensive review of the surveillance system and ensures that any potential issues or vulnerabilities are identified and addressed in a timely manner. Additionally, an annual visit provides an opportunity to evaluate the effectiveness of the surveillance measures in place and make any necessary updates or improvements.

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27.

When the SBSS computer does not process of update transactions a it should, what form is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment Systems Group?
- A.
  
  A. AF Form 1810
- B.
  
  B. AF Form 1815
- C.
  
  C. AF Form 1820
- D.
  
  D. AF Form 1825
Correct Answer
B. B. AF Form 1815

Explanation
The correct answer is AF Form 1815. This form is used to report problems with the SBSS computer when it is not processing or updating transactions as it should. It is specifically used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment Systems Group.

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28.

Who determines the priority of projects to be performed by the materiel management analysis element?
- A.
  
  A. Branch chief
- B.
  
  B. Training personnel
- C.
  
  C. Analysis supervisor
- D.
  
  D. Accountable officer
Correct Answer
D. D. Accountable officer

Explanation
The accountable officer is responsible for determining the priority of projects to be performed by the materiel management analysis element. This individual is accountable for the overall management and decision-making processes within the organization, including prioritizing projects based on various factors such as budget, resources, and strategic goals.

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29.

What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment of non-directed transfer to DRMO?
- A.
  
  A. Four
- B.
  
  B. Five
- C.
  
  C. Six
- D.
  
  D. Seven
Correct Answer
C. C. Six

Explanation
The transaction exception used to identify a degraded operations shipment of non-directed transfer to DRMO is "Six".

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30.

How often does document control perform a revalidation of those people who are authorized to receipt for classified property?
- A.
  
  A. Monthly
- B.
  
  B. Quarterly
- C.
  
  C. Semiannually
- D.
  
  D. Annually
Correct Answer
C. C. Semiannually

Explanation
Document control performs a revalidation of those people authorized to receipt for classified property every six months, or twice a year. This ensures that the individuals who have access to classified property are regularly reviewed and evaluated to maintain the security and integrity of the property. Revalidating semiannually strikes a balance between frequent reviews and practicality, ensuring that any changes in personnel or circumstances are promptly addressed while not overwhelming the document control process with excessive revalidations.

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31.

What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file?
- A.
  
  A. TRICs FIC and FCU
- B.
  
  B. Source documents with file indicator D
- C.
  
  C. TRIC FCU
- D.
  
  D. TRIC FIC
Correct Answer
B. B. Source documents with file indicator D

Explanation
Source documents with file indicator D are not placed in a permanent document file.

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32.

What materiel management register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes?
- A.
  
  A. Daily Transaction (D06)
- B.
  
  B. Daily Document Control (D04)
- C.
  
  C. Consolidated Transaction (M19)
- D.
  
  D. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (M10)
Correct Answer
C. C. Consolidated Transaction (M19)

Explanation
The correct answer is C. Consolidated Transaction (M19). This register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes. The term "consolidated" suggests that this register combines multiple transaction histories into one, providing a comprehensive overview of all transactions. The use of magnetic tapes implies that the transaction histories are stored in a physical format, which is then merged to create the register.

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33.

All shipments and transfers processed through the LRS produce what type of detail?
- A.
  
  A. Registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only or special-spares
- B.
  
  B. Special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM)
- C.
  
  C. Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC)
- D.
  
  D. Shipment inventory
Correct Answer
C. C. Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC)

Explanation
The correct answer is C. Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC). This means that all shipments and transfers processed through the LRS result in either a shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited detail. This detail indicates that the items have been shipped but have not yet been credited or accounted for. It suggests that there may be a delay or issue in the processing or tracking of these shipments.

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34.

What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?
- A.
  
  A. R04
- B.
  
  B. R23
- C.
  
  C. R40
- D.
  
  D. R43
Correct Answer
C. C. R40

Explanation
The listing used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details is R40.

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35.

Which transaction is authorized reverse-post action?
- A.
  
  A. An organizational refusal when the wrong property was issued and signed for, and later returned to base supply
- B.
  
  B. Funding error in which the unit price change variance is 500 percent or greater
- C.
  
  C. A registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only detail
- D.
  
  D. A budget code 9 item processed in the previous year
Correct Answer
B. B. Funding error in which the unit price change variance is 500 percent or greater
36.

What is the TRIC for an automated reverse-post transaction?
- A.
  
  A. 1AM
- B.
  
  B. 1CC
- C.
  
  C. 1TK
- D.
  
  D. 1WC
Correct Answer
A. A. 1AM

Explanation
The correct answer is A. 1AM. The TRIC (Transaction Identifier Code) for an automated reverse-post transaction is 1AM. This code is used to identify and track the specific transaction type, in this case, a reverse-post transaction.

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37.

What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input?
- A.
  
  A. transaction serial number, quantity, and type transaction phrase code
- B.
  
  B. transaction serial number, quantity, and date
- C.
  
  C. transaction serial number, TTPC, and date
- D.
  
  D. quantity, TTPC, and date
Correct Answer
C. C. transaction serial number, TTPC, and date

Explanation
To make an automated reverse-post input, the information required includes the transaction serial number, TTPC (type transaction phrase code), and date. These details are necessary to accurately identify and process the specific transaction that needs to be reversed. The transaction serial number ensures the correct transaction is targeted, the TTPC specifies the type of transaction phrase code associated with the transaction, and the date further helps in identifying the specific transaction to be reversed.

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38.

Which code on an issue request is used by the SBSS to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction?
- A.
  
  A. system designator
- B.
  
  B. issue exception code
- C.
  
  C. transaction exception code
- D.
  
  D. transaction identification code
Correct Answer
D. D. transaction identification code

Explanation
The SBSS (Systematic Buyer Support System) uses the transaction identification code to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction. This code helps in identifying and categorizing different types of transactions, allowing the system to determine the appropriate program or process to handle it. The transaction identification code is crucial in ensuring that the correct actions are taken for each specific transaction within the SBSS.

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39.

Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status?
- A.
  
  A. I004
- B.
  
  B. I005
- C.
  
  C. I007
- D.
  
  D. I023
Correct Answer
A. A. I004

Explanation
The correct answer is A. I004. This management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects the status of issue, kill, or backorder quantities. It provides information on the quantities that have been issued, killed, or are on backorder.

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40.

An I007 management notice will be produced when a
- A.
  
  A. stock number request cannot be converted to a part number.
- B.
  
  B. stock number request can be converted to multiple part numbers
- C.
  
  C. part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control.
- D.
  
  D. part number request can be converted to a single stock number under program control.
Correct Answer
C. C. part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control.

Explanation
An I007 management notice will be produced when a part number request cannot be converted to a stock number under program control. This means that the system or program in place is unable to find a corresponding stock number for the requested part number. This notice is likely generated to alert management or the appropriate personnel about the issue so that they can take necessary actions to resolve it.

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41.

Which management notice reflects the total base asset position of an item?
- A.
  
  A. I004
- B.
  
  B. I005
- C.
  
  C. I007
- D.
  
  D. I023
Correct Answer
D. D. I023

Explanation
Management notice I023 reflects the total base asset position of an item. This notice provides information about the total assets held by the management, including the base assets. Therefore, it is the correct answer for the given question.

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42.

What activity code identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document?
- A.
  
  A. X
- B.
  
  B. R
- C.
  
  C. J
- D.
  
  D. C
Correct Answer
C. C. J

Explanation
The activity code "J" identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document. This means that when an issue request is labeled with the activity code "J," it is recognized as a document within the automated maintenance system. This code likely helps to streamline and track the maintenance process, ensuring that all issue requests are properly recorded and addressed.

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43.

What SBSS output notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status?
- A.
  
  A. DUO
- B.
  
  B. 1SH
- C.
  
  C. ISU
- D.
  
  D. CSU
Correct Answer
B. B. 1SH

Explanation
The correct answer is B. 1SH. The 1SH output in SBSS notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status.

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44.

What mission capability flag on an issue request is needed to establish a mission capability due-out?
- A.
  
  A. N
- B.
  
  B. M
- C.
  
  C. F
- D.
  
  D. D
Correct Answer
A. A. N

Explanation
The mission capability flag "N" on an issue request is needed to establish a mission capability due-out. This flag indicates that the item is needed to restore or maintain the mission capability of a system or equipment. By assigning this flag to an issue request, it signifies the urgency and importance of the item in order to ensure the successful completion of the mission.

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45.

What core automated maintenance system data screen is used to reconcile the maintenance status of a mission capability requirement?
- A.
  
  A. I023
- B.
  
  B. 1SH
- C.
  
  C. 233
- D.
  
  D. 731
Correct Answer
D. D. 731

Explanation
The correct answer is D. 731. The 731 data screen is used to reconcile the maintenance status of a mission capability requirement. This screen provides information about the maintenance activities and the status of the equipment, allowing for better coordination and planning of maintenance tasks. It helps ensure that the mission capability requirement is met by keeping track of the maintenance activities and ensuring that they are completed in a timely manner.

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46.

Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability termination?
- A.
  
  A. 30
- B.
  
  B. 45
- C.
  
  C. 60
- D.
  
  D. 90
Correct Answer
D. D. 90

Explanation
Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for 90 days after a mission capability termination. This means that the supply computer will keep track of the Y-type details, such as inventory and logistics information, for a period of 90 days after the mission capability has ended. This allows for easier monitoring and management of supply chain activities even after the mission has been completed.

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47.

What mission capability asset sourcing system product provides a daily cleanup of the system’s data base?
- A.
  
  A. E10
- B.
  
  B. E20
- C.
  
  C. E30
- D.
  
  D. E40
Correct Answer
B. B. E20

Explanation
The correct answer is B. E20. E20 is the mission capability asset sourcing system product that provides a daily cleanup of the system's database. This means that E20 regularly removes any unnecessary or outdated data from the database, ensuring that the system's data remains accurate and up to date.

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48.

What mission capability asset sourcing system/SBSS report provides the current daily status of all mission capability incidents?
- A.
  
  A. E10
- B.
  
  B. E20
- C.
  
  C. E30
- D.
  
  D. E40
Correct Answer
D. D. E40

Explanation
The correct answer is E40 because E40 is the only option that is mentioned in the question as a mission capability asset sourcing system/SBSS report. The question asks for the report that provides the current daily status of all mission capability incidents, and E40 is the only option that fits this description.

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49.

Which record is simultaneously established as a result of processing a replacement issue request for a repair cycle item?
- A.
  
  A. file status record
- B.
  
  B. DIFM detail record
- C.
  
  C. repair cycle record
- D.
  
  D. supply point detail record
Correct Answer
B. B. DIFM detail record

Explanation
When processing a replacement issue request for a repair cycle item, a DIFM (Do It For Me) detail record is simultaneously established. This record contains the necessary information about the item being replaced, such as its identification number, condition, and any maintenance actions taken. It helps in tracking the status and history of the item throughout the repair cycle process. The DIFM detail record is crucial for maintaining accurate inventory and ensuring timely replacement of items.

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50.

Which due-in from maintenance detail record indicates an issue to maintenance?
- A.
  
  A. credit
- B.
  
  B. firm
- C.
  
  C. issue
- D.
  
  D. memo
Correct Answer
B. B. firm

Explanation
The correct answer is B. firm. In the context of a maintenance detail record, the term "firm" indicates that there is a definite issue or problem that needs to be addressed by the maintenance team. This suggests that there is a clear and urgent need for maintenance intervention. The other options, credit, issue, and memo, do not specifically imply an issue or problem that requires immediate attention.

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Current Version
Mar 22, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Nov 20, 2010

Quiz Created by
Chandler021

EOC 2S051 Expeditionary Logistics

Materiel management specialist are not responsible for

To be eligible for the Air Force wholesale logistics program, applicants must have less than how many years time-in-service?

Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?

In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource?

What organization has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system?

Which source of supply manages and purchases common consumable items used by all of the military services and some of the civilian agencies?

Which class of supply includes weapon?

Which class of supply consists of ammunition?

What Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) flight provides logistics readiness deployment training for all installation personnel to carry out deployment tasks?

Which division is responsible for supply information systems management, procedures, stock fund management, contingency planning, operational analysis, and records maintenance?

Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in SBSS?

Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?

How many different types of reports can be processed through the materiel management computer system?

What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?

How would the document file name for Volume 2, Part 2, Chapter 3 be identified in a search of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual?

What releveling flag is used on a requirement computation inquiry in SBSS to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?

Under the Consolidated Transaction History (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date?

Under the Consolidated Transaction History (CTH) system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print?

The database key in a TRACE inquiry consists of the area name and the

Which term indicates that any update the SBSS application program may have made since starting, or since it executed its last FREE DMR command, will be undone?

Who reviews part 8 of the D20, Base Surveillance Report, Daily Security Violation List?

Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listing must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual; an AF FORM 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or

Which functional area is responsible for the completeness and accuracy of all management reports and listings?

Who establishes a supply management activity group?

The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into how many divisions?

How frequently should you schedule a surveillance visit?

When the SBSS computer does not process of update transactions a it should, what form is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment Systems Group?

Who determines the priority of projects to be performed by the materiel management analysis element?

What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment of non-directed transfer to DRMO?

How often does document control perform a revalidation of those people who are authorized to receipt for classified property?

What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file?

What materiel management register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes?

All shipments and transfers processed through the LRS produce what type of detail?

What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?

Which transaction is authorized reverse-post action?

What is the TRIC for an automated reverse-post transaction?

What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input?

Which code on an issue request is used by the SBSS to select the correct internal program to process an input transaction?

Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status?

An I007 management notice will be produced when a

Which management notice reflects the total base asset position of an item?

What activity code identifies an issue request as a core automated maintenance system document?

What SBSS output notifies the core automated maintenance system of changes in due-out status?

What mission capability flag on an issue request is needed to establish a mission capability due-out?

What core automated maintenance system data screen is used to reconcile the maintenance status of a mission capability requirement?

Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability termination?

What mission capability asset sourcing system product provides a daily cleanup of the system’s data base?

What mission capability asset sourcing system/SBSS report provides the current daily status of all mission capability incidents?

Which record is simultaneously established as a result of processing a replacement issue request for a repair cycle item?

Which due-in from maintenance detail record indicates an issue to maintenance?

Which Expeditionary Logistics 21^st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?

In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21^st Century (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource?