1s051 Volume I Pretest (For Reference Use Only)

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  • 1/100 Questions

    (019) Which forms may be used to post notices of hazards in a workplace?

    • AF Form 979, AF Form 1118, and AF Form 2519.
    • AF Form 1118 and AF Form 2519.
    • AF Form 979 and AF Form 1118.
    • AF Form 979 and AF Form 2519.
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About This Quiz

USAF Safety Journeyman Volume I Pretest (FOR REFERENCE USE ONLY)

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  • 2. 

    (006) Which service can other military services provide to your safety program?

    • Courtesy reports.

    • On-the-job training for interns.

    • Crossover funding for safety training.

    • Input for contingency training development.

    Correct Answer
    A. Courtesy reports.
    Explanation
    Courtesy reports can be provided by other military services to contribute to the safety program. These reports can provide valuable information about safety incidents, hazards, and best practices, allowing for a more comprehensive understanding of safety issues and potential improvements. By sharing these reports, other military services can help enhance the overall safety program and promote a safer environment for all personnel.

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  • 3. 

    (007) Which Air Force-wide campaign has run annually since the early 1980s?

    • Holiday Safety.

    • Click It or Ticket.

    • Buckle up America.

    • 101 Critical Days of Summer.

    Correct Answer
    A. 101 Critical Days of Summer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 101 Critical Days of Summer. This Air Force-wide campaign has been running annually since the early 1980s. It is aimed at promoting safety and reducing accidents during the summer months when there is often an increase in outdoor activities and travel. The campaign focuses on educating service members and their families about potential risks and providing tips for staying safe during this time of the year.

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  • 4. 

    (011) What is considered one of the best investments any safety office can make?

    • Training.

    • Appraisals.

    • Supervision.

    • Assessments.

    Correct Answer
    A. Training.
    Explanation
    Investing in training is considered one of the best investments for any safety office because it helps to enhance the knowledge and skills of employees, enabling them to perform their job duties more effectively and safely. Training ensures that employees are aware of the proper safety procedures, protocols, and regulations, reducing the risk of accidents and injuries in the workplace. It also helps to create a safety-conscious culture within the organization, where employees are actively engaged in maintaining a safe work environment. Additionally, training can also improve employee morale and job satisfaction, leading to increased productivity and overall success for the safety office.

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  • 5. 

    (023) What do peacetime deployments test?

    • Aircraft weapons delivery.

    • Airlift of material and personnel.

    • Effectiveness of wartime plans.

    • How well personnel perform under adverse conditions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Effectiveness of wartime plans.
    Explanation
    Peacetime deployments are designed to test the effectiveness of wartime plans. During these deployments, military personnel and resources are mobilized and deployed in a simulated wartime scenario to evaluate the readiness and effectiveness of the plans in place. This includes testing the coordination, communication, and execution of various military operations and strategies. By conducting these tests during peacetime, any weaknesses or areas for improvement can be identified and addressed before an actual wartime situation arises.

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  • 6. 

    (025) As a safety representative, your main concern with regard to contract surveillance involves

    • Reporting contractor mishaps.

    • Notifying contractors of OSHA inspections.

    • Protecting government property and personnel.

    • Inspecting contractor activities and report contractor mishaps.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protecting government property and personnel.
    Explanation
    As a safety representative, your main concern with regard to contract surveillance involves protecting government property and personnel. This means ensuring that contractors are following safety protocols and procedures to prevent any damage or harm to government property or personnel. This includes conducting inspections of contractor activities and reporting any mishaps that may occur to prevent further incidents and ensure the safety of all involved.

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  • 7. 

    (015) Canceling a mission altogether is employing which risk control option?

    • Avoidance.

    • Reduction.

    • Spreading.

    • Transderence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoidance.
    Explanation
    Canceling a mission altogether is considered as avoidance as it involves completely avoiding the risk by not proceeding with the mission. Avoidance is a risk control option where the organization decides not to engage in the activity that poses the risk, in order to eliminate or minimize the potential negative consequences. In this case, canceling the mission eliminates the risk associated with it, thereby employing the avoidance risk control option.

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  • 8. 

    (018) Your hazard abatement recommendations should be

    • Appropriate and feasible.

    • Realistic and subjective.

    • Subjective and suitable.

    • Objective and unquestionable.

    Correct Answer
    A. Appropriate and feasible.
    Explanation
    The hazard abatement recommendations should be appropriate and feasible to ensure that they are suitable for the specific hazard and can be implemented effectively. It is important for the recommendations to be realistic and subjective, taking into consideration the specific circumstances and factors surrounding the hazard. However, it is not necessary for the recommendations to be subjective and suitable or objective and unquestionable.

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  • 9. 

    (002) How were federal agencies required to follow the Occupational Safety and Health Act?

    • Act of Congress.

    • Executive Orders.

    • Supreme Court ruling.

    • Congressional referendum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Executive Orders.
    Explanation
    Federal agencies were required to follow the Occupational Safety and Health Act through executive orders. These orders, issued by the President, provide specific instructions and guidelines for federal agencies to implement and enforce the provisions of the Act. The executive orders ensure that federal agencies comply with the requirements of the Occupational Safety and Health Act and take necessary measures to protect the health and safety of workers.

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  • 10. 

    (006) Which union official is responsible for enforcing the safety parts of the union contract?

    • President.

    • Vice President.

    • Organizer.

    • Steward.

    Correct Answer
    A. Steward.
    Explanation
    The steward is responsible for enforcing the safety parts of the union contract. They act as a representative for the workers and ensure that the employer complies with the safety regulations outlined in the contract. The steward plays a crucial role in advocating for the workers' safety and addressing any violations or concerns related to safety in the workplace.

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  • 11. 

    (010) How much time are safety students normally allotted to complete a career development course (CDC)?

    • 6 months.

    • 9 months.

    • 12 months.

    • 18 months.

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 months.
    Explanation
    Safety students are normally allotted 12 months to complete a career development course (CDC). This duration allows students to adequately learn and understand the course material, complete assignments, and participate in any necessary practical training or assessments. It provides a reasonable amount of time for students to balance their studies with other commitments and ensures that they have sufficient time to demonstrate their knowledge and skills in the field of safety.

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  • 12. 

    (010) In reference to the supervisory roles in training, one of the best ways a supervisor can improve productivity and esprit de corps is to

    • Have an effective training program in place.

    • Conduct frequent surveys to check overall morale.

    • Ask for everyone’s input each time a decision about the operation needs to be made.

    • Motivate poor performers with a system of awards and recognition until their productivity increases.

    Correct Answer
    A. Have an effective training program in place.
    Explanation
    An effective training program in place can help improve productivity and esprit de corps among employees. By providing proper training, supervisors can ensure that employees have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their tasks efficiently. This can lead to increased productivity and a sense of camaraderie among team members. Additionally, a well-designed training program can also help in developing a positive work culture and fostering a sense of professional growth and development among employees.

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  • 13. 

    (018) What are temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program?

    • Abatement priority system measures.

    • Imminent danger situations.

    • Interim control measures.

    • Risk assessment analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Interim control measures.
    Explanation
    Interim control measures are temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency until a permanent solution can be implemented through an abatement program. These measures are put in place to mitigate the immediate risks and ensure the safety of individuals while the long-term solution is being developed and implemented. They act as a temporary fix to address the hazard or deficiency until a more permanent solution can be implemented.

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  • 14. 

    (018) Whom should you notify immediately if you encounter an imminent danger situation?

    • Supervisor.

    • Chief of Safety.

    • Functional manager.

    • Ground Safety Manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    In an imminent danger situation, it is important to notify your supervisor immediately. Your supervisor is responsible for overseeing your work and ensuring your safety. They have the authority to take immediate action and make necessary decisions to address the danger and protect you and others. Informing your supervisor promptly can help prevent further harm and allow them to take appropriate measures to mitigate the danger.

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  • 15. 

    (021) Ultimately, the support agreement is a negotiated contract based on

    • Receiver's mission.

    • Supplier's mission.

    • Receiver’s needs and the supplier’s ability to meet those needs.

    • The prevailing importance of the respective combat missions at the time of review.

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiver’s needs and the supplier’s ability to meet those needs.
    Explanation
    The support agreement is ultimately based on the receiver's needs and the supplier's ability to meet those needs. This means that the agreement is negotiated and tailored to the specific requirements of the receiver, taking into account what they need and whether the supplier is capable of fulfilling those needs. The agreement is not solely based on the receiver's mission or the supplier's mission, nor is it determined by the prevailing importance of combat missions at the time of review.

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  • 16. 

    (002) Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, who is accountable for employee violations of safety and health standards?

    • The employee.

    • The employer.

    • The state government.

    • The federal government.

    Correct Answer
    A. The employer.
    Explanation
    Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, the employer is accountable for employee violations of safety and health standards. This means that it is the responsibility of the employer to ensure that employees are following the necessary safety protocols and regulations. The employer is expected to provide a safe and healthy work environment for their employees and take necessary actions to prevent any violations or accidents.

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  • 17. 

    (002) What factor has forced a reduction in the number of general workplace safety inspections?

    • Inspection emphasis shifted towards building and trades industry.

    • Lack of congressional action to ensure compliance with the law.

    • Lack of qualified inspectors.

    • Budgetary constraints.

    Correct Answer
    A. Budgetary constraints.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is budgetary constraints. This means that the reason for the reduction in the number of general workplace safety inspections is due to limitations in the budget. This suggests that there is not enough funding available to carry out the inspections, resulting in a decrease in their frequency.

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  • 18. 

    (005) What percentage of mishap causal factors is contributed to human error?

    • 15 to 20 percent.

    • 50 to 60 percent.

    • 80 to 90 percent.

    • 100 percent.

    Correct Answer
    A. 80 to 90 percent.
    Explanation
    Human error is responsible for a significant percentage of mishap causal factors, specifically 80 to 90 percent. This means that the majority of accidents and incidents can be attributed to mistakes or failures made by individuals. It emphasizes the importance of addressing human factors in order to prevent mishaps and improve safety.

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  • 19. 

    (010) How often is the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) reviewed to validate currency?

    • Biannually.

    • Annually.

    • Semiannually.

    • Quarterly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is reviewed annually to ensure that it is up-to-date and relevant. This regular review allows for any necessary updates or changes to be made to the plan, ensuring that it accurately reflects the current requirements and standards of the career field. By reviewing the CFETP annually, any changes in technology, policies, or procedures can be incorporated into the plan, keeping it current and effective for training and development purposes.

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  • 20. 

    (010) What are the prerequisites for a 7-level upgrade trainee to attend the craftsman resident course?

    • Six months upgrade training only.

    • Twelve months upgrade training only.

    • Completion of minimum core training tasks and recommendation by supervisor only.

    • Six months upgrade training, completion of minimum core training tasks, and recommendation by supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Six months upgrade training, completion of minimum core training tasks, and recommendation by supervisor.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Six months upgrade training, completion of minimum core training tasks, and recommendation by supervisor." This means that in order for a 7-level upgrade trainee to attend the craftsman resident course, they must have completed six months of upgrade training, completed the minimum core training tasks, and have a recommendation from their supervisor.

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  • 21. 

    (011) What is one of the more common ways to provide training and save money?

    • Tuition assistance.

    • Distance learning courses.

    • Host a training course at your base.

    • Send one person from your section to a training course, and then have that person train everyone else.

    Correct Answer
    A. Distance learning courses.
    Explanation
    Distance learning courses are one of the more common ways to provide training and save money. This method allows individuals to access educational materials and resources remotely, eliminating the need for travel expenses and reducing the cost of training materials. It also provides flexibility in terms of scheduling, allowing individuals to learn at their own pace and convenience. Additionally, distance learning courses often offer cost-effective options for obtaining certifications and qualifications, making it an efficient and affordable training solution.

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  • 22. 

    (014) Which mishap-causing element of the 5–M model produces the majority of mishaps?

    • Man.

    • Media.

    • Machine.

    • Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. Man.
    Explanation
    The majority of mishaps are caused by human error or negligence. This can include mistakes made by individuals, lack of training or awareness, and failure to follow proper procedures. Human factors play a significant role in accidents and incidents across various industries, making it the most common element of the 5-M model to cause mishaps.

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  • 23. 

    (019) What is an assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap?

    • Probability.

    • Hazard severity.

    • End analysis.

    • Severity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Probability.
    Explanation
    Probability is the correct answer because it refers to the assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap. Probability is a measure of how likely it is for a specific event to occur, and in this context, it is used to evaluate the chances of a hazard or deficiency leading to a mishap. By assessing the probability, one can determine the level of risk associated with a particular hazard or deficiency and take appropriate measures to mitigate or prevent mishaps.

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  • 24. 

    (001) In 1867, which state began to use factory safety inspectors?

    • Massachusetts

    • New Jersey

    • Wisconsin

    • Alabama

    Correct Answer
    A. Massachusetts
    Explanation
    In 1867, Massachusetts began to use factory safety inspectors. This suggests that Massachusetts was proactive in ensuring the safety of workers in factories during that time. The implementation of factory safety inspectors indicates that the state recognized the need for regulations and oversight to prevent accidents and promote worker well-being.

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  • 25. 

    (004) Who has ultimate responsibility for AF safety programs?

    • Chief of safety (COS).

    • Ground safety manager (GSM).

    • Unit safety representative (USR).

    • Air Force Chief of Safety (AF/SE).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Chief of Safety (AF/SE).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Chief of Safety (AF/SE) has the ultimate responsibility for AF safety programs. This individual is in charge of overseeing and managing safety initiatives throughout the Air Force. They are responsible for developing policies, procedures, and guidelines to ensure the safety of personnel and assets. The AF/SE works closely with other safety professionals, such as the Chief of Safety (COS), Ground Safety Manager (GSM), and Unit Safety Representative (USR), to implement and enforce safety measures across the organization.

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  • 26. 

    (006) Which organization can provide consultant services on a safety problem?

    • Safety Training Institute.

    • National Safety Council.

    • Federal Advisory Council.

    • Department of Health and Human Services.

    Correct Answer
    A. National Safety Council.
    Explanation
    The National Safety Council is an organization that can provide consultant services on a safety problem. They are known for their expertise in safety issues and offer consulting services to businesses and organizations. They have a team of professionals who can assess safety risks, develop safety plans, and provide recommendations for improvement. Their consulting services can help organizations identify and address safety issues, ensuring a safe and secure environment for employees and customers.

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  • 27. 

    (014) How many steps are in the operational risk management (ORM) process?

    • 4.

    • 6.

    • 8.

    • 10.

    Correct Answer
    A. 6.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6. The operational risk management (ORM) process consists of six steps. These steps include identifying risks, assessing risks, making decisions, implementing controls, supervising and reviewing, and communicating and reporting. Each step is crucial in effectively managing and mitigating operational risks within an organization.

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  • 28. 

    (018) Which hazard abatement measure is the most desirable way to eliminate hazards?

    • Personnel actions.

    • Procedural actions.

    • Planning and engineering.

    • Operation hazard analysis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning and engineering.
    Explanation
    Planning and engineering is the most desirable way to eliminate hazards because it involves identifying potential hazards and implementing measures to mitigate them during the planning and design stages of a project. This approach allows for hazards to be addressed and eliminated before they can pose a threat to personnel or operations. Personnel actions and procedural actions may be effective in reducing hazards, but they are often reactive measures that address hazards after they have already occurred. Operation hazard analysis is a valuable tool for identifying hazards, but it does not necessarily eliminate them.

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  • 29. 

    (019) Who conducts the evaluation and assignment of risk assessment codes (RAC)?

    • The functional manager, supervisor, and safety.

    • The functional manager, fire prevention officials, and safety.

    • The safety, bioenvironmental engineering, and fire prevention officials.

    • The safety, bioenvironmental engineering, fire prevention officials, and legal officials.

    Correct Answer
    A. The safety, bioenvironmental engineering, and fire prevention officials.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the safety, bioenvironmental engineering, and fire prevention officials. These officials are responsible for conducting the evaluation and assignment of risk assessment codes (RAC). They have the expertise and knowledge to assess the risks associated with a particular activity or situation and assign the appropriate RAC to ensure the safety of personnel and property. The involvement of these officials ensures a comprehensive and thorough evaluation of the risks involved.

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  • 30. 

    (005) In relation to human factors in the mishap prevention program, people’s attitudes may be expected to remain unchanged

    • Until self-evaluation dictates a change.

    • As long as their personalities remain unchanged.

    • Until their aptitudes have been more highly developed.

    • As long as the attitudes serve and satisfy their needs.

    Correct Answer
    A. As long as the attitudes serve and satisfy their needs.
    Explanation
    People's attitudes may be expected to remain unchanged as long as the attitudes serve and satisfy their needs. This means that individuals are likely to maintain their attitudes as long as they believe that these attitudes are beneficial to them and fulfill their personal needs. Once they perceive that their attitudes no longer serve their needs, they may be more inclined to change their attitudes. Therefore, the satisfaction of personal needs is a key factor in determining whether people's attitudes will remain unchanged or not.

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  • 31. 

    (006) An effective mishap prevention program begins with

    • Inter-service liaison.

    • Professional contacts.

    • Good intra-office discipline.

    • Participation in safety councils.

    Correct Answer
    A. Good intra-office discipline.
    Explanation
    An effective mishap prevention program begins with good intra-office discipline because it ensures that all employees follow safety protocols and procedures, reducing the risk of accidents or mishaps. Intra-office discipline involves maintaining a safe and organized work environment, enforcing safety rules, and promoting a culture of safety awareness among employees. This discipline helps to create a proactive approach to preventing mishaps and encourages employees to take personal responsibility for their own safety and the safety of others.

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  • 32. 

    (006) Your office has received a large number of complaints about the traffic flow at an intersection close to the base. Which non-Air Force agency or agencies do you contact as you try to solve the problem?

    • Local safety organizations.

    • Local law enforcement.

    • Labor unions.

    • State police.

    Correct Answer
    A. Local law enforcement.
    Explanation
    To solve the problem of traffic flow at the intersection close to the base, contacting local law enforcement would be the most appropriate choice. Local law enforcement agencies are responsible for enforcing traffic laws and regulations, maintaining public safety, and managing traffic flow. They have the authority and expertise to address the complaints and take necessary actions such as increasing patrols, implementing traffic control measures, or conducting traffic studies. Local safety organizations and state police may also have some role in addressing traffic issues, but local law enforcement would be the primary agency to contact in this situation. Labor unions are not directly involved in traffic management.

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  • 33. 

    (019) What are the two criteria used in determining the priority with which a hazard should be abated?

    • Severity and probability.

    • Severity and cost-effectiveness.

    • Probability and mission requirements.

    • Mission requirements and cost-effectiveness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Severity and probability.
    Explanation
    The two criteria used in determining the priority with which a hazard should be abated are severity and probability. Severity refers to the potential impact or harm that the hazard can cause, while probability refers to the likelihood of the hazard occurring. By considering both severity and probability, decision-makers can prioritize hazards based on their potential consequences and the likelihood of those consequences happening. This allows for a more effective allocation of resources and mitigation efforts.

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  • 34. 

    (019) How long must a notice of hazard remain posted?

    • Until the hazard is corrected.

    • Three days after the hazard has been corrected.

    • Until the AF Form 457, Hazard Report is closed out.

    • Until the hazard is corrected or for three days, whichever is longer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Until the hazard is corrected or for three days, whichever is longer.
    Explanation
    A notice of hazard must remain posted until the hazard is corrected or for three days, whichever is longer. This ensures that individuals are aware of the potential danger and can take necessary precautions until the hazard is resolved. It also allows for sufficient time for the hazard to be addressed and mitigated before the notice is removed.

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  • 35. 

    (002) The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) of 1970 was passed to ensure that

    • Work-related injuries would be reported.

    • Work places would be safe and healthful.

    • Safety and health standards would be uniform.

    • Statistics on injuries and deaths would be kept.

    Correct Answer
    A. Work places would be safe and healthful.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "work places would be safe and healthful." The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) of 1970 was passed to establish and enforce standards that would ensure safe and healthful working conditions for employees. OSHA sets regulations and guidelines for employers to follow in order to prevent workplace injuries, illnesses, and fatalities. Its main goal is to protect the health and safety of workers by promoting safe practices and providing education and training on workplace hazards.

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  • 36. 

    (002) Before the creation or revision of an Occupational Safety and Health Act safety standard, the standard must be

    • Approved by the US Senate.

    • Brought before formal public hearings.

    • Approved by the US House of Representatives.

    • Brought before and approved by ⅔ of the legislative bodies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Brought before formal public hearings.
    Explanation
    Before the creation or revision of an Occupational Safety and Health Act safety standard, the standard must be brought before formal public hearings. This is because formal public hearings provide an opportunity for stakeholders, experts, and the general public to provide input, feedback, and suggestions on the proposed standard. This helps ensure that the standard is well-informed, comprehensive, and takes into account various perspectives and concerns. It also promotes transparency and accountability in the standard-setting process. The approval of the US Senate or the US House of Representatives is not required for the standard to be created or revised, but the input and feedback obtained through formal public hearings are crucial in shaping the final standard.

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  • 37. 

    (005) In relation to human factors in the mishap prevention program, people who can be expected to generally dislike safety rules and regulations are those who

    • Dislike rules and regulations.

    • Have been written up before by safety.

    • Feel as though their needs are not getting met.

    • Feel that abiding by safety rules and regulations hinders their job performance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dislike rules and regulations.
    Explanation
    People who generally dislike rules and regulations can be expected to also dislike safety rules and regulations. This is because safety rules and regulations are a subset of rules and regulations in general. Therefore, it can be inferred that those who dislike rules and regulations will also dislike safety rules and regulations.

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  • 38. 

    (007) Which way the safety office uses to educate personnel should be kept short, concise and to the point?

    • Bulletins.

    • Briefings.

    • Campaigns.

    • Newsletters.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bulletins.
    Explanation
    The safety office uses bulletins to educate personnel because they are short, concise, and to the point. Bulletins are typically brief and focused on delivering important information quickly and efficiently. This format is ideal for conveying safety instructions and guidelines in a clear and easily understandable manner. Briefings, campaigns, and newsletters may contain more detailed information or cover a broader range of topics, but bulletins are specifically designed to provide concise and straightforward education on safety matters.

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  • 39. 

    (020) For best results, when should you prepare a safety inspection checklist?

    • When new safety materials come into the office.

    • When studying or researching for an inspection.

    • During lapses in the inspection schedule to allow ample time for research.

    • Just prior to the end of an inspection when realistic inspection items are fresh on your mind.

    Correct Answer
    A. When studying or researching for an inspection.
    Explanation
    To ensure the best results, it is recommended to prepare a safety inspection checklist when studying or researching for an inspection. This allows the inspector to have a comprehensive understanding of the safety requirements and potential hazards associated with the inspection. By conducting thorough research, the inspector can identify the necessary items to include in the checklist and ensure that all relevant aspects are covered during the inspection. This approach helps to enhance the effectiveness and accuracy of the inspection process, ultimately promoting a safer work environment.

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  • 40. 

    (023) Which plan is easily updated and provides flexibility in response to command and installation changes?

    • General.

    • Compotent.

    • Infrastructure.

    • Transportation.

    Correct Answer
    A. General.
    Explanation
    The general plan is easily updated and provides flexibility in response to command and installation changes. This plan is designed to be adaptable and can be modified as needed to accommodate changes in command structure or installation requirements. It allows for flexibility in terms of resources, personnel, and logistics, making it the most suitable option for responding to changes in command and installation.

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  • 41. 

    (004) Who has the responsibility of making sure that off duty safety briefings are provided to all personnel?

    • Commander.

    • Chief of safety.

    • Ground safety staff.

    • Ground safety manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander.
    Explanation
    The commander is responsible for ensuring that off duty safety briefings are provided to all personnel. This means that it is the commander's duty to make sure that all individuals receive the necessary information and instructions to maintain safety even when they are not on duty. The commander has the overall authority and accountability for the safety of the personnel under their command, and this includes ensuring that safety briefings are conducted regularly and effectively. The chief of safety, ground safety staff, and ground safety manager may assist in this process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the commander.

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  • 42. 

    (024) What usually precedes the final specifications/blueprints to give base agencies a detailed explanation of construction?

    • Briefing by the contractor.

    • Briefing by the contracting officer.

    • A written copy of the contract.

    • A project book.

    Correct Answer
    A. A project book.
    Explanation
    A project book usually precedes the final specifications/blueprints to give base agencies a detailed explanation of construction. It provides comprehensive information about the project, including design plans, materials, timelines, and other relevant details. This allows base agencies to have a clear understanding of the construction project and make informed decisions regarding its implementation. A project book serves as a vital tool for communication and coordination between the contractor and the base agencies involved in the construction process.

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  • 43. 

    (002) The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 applied mainly to which industries/agencies?

    • Private industry.

    • Federal agencies.

    • Private construction industry only.

    • Private and federal industries/agencies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Private industry.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Private industry. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 primarily applies to private industry, ensuring that employers provide a safe and healthy working environment for their employees. This act establishes standards and regulations for workplace safety, including training, inspections, and record-keeping requirements. While federal agencies and the private construction industry are also subject to certain safety regulations, the main focus of the act is on private industry as a whole.

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  • 44. 

    (002) Who is the approval authority for state safety plans?

    • The Secretary of Labor.

    • The Secretary of Commerce.

    • The state’s legislative bodies.

    • The US Congress.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Secretary of Labor.
    Explanation
    The approval authority for state safety plans is the Secretary of Labor. This means that the Secretary of Labor has the power to review and authorize safety plans created by individual states. The Secretary of Labor plays a crucial role in ensuring that state safety plans meet the necessary standards and regulations to protect workers and promote workplace safety.

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  • 45. 

    (010) What is the most appropriate means used to measure knowledge-oriented objectives?

    • Oral tests.

    • Written tests.

    • Survey tests.

    • Performance tests.

    Correct Answer
    A. Written tests.
    Explanation
    Written tests are the most appropriate means used to measure knowledge-oriented objectives because they allow individuals to demonstrate their understanding and retention of information in a systematic and structured manner. Written tests provide a standardized format for assessing knowledge, allowing for objective evaluation and comparison of results. They also allow for the inclusion of different types of questions, such as multiple-choice, true/false, and short answer, which can assess various levels of knowledge and comprehension. Additionally, written tests provide a permanent record of individuals' performance, making it easier to track progress and identify areas for improvement.

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  • 46. 

    (010) What action serves as an invaluable tool when assessing what the trainee already knows?

    • Interviewing the trainee’s supervisor.

    • Giving the trainee a pre-test.

    • Starting where the trainee’s knowledge ends.

    • Talking about what the trainee already knows about the task.

    Correct Answer
    A. Giving the trainee a pre-test.
    Explanation
    Giving the trainee a pre-test serves as an invaluable tool when assessing what the trainee already knows. A pre-test allows the trainer to gauge the trainee's current knowledge and understanding of the subject matter before any training or instruction is provided. This helps the trainer identify any knowledge gaps or areas of strength, which can then be used to tailor the training program to the specific needs of the trainee. By administering a pre-test, the trainer can gather valuable information that will guide the training process and ensure that it is effective and efficient.

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  • 47. 

    (010) When conducting an evaluation of a new trainee, what is the first thing you should determine?

    • The objective.

    • Safety factors involved.

    • What evaluation tool will be used.

    • Where and when the evaluation will take place.

    Correct Answer
    A. The objective.
    Explanation
    In order to conduct an evaluation of a new trainee, the first thing that should be determined is the objective. This is important because it sets the purpose and goals of the evaluation. By knowing the objective, the evaluator can focus on assessing whether the trainee has achieved the desired outcomes or skills. Determining the objective also helps in selecting appropriate evaluation criteria and methods. Safety factors, evaluation tools, and logistics such as the location and timing of the evaluation are important considerations but they come after establishing the objective.

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  • 48. 

    (013) What is the overall goal of risk management?

    • To identify potential risks and to adjust or compensate appropriately.

    • To make risk decisions at a level of responsibility that corresponds to the degree of risk.

    • To reduce the hazards and risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully.

    • To identify risks using the same disciplined, organized, and logical thought processes that govern all other aspects of military endeavors.

    Correct Answer
    A. To reduce the hazards and risk to personnel to an acceptable level while continuing to execute the required missions successfully.
    Explanation
    The overall goal of risk management is to reduce the hazards and risk to personnel to an acceptable level while still being able to successfully carry out the required missions. This means identifying potential risks and taking appropriate measures to adjust or compensate for them. It also involves making risk decisions at a level of responsibility that aligns with the degree of risk involved. The goal is to ensure the safety of personnel while still being able to effectively accomplish mission objectives.

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  • 49. 

    (017) Once a non-imminent danger hazard report is received, it must be acted upon within how many days?

    • 3.

    • 7.

    • 10.

    • 15.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10.
    Explanation
    A non-imminent danger hazard report must be acted upon within 10 days. This means that once the report is received, the appropriate actions to address and resolve the hazard should be taken within this timeframe. Acting promptly on non-imminent danger hazards is crucial to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals and to prevent any potential harm or accidents from occurring.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 13, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Kahlbanor

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