1s051 Volume II Pretest (For Reference Use Only)
(149).webp "1s051 Volume II Pretest (For Reference Use Only) - Quiz")
USAF Safety Journeyman Volume II Pretest (FOR REFERENCE USE ONLY)
- 1.
(201) Which of the following is not a primary objective of the vision conservation program?
- A.
Satisfy Air Force Occupational Safety and Health concerns.
- B.
Provide high quality care.
- C.
Conduct research that supports wartime readiness.
- D.
Sustain combat capability to support the mission.
Correct Answer
A. Satisfy Air Force Occupational Safety and Health concerns.Explanation
The vision conservation program aims to provide high quality care, conduct research that supports wartime readiness, and sustain combat capability to support the mission. However, satisfying Air Force Occupational Safety and Health concerns is not listed as one of the primary objectives of the program.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
(201) Who must provide personnel with the approved eye protection required to do their job safely?
- A.
Safety.
- B.
Supervisor.
- C.
Functional manager.
- D.
Bioenvironmental engineering.
Correct Answer
C. Functional manager.Explanation
The functional manager is responsible for providing personnel with the approved eye protection required to do their job safely. This means that it is their duty to ensure that employees have the necessary protective equipment to protect their eyes while performing their tasks. The supervisor may also play a role in enforcing the use of eye protection, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the functional manager. The bioenvironmental engineering department may be involved in conducting safety assessments and recommending appropriate eye protection, but they are not directly responsible for providing it.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
(201) The amount of light to be provided in a given location is based on
- A.
The purpose for which the location is used.
- B.
The availability of supplementary lighting.
- C.
Factors such as harsh glare and shadows.
- D.
The quality of the available lighting.
Correct Answer
A. The purpose for which the location is used.Explanation
The amount of light to be provided in a given location is determined by the purpose for which the location is used. Different activities require different levels of lighting. For example, a workspace may require bright and focused lighting to ensure productivity, while a relaxation area may require softer and dimmer lighting to create a calming atmosphere. Therefore, the purpose of the location plays a crucial role in determining the appropriate amount of light needed.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
(202) Noise exposure limits are established by the
- A.
Bioenvironmental engineering office.
- B.
Director of base medical services.
- C.
USAF surgeon general.
- D.
Installation commander
Correct Answer
C. USAF surgeon general.Explanation
The USAF surgeon general is responsible for establishing noise exposure limits. This individual oversees the medical services of the entire Air Force and has the authority to set guidelines and regulations to ensure the health and safety of personnel. As noise exposure can have detrimental effects on hearing and overall well-being, it is within the purview of the surgeon general to establish these limits. The bioenvironmental engineering office, director of base medical services, and installation commander may have involvement in implementing and enforcing these limits, but the ultimate authority lies with the USAF surgeon general.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
(202) Who establishes the monitoring program in the hearing conservation area to ensure compliance with federal laws?
- A.
Installation commander.
- B.
USAF surgeon general.
- C.
Director of base medical services.
- D.
Bioenvironmental engineer.
Correct Answer
B. USAF surgeon general.Explanation
The USAF surgeon general is responsible for establishing the monitoring program in the hearing conservation area to ensure compliance with federal laws. This role is important as it ensures that all necessary measures are taken to protect the hearing health of individuals and to adhere to the regulations set by the federal government. The surgeon general's expertise in medical services makes them the most suitable authority to oversee and implement such a program.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
(202) In the hearing conservation program, the safety professional
- A.
Designates noise-hazard areas.
- B.
Decides who has to be tested for hearing loss.
- C.
Implements noise protection in building design.
- D.
Conducts follow-up inspections to ensure program compliance.
Correct Answer
D. Conducts follow-up inspections to ensure program compliance.Explanation
In the hearing conservation program, the safety professional conducts follow-up inspections to ensure program compliance. This means that after implementing the necessary measures to protect against noise hazards and testing individuals for hearing loss, the safety professional is responsible for conducting regular inspections to ensure that the program is being followed and that all necessary precautions are being taken to prevent hearing loss. This helps to ensure the effectiveness of the program and maintain a safe working environment.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
(202) If you were working in a machine shop, your workplace would be designated as a hazardous noise environment when the noise in the shop equals or exceeds
- A.
80 decibels at any time.
- B.
85 decibels at any time.
- C.
80 decibels averaged over an eight-hour period.
- D.
85 decibels averaged over an eight-hour period.
Correct Answer
D. 85 decibels averaged over an eight-hour period.Explanation
In a machine shop, the noise level can be high and continuous, which can have detrimental effects on workers' hearing. To ensure the safety of the workers, a workplace is designated as a hazardous noise environment when the noise level exceeds a certain threshold. In this case, the correct answer is 85 decibels averaged over an eight-hour period. This means that if the average noise level in the shop over an eight-hour period exceeds 85 decibels, it is considered a hazardous noise environment. This takes into account the cumulative effect of prolonged exposure to high noise levels.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
(202) When a procedure or piece of equipment exceeds the limits of safe noise exposure, what is the best course of action?
- A.
Isolate the procedure or equipment from personnel.
- B.
Require personnel to wear earmuffs or earplugs.
- C.
Warn personnel about the noise hazard.
- D.
Conduct a sound-level survey.
Correct Answer
A. Isolate the procedure or equipment from personnel.Explanation
The best course of action when a procedure or piece of equipment exceeds the limits of safe noise exposure is to isolate the procedure or equipment from personnel. This means physically separating the procedure or equipment from the workers to minimize their exposure to the excessive noise. By doing so, the risk of hearing damage or other health issues related to noise exposure can be reduced. This solution is more effective than simply requiring personnel to wear earmuffs or earplugs, warning personnel about the noise hazard, or conducting a sound-level survey.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
(203) Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous operation illustrates the hazard control method of
- A.
Isolation.
- B.
Revision.
- C.
Substitution.
- D.
Personal protective equipment (PPE).
Correct Answer
A. Isolation.Explanation
Installing a guard or barrier between the worker and the hazardous operation is a method of isolating the worker from the hazard. This physical barrier acts as a form of protection by preventing direct contact between the worker and the hazardous operation, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries. Isolation is an effective hazard control method as it eliminates or minimizes the worker's exposure to the hazard, ensuring their safety.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
(203) What solution is a last resort for controlling exposure to hazards?
- A.
Personal protective equipment.
- B.
Substitution.
- C.
Revision.
- D.
Isolation.
Correct Answer
A. Personal protective equipment.Explanation
Personal protective equipment (PPE) is the last resort for controlling exposure to hazards because it provides a physical barrier between the worker and the hazard. PPE includes items such as gloves, safety glasses, helmets, and respirators, which help to minimize the risk of injury or illness. While other control measures like substitution, revision, or isolation may be more effective in eliminating or reducing hazards, PPE is used when these measures are not feasible or do not provide sufficient protection. PPE acts as a final line of defense to ensure the safety and well-being of workers in hazardous environments.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
(204) The push-pull system is an example of which local exhaust ventilation system?
- A.
Spray booth.
- B.
Exterior hood.
- C.
Enclosure hood.
- D.
Mechanical fan.
Correct Answer
B. Exterior hood.Explanation
The push-pull system is a type of local exhaust ventilation system that uses two hoods, one for capturing the contaminated air (pull) and another for supplying clean air (push). This system is commonly used in situations where there is a need to control airborne contaminants, such as in spray booths where hazardous substances are released during the spraying process. An exterior hood is typically used in this system to capture the contaminated air at the source before it disperses into the surrounding environment.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
(204) What are the two main purposes of a spray booth?
- A.
Control temperature and humidity and protect the equipment surrounding the work area.
- B.
Protect the health of the worker and reduce the fire and explosion hazard.
- C.
Protect the health of the worker and the equipment surrounding the work area.
- D.
Aid the natural flow of air and reduce the fire and explosion hazard.
Correct Answer
B. Protect the health of the worker and reduce the fire and explosion hazard.Explanation
A spray booth has two main purposes: to protect the health of the worker and to reduce the fire and explosion hazard. By containing and ventilating the area where spraying is done, the booth helps prevent the inhalation of harmful fumes and particles by the worker. Additionally, the booth is designed to minimize the risk of fire or explosion by providing proper ventilation and containing any flammable materials or vapors.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
(204) Which principle accurately describes the difference between local exhaust and general ventilation?
- A.
General ventilation is usually better because it uses a smaller fan than local exhaust ventilation.
- B.
Local exhaust ventilation dilutes the air contaminants while general ventilation removes them before they can enter the atmosphere.
- C.
Local exhaust ventilation is usually preferred because it handles a smaller volume of air than general ventilation.
- D.
General ventilation cleans the air better than local exhaust ventilation.
Correct Answer
C. Local exhaust ventilation is usually preferred because it handles a smaller volume of air than general ventilation.Explanation
Local exhaust ventilation is usually preferred because it handles a smaller volume of air than general ventilation. This means that local exhaust ventilation is more effective in removing air contaminants at the source, as it directly captures and removes them before they can spread into the surrounding atmosphere. General ventilation, on the other hand, dilutes the air contaminants by circulating larger volumes of air, but may not be as effective in removing them completely.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
(204) Any type of fan device that aids the flow of air in an area is known as
- A.
Local exhaust.
- B.
Lateral exhaust.
- C.
Local ventilation.
- D.
Mechanical ventilation.
Correct Answer
D. Mechanical ventilation.Explanation
The correct answer is "mechanical ventilation" because it refers to any type of fan device that helps in the movement or flow of air in a specific area. This can include exhaust fans, ceiling fans, or HVAC systems that use mechanical means to circulate and ventilate the air. The other options mentioned, such as local exhaust, lateral exhaust, and local ventilation, do not encompass the broader concept of mechanical ventilation.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
(204) What agency reviews the initial design for any ventilation system to be used in Air Force environments?
- A.
Wing safety.
- B.
Public health.
- C.
Base medical services.
- D.
Bioenvironmental engineering.
Correct Answer
D. Bioenvironmental engineering.Explanation
Bioenvironmental engineering is the correct answer because this agency is responsible for reviewing the initial design of ventilation systems in Air Force environments. They ensure that the systems meet the necessary safety and health standards to protect the personnel and maintain a suitable environment.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
(205) Which of the following conditions creates a hazardous atmosphere?
- A.
The presence of flammable gas in any amount.
- B.
Any space that is not designed for continuous occupancy.
- C.
The presence of an atmospheric oxygen concentration of 20 percent.
- D.
The presence of a flammable gas in excess of 10 percent of its lower explosive limit.
Correct Answer
D. The presence of a flammable gas in excess of 10 percent of its lower explosive limit.Explanation
The presence of a flammable gas in excess of 10 percent of its lower explosive limit creates a hazardous atmosphere. Flammable gases can ignite and cause explosions if they reach a certain concentration in the air. The lower explosive limit is the minimum concentration of a gas or vapor that is required to ignite in the presence of an ignition source. If the concentration of a flammable gas exceeds 10 percent of its lower explosive limit, it poses a significant risk of causing an explosion, making the atmosphere hazardous.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
(205) Oxygen deficiency is first reached when oxygen content is below
- A.
17.5 percent.
- B.
18.5 percent.
- C.
19.5 percent.
- D.
20.5 percent.
Correct Answer
C. 19.5 percent.Explanation
Oxygen deficiency occurs when the oxygen content in the air is below a certain level. In this case, the correct answer is 19.5 percent, indicating that oxygen deficiency is first reached when the oxygen content falls below this threshold.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
(205) An atmosphere is considered oxygen-enriched when oxygen content rises above
- A.
21.5 percent.
- B.
22 percent.
- C.
23 percent.
- D.
23.5 percent.
Correct Answer
D. 23.5 percent.Explanation
An atmosphere is considered oxygen-enriched when the oxygen content rises above 23.5 percent. This means that the oxygen concentration in the air is higher than the normal level of 21 percent found in the Earth's atmosphere. Oxygen-enriched atmospheres can have various applications, such as in medical settings where higher oxygen levels are needed for patients with respiratory issues or in industrial processes where oxygen is used for combustion.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
(205) Who must sign the entry permit prior to workers entering a confined space?
- A.
Entrants only.
- B.
Attendant only.
- C.
Supervisor only.
- D.
Supervisor and entrants.
Correct Answer
D. Supervisor and entrants.Explanation
The supervisor and entrants must sign the entry permit prior to workers entering a confined space. This is important to ensure that all parties involved are aware of the risks and safety measures associated with entering the confined space. The supervisor's signature indicates that they have assessed the conditions and deemed it safe for workers to enter, while the entrants' signature signifies their understanding and agreement to follow the necessary protocols for their own safety.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
(205) Name the three primary means of rescue from confined spaces.
- A.
Self-rescue, centrally located rescue team, and organizational rescue team.
- B.
Organizational rescue team, self-rescue, and emergency medical rescue team.
- C.
Emergency medical rescue team, centrally located rescue team, and self-rescue.
- D.
Centrally located rescue team, emergency medical rescue team, and organizational rescue team.
Correct Answer
A. Self-rescue, centrally located rescue team, and organizational rescue team.Explanation
The correct answer is self-rescue, centrally located rescue team, and organizational rescue team. This means that the three primary means of rescue from confined spaces are: individuals rescuing themselves, a rescue team located nearby, and a rescue team organized by the organization.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
(205) All members of confined-space rescue teams must have hands-on training in removing victims at least every
- A.
Six months.
- B.
12 months.
- C.
18 months.
- D.
24 months.
Correct Answer
B. 12 months.Explanation
Confined-space rescue teams need to have hands-on training in removing victims regularly to ensure they are prepared and proficient in their skills. The correct answer is 12 months, which means that the members of these teams should receive this training at least once every year. This frequency allows them to stay updated with the latest techniques and protocols, ensuring their ability to safely and effectively rescue victims from confined spaces.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
(206) A toxic gas and vapor concentration of three percent is considered
- A.
Low.
- B.
Normal.
- C.
Moderately high.
- D.
Very high.
Correct Answer
D. Very high.Explanation
A toxic gas and vapor concentration of three percent is considered very high because it poses a significant risk to human health. At this concentration, exposure to the gas or vapor can cause severe health effects and even be life-threatening. It is crucial to take immediate action to minimize exposure and evacuate the area to ensure the safety of individuals.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
(206) Which type of respirator offers protection against light concentrations only of gases and vapors?
- A.
Gas mask.
- B.
Mechanical filter.
- C.
Chemical cartridge.
- D.
Combination mechanical filter/chemical cartridge.
Correct Answer
C. Chemical cartridge.Explanation
A chemical cartridge respirator offers protection against light concentrations only of gases and vapors. Gas masks are designed to protect against a wider range of hazardous substances, including particles and biological agents. Mechanical filters are used to trap particles, but do not provide protection against gases and vapors. Combination mechanical filter/chemical cartridge respirators offer protection against both particles and gases/vapors. Therefore, the correct answer is chemical cartridge.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
(206) When wearing a hose mask respirator without a blower unit (Type B), what is the maximum distance beyond uncontaminated air that a worker may go?
- A.
25 feet.
- B.
75 feet.
- C.
100 feet.
- D.
150 feet.
Correct Answer
B. 75 feet.Explanation
When wearing a hose mask respirator without a blower unit (Type B), the maximum distance beyond uncontaminated air that a worker may go is 75 feet.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
(206) Self-contained breathing apparatus respirators
- A.
Use a blower to pass air across an air-cleaning element.
- B.
Protect against particulate matter but not oxygen deficiency.
- C.
Should be used only for intermittent exposure to light concentrations of gas.
- D.
Provide complete protection against airborne toxicity and oxygen deficiency.
Correct Answer
D. Provide complete protection against airborne toxicity and oxygen deficiency.Explanation
Self-contained breathing apparatus respirators are designed to provide complete protection against airborne toxicity and oxygen deficiency. They use a blower to pass air across an air-cleaning element, ensuring that the air being breathed in is free from harmful substances. These respirators are not limited to protecting against particulate matter but offer comprehensive protection against any airborne toxins that may be present. Additionally, they also address the risk of oxygen deficiency, ensuring that the user has an adequate supply of oxygen while using the apparatus.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
(206) Which type of self-contained breathing apparatus is simple to use and requires less regular maintenance than the other SCBAs?
- A.
Demand type.
- B.
Self-generating.
- C.
Pressure demand.
- D.
Oxygen cylinder re-breathing.
Correct Answer
B. Self-generating.Explanation
A self-generating self-contained breathing apparatus is simple to use and requires less regular maintenance compared to other SCBAs. This type of SCBA generates its own oxygen supply, eliminating the need for external sources. It typically uses a chemical reaction to produce oxygen, making it convenient and reliable. This eliminates the need for regular refilling or replacement of oxygen cylinders, reducing maintenance requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
(207) Safety helmets can be broken down into how many types and classes?
- A.
Two types, three classes.
- B.
Two types, four classes.
- C.
Three types, four classes.
- D.
Three types, five classes.
Correct Answer
A. Two types, three classes.Explanation
Safety helmets can be categorized into two types based on their design and functionality. These types are usually referred to as Type I and Type II helmets. Additionally, safety helmets can be further classified into three classes based on their level of electrical insulation. These classes are Class G (general), Class E (electrical), and Class C (conductive). Therefore, safety helmets can be broken down into two types and three classes.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
(207) Which type and class of safety helmet will offer protection against lateral blows to the head and reduce the danger of exposure to low voltage electrical conductors?
- A.
Type I, class G.
- B.
Type I class E.
- C.
Type II, class G.
- D.
Type II, class C.
Correct Answer
C. Type II, class G.Explanation
Type II, class G safety helmets are designed to offer protection against lateral blows to the head and also reduce the danger of exposure to low voltage electrical conductors. This type and class of helmet provides a higher level of protection compared to Type I helmets and class E helmets. Type II helmets have a brim that extends around the entire helmet, providing additional coverage and protection. Class G helmets are designed to protect against low voltage electrical conductors up to 2,200 volts. Therefore, Type II, class G safety helmets are the correct choice for this scenario.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
(207) Which type of goggles is designed to protect the eyes from relatively large particles flying from any direction?
- A.
Wire screen.
- B.
Spectacle.
- C.
Chippers.
- D.
Welding.
Correct Answer
C. Chippers.Explanation
Chippers goggles are designed to protect the eyes from relatively large particles flying from any direction. This type of goggles typically has a wraparound design with side shields to provide maximum coverage and protection. The goggles are made with impact-resistant materials and have a snug fit to prevent any particles from entering the eyes. They are commonly used in industries such as construction, woodworking, and metalworking where there is a high risk of flying debris.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
(207) Which type of goggles should be used when ordinary goggles dust or steam over, affecting the wearer’s vision?
- A.
Wire screen.
- B.
Chemical.
- C.
Gas-tight.
- D.
Chippers.
Correct Answer
A. Wire screen.Explanation
When ordinary goggles become dusty or steamy, it can impair the wearer's vision. In such situations, wire screen goggles are recommended. Wire screen goggles have a mesh-like structure that allows air to flow through, preventing the accumulation of dust and steam. This design ensures that the wearer's vision remains clear and unobstructed, making wire screen goggles the suitable choice for this scenario.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
(208) Which type glove must be used as outer protection when rubber insulating gloves are being used?
- A.
Cotton.
- B.
Wool.
- C.
Leather.
- D.
Synthetic.
Correct Answer
C. Leather.Explanation
When rubber insulating gloves are being used, leather gloves must be worn as outer protection. Leather gloves provide additional protection against physical hazards such as cuts, abrasions, and punctures. They also offer good grip and dexterity, making them suitable for handling tools and equipment. Cotton and wool gloves do not provide the same level of protection as leather gloves, while synthetic gloves may not have the same durability and resistance to wear and tear. Therefore, leather gloves are the most appropriate choice for outer protection in this scenario.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
(208) Rubber insulating gloves in storage must be dielectric tested every
- A.
Three months.
- B.
Six months.
- C.
12 months.
- D.
24 months.
Correct Answer
C. 12 months.Explanation
Rubber insulating gloves in storage must be dielectric tested every 12 months. This is because rubber gloves are used to provide electrical insulation and protect against electric shock. Over time, the rubber material can degrade and lose its insulating properties, making it necessary to regularly test the gloves to ensure they are still effective. Testing every 12 months strikes a balance between ensuring safety and minimizing the cost and effort required for testing.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
(208) Who is responsible for testing rubber insulating gloves and ensuring relevant records are maintained?
- A.
Safety professional.
- B.
Civil engineering electric shop.
- C.
Individual user.
- D.
Supervisor.
Correct Answer
D. Supervisor.Explanation
The supervisor is responsible for testing rubber insulating gloves and ensuring relevant records are maintained. This is because the supervisor oversees the safety protocols and equipment used by the workers. They have the authority and knowledge to conduct tests on the gloves and keep records to ensure the safety of the workers. The other options, such as the safety professional, civil engineering electric shop, and individual user, may have roles in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the supervisor.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
(208) Which class safety-toe shoe is the only one approved for use by Air Force personnel?
- A.
Class 25.
- B.
Class 35.
- C.
Class 50.
- D.
Class 75.
Correct Answer
D. Class 75.Explanation
Class 75 is the only safety-toe shoe approved for use by Air Force personnel. This suggests that the Air Force has specific safety requirements that must be met, and Class 75 shoes meet these requirements. The other classes (25, 35, and 50) are not approved for use, indicating that they do not meet the necessary standards for Air Force personnel.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
(208) Which equipment protects the upper part of the foot from hot metal splashes?
- A.
Spats.
- B.
Toe guards.
- C.
Safety toe shoes.
- D.
Conductive shoes.
Correct Answer
A. Spats.Explanation
Spats are protective equipment that cover the upper part of the foot, providing protection from hot metal splashes. They are typically made of heat-resistant materials and are designed to shield the foot from potential burns or injuries caused by molten metal. Toe guards, safety toe shoes, and conductive shoes may offer protection to some extent, but they do not specifically protect the upper part of the foot from hot metal splashes like spats do.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
(209) A safety belt and harness assembly must be capable of withstanding a tensile load of at least
- A.
2,000 pounds.
- B.
3,000 pounds.
- C.
4,000 pounds.
- D.
5,000 pounds.
Correct Answer
C. 4,000 pounds.Explanation
A safety belt and harness assembly must be able to withstand a certain amount of force in order to effectively protect the wearer. In this case, the correct answer is 4,000 pounds. This means that the safety belt and harness assembly must be able to withstand a tensile load of at least 4,000 pounds without breaking or failing. This ensures that the assembly is strong enough to withstand significant force and provide adequate protection to the wearer in the event of an accident or sudden stop.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
(209) What is the minimum distance a strip of insulating matting must extend past each end of a work area?
- A.
Two feet.
- B.
Three feet.
- C.
Four feet.
- D.
Five feet.
Correct Answer
A. Two feet.Explanation
Insulating matting is used to provide electrical insulation and protect workers from electric shocks. The minimum distance that a strip of insulating matting must extend past each end of a work area is two feet. This ensures that there is enough coverage to prevent accidental contact with live electrical parts. Extending the matting beyond the work area provides an additional safety buffer and reduces the risk of electrical accidents.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
(209) Which reason does not constitute a requirement to replace insulating matting?
- A.
It has been perforated.
- B.
It is worn to one-half of its original thickness.
- C.
It is worn to two-thirds of its original thickness.
- D.
It has metallic chips embedded that cannot be removed.
Correct Answer
C. It is worn to two-thirds of its original thickness.Explanation
The reason "It is worn to two-thirds of its original thickness" does not constitute a requirement to replace insulating matting because it does not meet the criteria for replacement. The question implies that there are certain conditions under which insulating matting needs to be replaced, and the other three reasons provided (perforation, wearing to one-half of original thickness, and embedded metallic chips) meet those conditions. However, wearing to two-thirds of its original thickness does not meet the criteria for replacement, suggesting that the matting can still be used.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
(209) Whether in use or not, belts, lanyards, and lifelines must be inspected at least every
- A.
Three months.
- B.
Six months.
- C.
Nine months.
- D.
12 months.
Correct Answer
B. Six months.Explanation
Belts, lanyards, and lifelines are safety equipment that are used to protect workers from falls. Regular inspections are necessary to ensure that these equipment are in good condition and can effectively perform their intended function. Inspecting them every six months strikes a balance between ensuring safety and minimizing disruption to work. This timeframe allows for timely identification of any wear and tear, damage, or deterioration that may occur during use or storage. Regular inspections help to prevent accidents and ensure that the equipment is reliable and safe for use.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
(209) The maximum time and distance between hazardous operations or materials and an emergency shower and eyewash unit are
- A.
10 seconds and 50 feet.
- B.
10 seconds and 100 feet.
- C.
15 seconds and 50 feet.
- D.
15 seconds and 100 feet.
Correct Answer
B. 10 seconds and 100 feet.Explanation
The maximum time and distance between hazardous operations or materials and an emergency shower and eyewash unit are 10 seconds and 100 feet. This means that in the event of an emergency, the shower and eyewash unit should be within 100 feet of the hazardous area, and it should take no longer than 10 seconds for a person to reach the unit for treatment. This ensures that prompt and immediate access to the shower and eyewash unit is available to minimize the potential harm caused by hazardous materials or operations.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
(209) Energized circuits located within how many feet of emergency showers must be protected by a ground fault circuit interrupter?
- A.
Two.
- B.
Three.
- C.
Five.
- D.
Six.
Correct Answer
C. Five.Explanation
Energized circuits located within five feet of emergency showers must be protected by a ground fault circuit interrupter. This is necessary to prevent electrical shock in the event of a ground fault, which could occur if water from the shower comes into contact with the electrical circuit. The ground fault circuit interrupter detects any imbalance in the electrical current and quickly shuts off the power to prevent injury.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
(210) What elements must be present in order for a fire to start?
- A.
Fuel, heat, carbon dioxide, and chemical reaction.
- B.
Fuel, oxygen, combustible, and chemical reaction.
- C.
Fuel, heat, carbon dioxide, and oxygen.
- D.
Fuel, heat, oxygen, and chemical reaction.
Correct Answer
D. Fuel, heat, oxygen, and chemical reaction.Explanation
In order for a fire to start, four elements must be present: fuel, heat, oxygen, and a chemical reaction. Fuel provides the material to burn, heat provides the energy to initiate the reaction, oxygen acts as the oxidizing agent, and the chemical reaction is the process of combustion that releases heat and light. Without any of these elements, a fire cannot occur.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
(210) If during an annual inspection of the child development center you identify and document several fire deficiencies, what should be your next course of action?
- A.
Report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action.
- B.
Report them to the child development center management for action.
- C.
Take immediate action to correct the fire deficiencies.
- D.
Assign risk assessment codes as required.
Correct Answer
A. Report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action.Explanation
If during an annual inspection of the child development center you identify and document several fire deficiencies, the next course of action should be to report them to the fire prevention personnel at the fire department for action. This is because the fire department is responsible for ensuring fire safety and can take appropriate measures to address the deficiencies and mitigate any potential risks. Reporting to the child development center management may also be necessary, but involving the fire department is crucial to ensure prompt and effective action. Taking immediate action to correct the fire deficiencies may not be feasible without the expertise and resources of the fire department. Assigning risk assessment codes is not mentioned as a necessary step in the given scenario.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
(210) Who must approve the use of portable space heaters?
- A.
Base safety.
- B.
Fire department.
- C.
Base civil engineer.
- D.
Base bioenvironmental engineer.
Correct Answer
C. Base civil engineer.Explanation
The base civil engineer must approve the use of portable space heaters. This is because the base civil engineer is responsible for ensuring the safety and compliance of all structures and systems on the base, including heating systems. They have the expertise and authority to determine whether the use of portable space heaters is safe and appropriate in a given situation. The approval of the base civil engineer is necessary to prevent any potential hazards or accidents that may arise from the use of these heaters.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
(210) What minimum distance must be maintained between a heat producing appliance and combustibles?
- A.
12 inches.
- B.
18 inches.
- C.
24 inches.
- D.
36 inches.
Correct Answer
B. 18 inches.Explanation
A minimum distance of 18 inches must be maintained between a heat producing appliance and combustibles. This is necessary to prevent the risk of fire or combustion of the nearby materials. Keeping a safe distance ensures that there is enough space for air circulation and reduces the chances of ignition or heat transfer to the combustible materials.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
(211) During an inspection, if you believe that the facility does not have an adequate number of fire extinguishers, you should
- A.
Have additional extinguishers installed.
- B.
Submit AF Form 979 to the installation manager.
- C.
Refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel.
- D.
Have all flammable and explosive substances removed from the building.
Correct Answer
C. Refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel.Explanation
If during an inspection, you believe that the facility does not have an adequate number of fire extinguishers, the correct course of action is to refer the facility manager to fire prevention personnel. Fire prevention personnel are trained and knowledgeable in fire safety regulations and can assess the facility's fire extinguisher needs and provide guidance on the appropriate number and placement of extinguishers. They can also assist in ensuring that the facility is in compliance with fire safety regulations. Having additional extinguishers installed or submitting AF Form 979 to the installation manager may not be the appropriate actions without consulting fire prevention personnel. Having all flammable and explosive substances removed from the building is not directly related to the issue of inadequate fire extinguishers.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
(212) In color coding, black lettering should not be used on which background(s)?
- A.
Magenta.
- B.
Orange.
- C.
Yellow and white.
- D.
Red and green.
Correct Answer
D. Red and green.Explanation
The question asks about color coding and states that black lettering should not be used on which background(s). The answer is red and green. This means that black lettering can be used on all backgrounds except red and green.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
(212) Which color code is used for piping system containers that contain radioactive substances?
- A.
Lime yellow.
- B.
Magenta.
- C.
Orange.
- D.
Yellow.
Correct Answer
B. Magenta.Explanation
Magenta is the color code used for piping system containers that contain radioactive substances. This color is chosen because it is easily distinguishable and helps to alert individuals to the potential danger associated with radioactive materials. It serves as a visual indicator to ensure proper handling and safety protocols are followed when dealing with these substances.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
(212) Which color code is used for designating electrical conduit and unguarded, dangerous parts of machines or energized equipment?
- A.
Magenta.
- B.
Orange.
- C.
Blue.
- D.
Red.
Correct Answer
B. Orange.Explanation
Orange is the color code used for designating electrical conduit and unguarded, dangerous parts of machines or energized equipment. This color is chosen to alert individuals to the potential hazards associated with these areas or equipment. It serves as a visual indicator to exercise caution and follow safety protocols when working near or with these components.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
(213) Which type of hammer should be used for heading rivets?
- A.
Claw.
- B.
Mallet.
- C.
Sledge.
- D.
Ball peen.
Correct Answer
D. Ball peen.Explanation
A ball peen hammer should be used for heading rivets because it has a rounded end and a flat end. The rounded end is used to shape the rivet and the flat end is used to strike the rivet, creating a secure and tight fit. The ball peen hammer is specifically designed for metalworking tasks like riveting, making it the most suitable choice for this purpose.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Feb 05, 2024Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Mar 05, 2012Quiz Created by
Kahlbanor
- Aptitude Test Quizzes
- Course Test Quizzes
- Driving Test Quizzes
- English Test Quizzes
- FCAT Quizzes
- General Knowledge Quizzes
- Intelligence Test Quizzes
- Medical Test Quizzes
- Mock Test Quizzes
- Philosophy Test Quizzes
- Practice Test Quizzes
- Safety Test Quizzes
- Skill Assessment Quizzes
- Spelling Test Quizzes
- Standardized Test Quizzes
Back to top