1s051 Volume IV Pretest (For Reference Use Only)

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Questions: 79 | Attempts: 110 | Updated: Mar 14, 2024

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1s051 Volume IV Pretest (For Reference Use Only) - Quiz

USAF Safety Journeyman Volume IV Pretest (FOR REFERENCE USE ONLY)

Questions and Answers

1.

(601) Which function is not one of the three weapons program functions?
- A.
  
  Explosives safety.
- B.
  
  Systems safety.
- C.
  
  Nuclear safety.
- D.
  
  Missile safety.
Correct Answer
B. Systems safety.

Explanation
The question asks for the function that is not one of the three weapons program functions. The three weapons program functions mentioned in the options are explosives safety, nuclear safety, and missile safety. Therefore, the correct answer is systems safety, as it is not one of the three weapons program functions.

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2.

(601) Weapons safety managers (WSM) must complete the weapons safety course within how many days of appointment?
- A.
  
  30.
- B.
  
  60.
- C.
  
  90.
- D.
  
  120.
Correct Answer
C. 90.

Explanation
Weapons safety managers (WSM) are required to complete the weapons safety course within 90 days of their appointment. This indicates that there is a specific time frame within which WSMs must acquire the necessary knowledge and skills related to weapons safety. By completing the course within this time period, WSMs can ensure that they are adequately trained and prepared to fulfill their responsibilities in maintaining a safe environment when it comes to handling weapons.

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3.

(602) Who approves local written procedures as the authorization for operations involving licensed explosives?
- A.
  
  Weapons safety manager (WSM).
- B.
  
  Supervisor of the operation.
- C.
  
  Chief of safety (COS).
- D.
  
  Commander.
Correct Answer
D. Commander.

Explanation
The commander approves local written procedures as the authorization for operations involving licensed explosives. This means that the commander has the authority to review and approve the procedures that outline how operations involving licensed explosives should be conducted. This ensures that the operations are carried out safely and in compliance with regulations. The weapons safety manager, supervisor of the operation, and chief of safety may have roles in the process, but the ultimate approval authority lies with the commander.

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4.

(602) Who must the license requester coordinate with before submitting a license to the weapons safety manager (WSM) for approval of a request?
- A.
  
  Base fire chief and ground safety manager.
- B.
  
  Security forces and ground safety manager.
- C.
  
  Base fire chief and security forces.
- D.
  
  Base fire chief only.
Correct Answer
C. Base fire chief and security forces.

Explanation
The license requester must coordinate with the base fire chief and security forces before submitting a license to the weapons safety manager (WSM) for approval. This is because both the base fire chief and security forces play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and security of the base and its personnel. The base fire chief is responsible for fire safety and prevention, while security forces are responsible for maintaining the overall security of the base. By coordinating with both of these entities, the license requester can ensure that all necessary safety and security measures are in place before submitting the license for approval.

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5.

(603) Which action is defined as a written authority for a specific short-term departure from a mandatory quantity-distance (Q-D) requirement?
- A.
  
  Waiver.
- B.
  
  Deviation.
- C.
  
  Exemption.
- D.
  
  Event waiver.
Correct Answer
A. Waiver.

Explanation
A waiver is a written authority that allows for a specific short-term departure from a mandatory quantity-distance (Q-D) requirement. It grants permission to deviate from the standard regulations temporarily, usually due to exceptional circumstances or specific needs. A waiver is a formal document that outlines the conditions and limitations of the departure and ensures that safety measures are still in place during the deviation. It is an official way to grant flexibility while maintaining the necessary level of security.

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6.

(604) How often must barricades be inspected to determine the degree of settling erosion?
- A.
  
  Montly.
- B.
  
  Quarterly.
- C.
  
  Semi-Annually.
- D.
  
  Annually.
Correct Answer
D. Annually.

Explanation
Barricades must be inspected annually to determine the degree of settling erosion. This means that the inspection should be conducted once a year to assess any settling erosion that may have occurred. Monthly, quarterly, and semi-annually inspections would not provide a comprehensive evaluation of the degree of settling erosion as they would not be frequent enough to catch any significant changes or damages. Therefore, an annual inspection is necessary to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the barricades.

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7.

(604) If a magazine’s earth cover erodes to less than two feet, repair it as soon as practical or within how many days?
- A.
  
  30.
- B.
  
  60.
- C.
  
  90.
- D.
  
  120.
Correct Answer
C. 90.

Explanation
The correct answer is 90. This means that if a magazine's earth cover erodes to less than two feet, it should be repaired within 90 days. This timeframe allows for a reasonable amount of time to address the erosion issue and ensure that the cover is restored to its proper condition. It is important to repair the cover promptly to prevent further erosion and maintain the integrity of the magazine's structure.

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8.

(604) How wide must a firebreak be around a potential explosives site (PES)?
- A.
  
  25 feet.
- B.
  
  50 feet.
- C.
  
  75 feet.
- D.
  
  100 feet.
Correct Answer
B. 50 feet.

Explanation
A firebreak is a gap in vegetation or other combustible material that is created to prevent the spread of fire. In the case of a potential explosives site (PES), a wider firebreak is necessary to minimize the risk of a fire reaching the site and causing an explosion. A 50-foot firebreak provides a sufficient buffer zone to help protect the PES from potential fire hazards.

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9.

(604) Storage magazines must have reinforced concrete walls that are no less than how many inches thick?
- A.
  
  12.
- B.
  
  24.
- C.
  
  36.
- D.
  
  48.
Correct Answer
A. 12.

Explanation
Storage magazines must have reinforced concrete walls that are no less than 12 inches thick. This thickness is necessary to ensure the safety and containment of hazardous materials that may be stored in the magazines. Thicker walls provide a stronger barrier against potential explosions or leaks, reducing the risk of damage or harm to the surrounding environment and people.

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10.

(604) Where explosives are concerned, the National Electric Code (NEC) places hazardous locations into how many classes?
- A.
  
  Two
- B.
  
  Three.
- C.
  
  Four.
- D.
  
  Five.
Correct Answer
B. Three.

Explanation
The National Electric Code (NEC) classifies hazardous locations related to explosives into three classes. This classification system helps in determining the appropriate electrical equipment and wiring methods to be used in these locations to ensure safety.

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11.

(604) Who exercises final authority over the movement of explosives by common carrier?
- A.
  
  Department of Defense (DOD).
- B.
  
  Local government involved.
- C.
  
  State government involved.
- D.
  
  Department of Transportation (DOT).
Correct Answer
D. Department of Transportation (DOT).

Explanation
The Department of Transportation (DOT) exercises final authority over the movement of explosives by common carrier. This means that they have the ultimate control and decision-making power regarding the transportation of explosives through various modes of transportation. The DOT is responsible for ensuring the safe and secure transportation of hazardous materials, including explosives, to protect public safety and prevent accidents or incidents that could harm people or the environment.

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12.

(604) When material handling equipment (MHE) is stored in magazines and warehouses there must be at least how many feet between any combustible material and the equipment?
- A.
  
  10.
- B.
  
  15.
- C.
  
  20.
- D.
  
  25.
Correct Answer
A. 10.

Explanation
When material handling equipment (MHE) is stored in magazines and warehouses, there must be at least 10 feet between any combustible material and the equipment. This is important to prevent any potential fire hazards or accidents that could occur if the equipment comes into contact with flammable materials. By maintaining a sufficient distance, the risk of ignition or combustion is minimized, ensuring the safety of the stored materials and the equipment itself.

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13.

(605) Which section of the security forces squadron implement weapons training for personnel on base?
- A.
  
  Flight chief.
- B.
  
  Wing safety.
- C.
  
  Combat arms personnel.
- D.
  
  Security forces officials.
Correct Answer
C. Combat arms personnel.

Explanation
Combat arms personnel are responsible for implementing weapons training for personnel on base. They are trained in the use and handling of various weapons and are tasked with ensuring that security forces personnel are properly trained and proficient in their use. This includes conducting regular training exercises, providing instruction on proper weapon handling techniques, and ensuring that personnel are knowledgeable about safety protocols and procedures. Additionally, combat arms personnel may also be responsible for maintaining and inspecting weapons to ensure they are in proper working order.

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14.

(605) At least how many people must be present when conducting live-fire operations?
- A.
  
  One
- B.
  
  Two
- C.
  
  At least three.
- D.
  
  At least four.
Correct Answer
B. Two

Explanation
When conducting live-fire operations, it is necessary to have at least two people present. This is because live-fire operations can be dangerous and having a second person ensures that there is someone to assist or seek help in case of an emergency. It also allows for better communication and coordination during the operation, enhancing safety and effectiveness.

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15.

(606) Regardless of the class of range, who has overall control over safety on the weapons range?
- A.
  
  Range operating agency (ROA).
- B.
  
  Range control officer (RCO).
- C.
  
  Range safety officer (RSO).
- D.
  
  Flight safety officer (FSO).
Correct Answer
B. Range control officer (RCO).

Explanation
The Range Control Officer (RCO) has overall control over safety on the weapons range. They are responsible for ensuring that all safety protocols and procedures are followed, and for coordinating with the Range Operating Agency (ROA), Range Safety Officer (RSO), and Flight Safety Officer (FSO) to maintain a safe environment. The RCO is in charge of enforcing safety regulations, conducting safety briefings, and overseeing the activities on the range to prevent accidents and ensure the well-being of personnel.

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16.

(606) What are two common hazards associated with weapons ranges?
- A.
  
  Low-flying aircraft and duds.
- B.
  
  Crowd control and souvenir hunting.
- C.
  
  Stray animals and souvenir hunting.
- D.
  
  Crowd control and low-flying aircraft.
Correct Answer
B. Crowd control and souvenir hunting.
17.

(607) What is the first step when inspecting a flightline fire extinguisher?
- A.
  
  Check the pressure gauge for proper reading.
- B.
  
  Ensure the handle is properly pinned and sealed.
- C.
  
  Ensure there’s no foreign matter in the discharge nozzle.
- D.
  
  Check the annual inspection and any other periodic inspection dates documented.
Correct Answer
B. Ensure the handle is properly pinned and sealed.

Explanation
When inspecting a flightline fire extinguisher, the first step is to ensure that the handle is properly pinned and sealed. This is important because if the handle is not securely pinned and sealed, the fire extinguisher may not function properly in case of an emergency. Checking the pressure gauge, ensuring there is no foreign matter in the discharge nozzle, and checking inspection dates are also important steps in the inspection process, but they come after ensuring the handle is properly pinned and sealed.

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18.

(608) Due to weight and speed of modern aircraft, the tires are often inflated with
- A.
  
  Clean air.
- B.
  
  Nitrogen gas.
- C.
  
  Hydro-nitrogen.
- D.
  
  Compressed air.
Correct Answer
B. Nitrogen gas.

Explanation
Modern aircraft tires are often inflated with nitrogen gas because it offers several advantages over compressed air. Nitrogen gas is less likely to expand or contract due to temperature changes, which helps maintain a more consistent tire pressure. This stability reduces the risk of tire blowouts and improves overall safety. Nitrogen gas also contains less moisture than compressed air, reducing the risk of corrosion and extending the lifespan of the tires. Additionally, nitrogen gas has larger molecules than oxygen, which helps to minimize the rate of pressure loss through the tire walls.

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19.

(608) At least how long is a sufficient length of hose between the clip-on chuck and the in-line valve to allow the employee to stand outside the trajectory of an airline hose?
- A.
  
  At least 5 feet.
- B.
  
  At least 10 feet.
- C.
  
  At least 15 feet.
- D.
  
  At least 20 feet.
Correct Answer
B. At least 10 feet.

Explanation
An airline hose can be under high pressure, and if it were to fail or disconnect, it could whip around and cause injury. To ensure the employee's safety, a sufficient length of hose is needed to allow them to stand outside the trajectory of the hose. A length of at least 10 feet would provide enough distance for the employee to be out of harm's way in case of any accidents or failures.

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20.

(609) When may a safety guard enter a tank in an attempt to rescue someone?
- A.
  
  After notifying paramedics.
- B.
  
  Never, only team qualified in confined space rescue may enter a tank.
- C.
  
  After notifying the fire rescue unit and putting on the prescribed respiratory protection.
- D.
  
  When additional help is present and the safety guard is equipped with the prescribed respiratory equipment.
Correct Answer
D. When additional help is present and the safety guard is equipped with the prescribed respiratory equipment.

Explanation
The correct answer is when additional help is present and the safety guard is equipped with the prescribed respiratory equipment. This means that a safety guard can enter a tank to rescue someone only if there is additional help available and they have the necessary respiratory equipment. This ensures that the safety guard is not putting themselves at risk and has the support they need to perform the rescue safely.

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21.

(609) After fuel residues have been removed through depuddling, fuel cells must be
- A.
  
  Air purged.
- B.
  
  Water purged.
- C.
  
  Steam cleaned.
- D.
  
  Immediately refilled.
Correct Answer
A. Air purged.

Explanation
After fuel residues have been removed through depuddling, fuel cells must be air purged. This is because air purging helps to remove any remaining fuel vapors or gases from the fuel cells. This process ensures that the fuel cells are clean and free from any potential hazards before they can be refilled with fuel. Water purging or steam cleaning may not be sufficient to remove fuel residues completely, and immediately refilling the fuel cells without air purging could lead to safety risks.

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22.

(610) The number of refueling vehicles required to service an aircraft at any one time is determined by the
- A.
  
  Quantity of fuel needed and the time required to refuel the aircraft.
- B.
  
  Number of refueling ports on the aircraft and available supervisors.
- C.
  
  Size of the aircraft and holding area.
- D.
  
  Mission priority and ground crew.
Correct Answer
A. Quantity of fuel needed and the time required to refuel the aircraft.

Explanation
The correct answer is "quantity of fuel needed and the time required to refuel the aircraft." This is because the number of refueling vehicles required to service an aircraft depends on how much fuel is needed and how long it takes to refuel the aircraft. If a large quantity of fuel is needed and it takes a long time to refuel, then more refueling vehicles will be required. Conversely, if a smaller quantity of fuel is needed and it takes less time to refuel, then fewer refueling vehicles will be required. The other options mentioned in the question, such as the number of refueling ports, size of the aircraft, mission priority, and ground crew, do not directly determine the number of refueling vehicles required.

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23.

(610) Maintenance work on other aircraft is restricted for how many feet of an aircraft fueling operations
- A.
  
  25.
- B.
  
  50.
- C.
  
  100.
- D.
  
  150.
Correct Answer
B. 50.

Explanation
During aircraft fueling operations, maintenance work on other aircraft is restricted within 50 feet. This restriction ensures the safety of both the fueling operations and the maintenance work being carried out. By limiting the proximity of other aircraft, the risk of accidents or mishaps during fueling is minimized. This distance allows for a safe buffer zone to prevent any potential hazards or incidents that could occur during the fueling process.

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24.

(610) A service cart must be at least how many feet away from a fueling operation?
- A.
  
  25.
- B.
  
  50.
- C.
  
  75.
- D.
  
  100.
Correct Answer
C. 75.

Explanation
A service cart must be at least 75 feet away from a fueling operation to ensure safety. This distance helps to prevent any potential accidents or fires that could occur due to the presence of flammable materials. Being at a safe distance minimizes the risk of ignition or explosion, protecting both the service cart and the fueling operation.

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25.

(612) The maximum speed that any two maintenance stands may be towed over a smooth, paved surface is
- A.
  
  5 mph.
- B.
  
  10 mph.
- C.
  
  15 mph.
- D.
  
  20 mph.
Correct Answer
A. 5 mpH.

Explanation
The maximum speed that any two maintenance stands may be towed over a smooth, paved surface is 5 mph. This means that it is not safe to tow the stands at a speed higher than 5 mph. Towing them at a higher speed could result in damage to the stands or accidents. Therefore, it is important to adhere to the maximum speed limit of 5 mph to ensure the safety of the maintenance stands and those around them.

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26.

(612) Which maintenance stand is commonly known as the crew chief stand?
- A.
  
  B-2.
- B.
  
  B-4.
- C.
  
  B-5.
- D.
  
  C-1.
Correct Answer
D. C-1.

Explanation
The maintenance stand commonly known as the crew chief stand is C-1.

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27.

(612) Which maintenance stand has a variable height platform with a maximum platform load of 600 pounds?
- A.
  
  B-2.
- B.
  
  B-4.
- C.
  
  B-5.
- D.
  
  C-1.
Correct Answer
C. B-5.

Explanation
The correct answer is B-5. The B-5 maintenance stand has a variable height platform with a maximum platform load of 600 pounds.

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28.

(613) Fall protection must be used during construction operations at a height of at least
- A.
  
  4 feet.
- B.
  
  6 feet.
- C.
  
  8 feet.
- D.
  
  10 feet.
Correct Answer
B. 6 feet.

Explanation
Fall protection must be used during construction operations at a height of at least 6 feet. This is because falls from heights of 6 feet or more can result in serious injuries or even death. By using fall protection measures such as safety harnesses, guardrails, or safety nets, workers can minimize the risk of falling and protect themselves from potential harm. It is important to adhere to these safety regulations to ensure a safe working environment for construction workers.

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29.

(613) Lanyards, D-rings, locking snap-hooks, and all components of a fall arrest system must be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of
- A.
  
  3,000 pounds.
- B.
  
  5,000 pounds.
- C.
  
  10,000 pounds.
- D.
  
  12,000 pounds.
Correct Answer
B. 5,000 pounds.

Explanation
Lanyards, D-rings, locking snap-hooks, and all components of a fall arrest system must be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of 5,000 pounds. This means that these components need to be able to withstand a force of at least 5,000 pounds without breaking or failing. This requirement ensures that the fall arrest system is strong enough to support the weight and force of a person in the event of a fall, providing them with the necessary protection and preventing serious injuries.

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30.

(614) How often must ground handling personnel be tested for proficiency on movement of aircraft?
- A.
  
  6 months.
- B.
  
  12 months.
- C.
  
  18 months.
- D.
  
  24 months.
Correct Answer
B. 12 months.

Explanation
Ground handling personnel must be tested for proficiency on movement of aircraft every 12 months. This ensures that they are up to date with the necessary skills and knowledge required for safely handling and maneuvering aircraft on the ground. Regular testing helps to maintain a high level of proficiency and ensures that personnel are able to effectively carry out their duties in a safe and efficient manner.

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31.

(614) Which tow team member(s) are authorized to give the “all clear to move” order when towing aircraft?
- A.
  
  Supervisors.
- B.
  
  Nose walkers.
- C.
  
  Wing walkers.
- D.
  
  Any member decided upon during the tow briefing.
Correct Answer
A. Supervisors.

Explanation
Supervisors are authorized to give the "all clear to move" order when towing aircraft. This is because supervisors have the authority and responsibility to oversee and manage the towing operation, ensuring the safety of personnel and equipment involved. They are knowledgeable about the towing procedures and have the necessary experience to make informed decisions regarding when it is safe to move the aircraft. Nose walkers and wing walkers may assist in the towing process, but the final decision and authorization lie with the supervisors.

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32.

(614) The maximum speed that any aircraft may be towed at any time is
- A.
  
  20 mph.
- B.
  
  15 mph.
- C.
  
  10 mph.
- D.
  
  5 mph.
Correct Answer
D. 5 mpH.

Explanation
The maximum speed that any aircraft may be towed at any time is 5 mph. This speed limit is in place to ensure the safety of the aircraft and the people involved in the towing operation. Towing an aircraft at higher speeds can increase the risk of accidents, damage to the aircraft, and injury to personnel. Therefore, it is important to adhere to the maximum speed limit of 5 mph when towing an aircraft.

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33.

(614) What is the towing distance in between aircraft if the trailing aircraft has faulty brakes?
- A.
  
  100 feet.
- B.
  
  125 feet.
- C.
  
  150 feet.
- D.
  
  200 feet.
Correct Answer
C. 150 feet.

Explanation
If the trailing aircraft has faulty brakes, it will require a longer distance to come to a stop compared to a properly functioning aircraft. Therefore, the towing distance between the aircraft will need to be increased to accommodate the faulty brakes. The correct answer, 150 feet, suggests that this is the appropriate distance needed to safely tow the aircraft with faulty brakes.

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34.

(615) As a general rule, wing walkers must be used when an aircraft is taxied within how many feet of an obstruction?
- A.
  
  25.
- B.
  
  30.
- C.
  
  40.
- D.
  
  50.
Correct Answer
A. 25.

Explanation
Wing walkers must be used when an aircraft is taxied within 25 feet of an obstruction. This is because wing walkers help to ensure that the wings of the aircraft do not come into contact with any obstacles or structures that may be present within this distance. By having wing walkers in place, the pilot can safely navigate the aircraft without the risk of damaging the wings or causing any accidents.

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35.

(615) Generally people and vehicles should not pass closer than how many feet to the rear of an aircraft with its engines running?
- A.
  
  100.
- B.
  
  150.
- C.
  
  200.
- D.
  
  250.
Correct Answer
C. 200.

Explanation
When an aircraft's engines are running, there is a significant risk of injury or damage due to the strong jet blast. Therefore, it is generally recommended that people and vehicles should not pass closer than 200 feet to the rear of the aircraft. This distance allows for a safe buffer zone to minimize the potential hazards associated with the jet blast.

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36.

(616) Personnel must be tested within how many days of being assigned to duties requiring their knowledge of marshaling signals?
- A.
  
  30.
- B.
  
  60.
- C.
  
  90.
- D.
  
  120.
Correct Answer
A. 30.

Explanation
Personnel must be tested within 30 days of being assigned to duties requiring their knowledge of marshaling signals. This means that they need to demonstrate their understanding and proficiency in marshaling signals within the first month of being assigned to such duties.

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37.

(616) Who initiates signals regarding the operation of aircraft systems during marshalling operations?
- A.
  
  Pilot.
- B.
  
  Nose walker.
- C.
  
  Tow supervisor.
- D.
  
  Crew chief supervisor.
Correct Answer
A. Pilot.

Explanation
The pilot initiates signals regarding the operation of aircraft systems during marshalling operations. Marshalling is the process of guiding an aircraft on the ground using hand signals to communicate with the ground crew. As the pilot is in control of the aircraft, they are responsible for initiating signals to indicate various actions such as starting engines, turning on lights, or adjusting flaps. The pilot's role in marshalling operations is crucial for ensuring safe and efficient ground movements of the aircraft.

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38.

(617) Where is the fireguard positioned during an engine start?
- A.
  
  Even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine.
- B.
  
  Even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 35-degree angle outboard of the engine.
- C.
  
  Even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 25-degree angle outboard of the engine.
- D.
  
  Even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 15-degree angle outboard of the engine.
Correct Answer
A. Even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine.

Explanation
The fireguard is positioned even with the nose of the aircraft and at a 45-degree angle outboard of the engine during an engine start.

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39.

(617) After turning, the aircraft must be marshaled forward in a straight line at least how many feet to relieve the loads on the main landing gear?
- A.
  
  5.
- B.
  
  10.
- C.
  
  15.
- D.
  
  20.
Correct Answer
A. 5.

Explanation
After turning, the aircraft must be marshaled forward in a straight line for at least 5 feet to relieve the loads on the main landing gear. This is necessary to ensure that the landing gear is properly aligned and to distribute the weight of the aircraft evenly. By moving forward in a straight line, any stress or strain on the landing gear caused by the turn can be relieved, reducing the risk of damage or failure.

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40.

(618) Under normal circumstances general purpose vehicles may not exceed what speed when operating on the flight line?
- A.
  
  10 mile per hour (mph).
- B.
  
  15 mph.
- C.
  
  20 mph.
- D.
  
  25 mph.
Correct Answer
B. 15 mpH.

Explanation
General purpose vehicles are typically used for transportation and support tasks on the flight line. These vehicles need to operate at a safe speed to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment. Exceeding the speed limit can increase the risk of accidents and collisions. Therefore, under normal circumstances, general purpose vehicles are not allowed to exceed 15 mph when operating on the flight line.

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41.

(618) The maximum speed for a vehicle operated within 10 feet of an aircraft is
- A.
  
  3 miles per hour (mph).
- B.
  
  5 mph.
- C.
  
  10 mph.
- D.
  
  15 mph.
Correct Answer
B. 5 mpH.

Explanation
When operating a vehicle within 10 feet of an aircraft, it is important to maintain a safe speed to avoid any potential accidents or damage. The maximum speed allowed in this situation is 5 mph. This speed limit ensures that the vehicle can maneuver safely and quickly if needed, while also minimizing the risk of collision or damage to the aircraft.

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42.

(618) Which statement is not true concerning vehicle operation on the flight line?
- A.
  
  “Follow-me” vehicles may exceed 15 miles per hour (mph).
- B.
  
  Vehicles should not pass under the wings of an aircraft.
- C.
  
  A flashing white light at a junction to the flight line indicates it is safe for vehicles to cross.
- D.
  
  Passenger-carrying vehicles must stop at the side of aircraft only when they are loading or unloading passengers.
Correct Answer
C. A flashing white light at a junction to the flight line indicates it is safe for vehicles to cross.

Explanation
A flashing white light at a junction to the flight line does not indicate that it is safe for vehicles to cross. This statement is not true because a flashing white light at a junction typically indicates caution or a warning to vehicles, not permission to cross. It is important for vehicles to follow proper protocols and guidelines when operating on the flight line to ensure the safety of personnel and aircraft.

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43.

(620) Fighter aircraft must be parked at an angle of at least
- A.
  
  25 degrees.
- B.
  
  35 degrees.
- C.
  
  45 degrees.
- D.
  
  55 degrees.
Correct Answer
C. 45 degrees.

Explanation
Fighter aircraft must be parked at an angle of at least 45 degrees. This is because parking the aircraft at an angle helps to prevent damage to the wings and other parts of the aircraft. By parking at an angle, the wings are less likely to be damaged by other aircraft or objects in the vicinity. Additionally, parking at an angle allows for easier access to the aircraft for maintenance and refueling purposes. Overall, parking fighter aircraft at a 45-degree angle is a safety measure to protect the aircraft and ensure efficient operations.

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44.

(620) What is the minimum wing tip clearance for aircraft with wingspans greater than 110 feet?
- A.
  
  10–25 feet.
- B.
  
  25–50 feet.
- C.
  
  50–75 feet.
- D.
  
  75–100 feet.
Correct Answer
B. 25–50 feet.

Explanation
The minimum wing tip clearance for aircraft with wingspans greater than 110 feet is 25–50 feet. This means that there should be a distance of at least 25–50 feet between the outermost point of one wing and any object or structure, such as another aircraft or a building. This clearance is necessary to ensure safe maneuverability and prevent collisions or damage to the aircraft and surrounding objects.

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45.

(621) In what respect does the combat turnaround operation differ from hot-pit refueling?
- A.
  
  The aircraft is also rearmed.
- B.
  
  Fuel is pumped from a bladder instead of a truck.
- C.
  
  Fuel is pumped from a refueling aircraft on the ground.
- D.
  
  The aircraft is de-armed prior to being sent to its parking spot.
Correct Answer
A. The aircraft is also rearmed.

Explanation
The combat turnaround operation differs from hot-pit refueling in that the aircraft is also rearmed. In hot-pit refueling, only fuel is pumped into the aircraft while it remains running, without any rearming of weapons or munitions. However, in a combat turnaround operation, in addition to refueling, the aircraft is also rearmed with weapons and munitions.

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46.

(622) Who ensures detailed local operating procedures covering safety precautions for hangaring aircraft are prepared and coordinated with installation ground safety and fire department personnel?
- A.
  
  Hangar supervisor.
- B.
  
  Maintenance flight chief.
- C.
  
  Maintenance officer.
- D.
  
  Group commander.
Correct Answer
D. Group commander.

Explanation
The group commander is responsible for ensuring detailed local operating procedures for hangaring aircraft are prepared and coordinated with installation ground safety and fire department personnel. As the highest-ranking officer in the group, the commander has the authority and accountability to oversee and coordinate all activities within the group, including safety precautions for hangaring aircraft. The hangar supervisor, maintenance flight chief, and maintenance officer may have roles in implementing these procedures, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the group commander.

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47.

(622) Horizontal sliding hangar doors must be opened wide enough to permit clearance of at least how many feet at each wing tip?
- A.
  
  5.
- B.
  
  10.
- C.
  
  15.
- D.
  
  20.
Correct Answer
B. 10.

Explanation
Horizontal sliding hangar doors must be opened wide enough to permit clearance of at least 10 feet at each wing tip. This is necessary to ensure that there is enough space for the aircraft's wings to pass through without any obstruction or damage. Opening the doors wider than 10 feet would provide even more clearance, but a minimum of 10 feet is required.

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48.

(622) How far above the floor of aircraft hangars must spark-producing components be located when a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used inside a hangar?
- A.
  
  12 inches.
- B.
  
  18 inches.
- C.
  
  24 inches.
- D.
  
  32 inches.
Correct Answer
B. 18 inches.

Explanation
Spark-producing components must be located at least 18 inches above the floor of aircraft hangars when a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used. This is to prevent any sparks from igniting flammable materials or fuel vapors that may be present in the hangar, reducing the risk of fire or explosion.

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49.

(622) When a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used inside a hangar, what is the minimum distance that must be maintained between the pumping unit and the aircraft?
- A.
  
  5 feet.
- B.
  
  10 feet.
- C.
  
  25 feet.
- D.
  
  50 feet.
Correct Answer
C. 25 feet.

Explanation
When a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used inside a hangar, a minimum distance of 25 feet must be maintained between the pumping unit and the aircraft. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of the aircraft and prevent any potential damage or accidents that may occur due to the operation of the pumping unit.

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50.

(623) What piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) must personnel working on hydraulic systems wear?
- A.
  
  Goggles.
- B.
  
  Face shield.
- C.
  
  Rubber gloves.
- D.
  
  Cotton overalls.
Correct Answer
A. Goggles.

Explanation
Personnel working on hydraulic systems must wear goggles as a piece of personal protective equipment (PPE). Goggles protect the eyes from any potential hazards, such as flying debris or chemicals, that may be present while working on hydraulic systems. Face shields may provide additional protection, but goggles specifically focus on protecting the eyes. Rubber gloves and cotton overalls are not mentioned as necessary PPE for working on hydraulic systems.

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Current Version
Mar 14, 2024

Quiz Edited by
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Mar 05, 2012

Quiz Created by
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1s051 Volume IV Pretest (For Reference Use Only)

(601) Which function is not one of the three weapons program functions?

(601) Weapons safety managers (WSM) must complete the weapons safety course within how many days of appointment?

(602) Who approves local written procedures as the authorization for operations involving licensed explosives?

(602) Who must the license requester coordinate with before submitting a license to the weapons safety manager (WSM) for approval of a request?

(603) Which action is defined as a written authority for a specific short-term departure from a mandatory quantity-distance (Q-D) requirement?

(604) How often must barricades be inspected to determine the degree of settling erosion?

(604) If a magazine’s earth cover erodes to less than two feet, repair it as soon as practical or within how many days?

(604) How wide must a firebreak be around a potential explosives site (PES)?

(604) Storage magazines must have reinforced concrete walls that are no less than how many inches thick?

(604) Where explosives are concerned, the National Electric Code (NEC) places hazardous locations into how many classes?

(604) Who exercises final authority over the movement of explosives by common carrier?

(604) When material handling equipment (MHE) is stored in magazines and warehouses there must be at least how many feet between any combustible material and the equipment?

(605) Which section of the security forces squadron implement weapons training for personnel on base?

(605) At least how many people must be present when conducting live-fire operations?

(606) Regardless of the class of range, who has overall control over safety on the weapons range?

(606) What are two common hazards associated with weapons ranges?

(607) What is the first step when inspecting a flightline fire extinguisher?

(608) Due to weight and speed of modern aircraft, the tires are often inflated with

(608) At least how long is a sufficient length of hose between the clip-on chuck and the in-line valve to allow the employee to stand outside the trajectory of an airline hose?

(609) When may a safety guard enter a tank in an attempt to rescue someone?

(609) After fuel residues have been removed through depuddling, fuel cells must be

(610) The number of refueling vehicles required to service an aircraft at any one time is determined by the

(610) Maintenance work on other aircraft is restricted for how many feet of an aircraft fueling operations

(610) A service cart must be at least how many feet away from a fueling operation?

(612) The maximum speed that any two maintenance stands may be towed over a smooth, paved surface is

(612) Which maintenance stand is commonly known as the crew chief stand?

(612) Which maintenance stand has a variable height platform with a maximum platform load of 600 pounds?

(613) Fall protection must be used during construction operations at a height of at least

(613) Lanyards, D-rings, locking snap-hooks, and all components of a fall arrest system must be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of

(614) How often must ground handling personnel be tested for proficiency on movement of aircraft?

(614) Which tow team member(s) are authorized to give the “all clear to move” order when towing aircraft?

(614) The maximum speed that any aircraft may be towed at any time is

(614) What is the towing distance in between aircraft if the trailing aircraft has faulty brakes?

(615) As a general rule, wing walkers must be used when an aircraft is taxied within how many feet of an obstruction?

(615) Generally people and vehicles should not pass closer than how many feet to the rear of an aircraft with its engines running?

(616) Personnel must be tested within how many days of being assigned to duties requiring their knowledge of marshaling signals?

(616) Who initiates signals regarding the operation of aircraft systems during marshalling operations?

(617) Where is the fireguard positioned during an engine start?

(617) After turning, the aircraft must be marshaled forward in a straight line at least how many feet to relieve the loads on the main landing gear?

(618) Under normal circumstances general purpose vehicles may not exceed what speed when operating on the flight line?

(618) The maximum speed for a vehicle operated within 10 feet of an aircraft is

(618) Which statement is not true concerning vehicle operation on the flight line?

(620) Fighter aircraft must be parked at an angle of at least

(620) What is the minimum wing tip clearance for aircraft with wingspans greater than 110 feet?

(621) In what respect does the combat turnaround operation differ from hot-pit refueling?

(622) Who ensures detailed local operating procedures covering safety precautions for hangaring aircraft are prepared and coordinated with installation ground safety and fire department personnel?

(622) Horizontal sliding hangar doors must be opened wide enough to permit clearance of at least how many feet at each wing tip?

(622) How far above the floor of aircraft hangars must spark-producing components be located when a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used inside a hangar?

(622) When a hydraulic jack pumping unit is being used inside a hangar, what is the minimum distance that must be maintained between the pumping unit and the aircraft?

(623) What piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) must personnel working on hydraulic systems wear?