1.
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
Correct Answer
D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
Explanation
Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) because AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel. As the primary training command, AETC oversees the development and implementation of training programs for both officer and enlisted personnel. TDs are specialized units that provide specific training and support services, and they fall under the jurisdiction of AETC to ensure efficient coordination and supervision of training activities.
2.
The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight
(MTF) training course?
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance Orientation.
Explanation
The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course. This method involves grouping related topics or tasks together in a "block" of instruction, allowing for a more efficient and focused learning experience. The Maintenance Orientation course is designed to provide a broad overview of maintenance procedures, policies, and resources, making it suitable for the block training method. The other options, such as Any 7-level course, Weight and Balance, and General Technical Order System, may require a different approach or instructional method.
3.
How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review
and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
Correct Answer
B. Semi-annually
Explanation
The Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster twice a year. This ensures that they are regularly checking and verifying the certifications of the personnel listed on the roster. Reviewing and signing the SCR semi-annually helps to maintain the accuracy and validity of the certifications held by the personnel.
4.
In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by
the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
Correct Answer
B. MSgt.
Explanation
To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only Master Sergeants have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X" after being approved by the MGX/CC. The higher ranks of SMSgt and CMSgt are not required for this authority.
5.
Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
Correct Answer
D. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
Explanation
The Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time access to various resources related to technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel. This means that individuals can easily view and track their own qualifications, certifications, and training progress, as well as the qualifications and statuses of other personnel. This visibility is crucial for effective management and planning of training and personnel development within the Air Force.
6.
In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages”
board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update
information?
Correct Answer
C. Application problems.
Explanation
The "System Messages" board in the Training Business Area (TBA) provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. This means that the board is used to inform users about any issues or glitches with the application that may affect its functionality or performance.
7.
What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow,
and maintenance qualification training?
Correct Answer
B. II.
Explanation
The correct answer is II because the question is asking for the training phase that includes four specific sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training. The only option that includes these four sub-phases is II.
8.
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that
complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and
training detachment (TD) courses?
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance qualification.
Explanation
Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. Maintenance qualification refers to the specific training that focuses on maintaining and improving the skills and knowledge required for a particular maintenance job. This type of training is designed to ensure that individuals remain qualified and competent in their roles by providing them with ongoing education and practical experience.
9.
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT)
briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
Correct Answer
A. Monthly
Explanation
The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the briefing occurs once every month, allowing the commander to stay updated on the training progress and any changes or improvements that need to be made. Regular monthly briefings ensure effective communication and coordination within the maintenance group, enabling the commander to make informed decisions and address any training issues promptly.
10.
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or
incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many
days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
Correct Answer
B. 30
Explanation
After returning from TDY, leave, or incapacitation, an individual has 30 days before decertification is required if it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date.
11.
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor
before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
Correct Answer
C. Unit training manager.
Explanation
The Unit Training Manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This is because the Unit Training Manager is in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. They are responsible for ensuring that the trainee is prepared for the CDC and that their supervisor is aware of the expectations and requirements. The Operations officer, Group commander, and Maintenance Training Flight Commander may have other responsibilities within the unit, but the Unit Training Manager specifically handles training and development matters.
12.
Manpower authorizations are
Correct Answer
A. Funded
Explanation
Manpower authorizations refer to the allocation of resources, specifically in terms of human capital, within an organization. When they are "funded," it means that the necessary financial resources have been allocated to support the authorized positions. This ensures that the organization has the budget to hire and maintain the required number of personnel. On the other hand, if the authorizations are "unfunded," it implies that no budget has been allocated for the positions, making it challenging or impossible to hire individuals to fill those roles.
13.
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
Correct Answer
B. Monthly
Explanation
The meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held monthly. This suggests that the frequency of the meeting is once a month. Holding the meeting monthly allows for regular updates and discussions on manning issues within the MXG, ensuring that any problems or concerns are addressed in a timely manner. It also provides an opportunity for the group to track progress and make necessary adjustments as needed.
14.
The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting
maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
Correct Answer
A. 12 hours.
Explanation
The maximum continuous duty time that workers can be scheduled for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is 12 hours. This means that any shift longer than 12 hours would require approval from the MXG/CC. This policy is likely in place to ensure that workers are not overworked or fatigued, which can lead to decreased productivity and potential safety hazards.
15.
Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour
shift up to
Correct Answer
C. 16 hours.
Explanation
Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for maintenance work to continue beyond the standard 12-hour shift, the maintenance group commander has the authority to approve an extension of up to 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that critical maintenance tasks can be completed efficiently.
16.
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply
interface and resolving supply support problems?
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance supply liaison.
Explanation
The maintenance supply liaison is typically responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving any supply support problems. They act as a link between maintenance operations and the supply chain, ensuring that the necessary supplies and materials are available for maintenance tasks. This role involves coordinating with suppliers, tracking inventory levels, and addressing any issues that may arise in the supply chain.
17.
Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
Correct Answer
B. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
Explanation
Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for managing the logistics and supply chain operations within the squadron. They coordinate and oversee the procurement, storage, and distribution of supplies and equipment needed for maintenance activities. Therefore, it makes sense that maintenance supply liaison personnel would report directly to the LRS, as they play a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary supplies are available for maintenance operations.
18.
Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
Correct Answer
D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not normally a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically perform.
19.
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the
host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
Correct Answer
B. 30
Explanation
After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.
20.
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an
asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
Correct Answer
D. XB3
Explanation
The asset must be assigned the ERRC code XB3 before it can be placed in bench stock.
21.
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
Correct Answer
A. 30.
Explanation
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide a 30-day supply. This means that the inventory of bench stock assets should be sufficient to meet the organization's needs for a period of 30 days without running out of stock. This ensures that there is an adequate supply of necessary items readily available, reducing the risk of disruptions in operations due to stockouts.
22.
Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and
re-mark with a new expiration date?
Correct Answer
B. II
Explanation
The correct answer is II. According to the question, if an item is still serviceable, it can be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date. This implies that the item has not expired and can still be used safely. Therefore, it is permissible to update the expiration date for such items.
23.
Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to
meet local manufacture requirements?
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
Explanation
The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements within the maintenance group (MXG). They oversee the operations and maintenance activities of the squadron, ensuring that all necessary resources, equipment, and personnel are available to meet the manufacturing requirements. The MX SUPT is in charge of coordinating and managing the maintenance operations to ensure efficient and effective support for local manufacturing needs.
24.
What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering
data?
Correct Answer
B. Engineering Data Service Center.
Explanation
The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing these important documents and information, making it easily accessible to engineers and other relevant personnel. The other options mentioned, such as the Audio Visual Center, AF Primary Standards Laboratory, and Communication and Information System, do not specifically mention their role in centralizing engineering drawings and data, making the Engineering Data Service Center the correct answer.
25.
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
Correct Answer
D. Cloudy water.
Explanation
Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural processes such as sedimentation or the presence of minerals. While pollution can also cause water to become cloudy, it is not always the sole cause. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more likely to indicate pollution as they are direct and visible effects of pollution.
26.
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to
notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
Correct Answer
B. Section supervisor.
Explanation
The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This role is responsible for overseeing the day-to-day operations of the section and ensuring the safety of the personnel under their supervision. They are in the best position to understand the specific hazards present in their workcenter and develop a training plan to educate personnel about these hazards and how to mitigate them. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have oversight or advisory roles, but the section supervisor has the primary responsibility for developing the HAZCOM training plan.
27.
Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
Correct Answer
A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
Explanation
The AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag should be used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This tag is specifically designed to indicate caution and highlight potential hazards or special instructions. By using this tag, it ensures that the drained and/or purged status of the part is clearly communicated and documented for future reference. The other options, DD Form 1574, DD Form 1577–1, and DD Form 1577–2, are not specifically designed for documenting the drained and/or purged status of a part.
28.
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
Correct Answer
B. Squadron Commander.
Explanation
The Squadron Commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the Squadron Commander is responsible for the overall management and operations of the squadron, including the appointment of key personnel such as equipment account custodians. The equipment account custodian is responsible for the proper care, maintenance, and accountability of the squadron's equipment, and therefore it is the Squadron Commander's responsibility to ensure that a qualified individual is appointed to this role.
29.
What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as
a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
Correct Answer
C. IIB.
30.
What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
Correct Answer
D. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.
Explanation
The correct answer is DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed to investigate and determine the financial liability for property loss. The form provides a detailed account of the circumstances surrounding the loss, including the date, location, and description of the property involved. It also allows for the identification of responsible individuals and the assessment of financial charges.
31.
Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable
authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
Correct Answer
B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
Explanation
The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically designated to handle the logistics and maintenance of these assets, ensuring they are properly accounted for and maintained. The other options listed, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the specific responsibility of managing SPRAM assets.
32.
Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose
recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
Correct Answer
C. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.
Explanation
The Mission Support Group (MSG) commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians, unless the responsibility has been delegated to someone else. This means that the MSG commander is the final authority in approving or denying SPRAM authorizations, ensuring that they align with the group's mission and objectives. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander, Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander, and MXG commander may have other responsibilities within their respective areas, but the ultimate responsibility for reviewing SPRAM authorizations lies with the MSG commander.
33.
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a
combination of two or more precious metals?
Correct Answer
B. C.
Explanation
PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This means that if an item is assigned PMIC code C, it implies that it is made up of multiple precious metals, rather than just one specific precious metal.
34.
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed
during the day?
Correct Answer
B. D04, Daily Document Register.
Explanation
The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps a record of all the documents that have been processed and provides a comprehensive overview of the supply chain activities for the day. It helps in tracking and managing the flow of documents and ensures that all necessary information is recorded and accounted for.
35.
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an
urgency of need (UND) code of A?
Correct Answer
A. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
Explanation
The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. This document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. The Priority Monitor Report is used to track the supply of parts and prioritize them based on their urgency of need. By listing all back-ordered parts with a UND code of A, this report helps ensure that the most critical parts are given priority and are supplied as soon as possible.
36.
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and
bench stock supply support?
Correct Answer
C. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
Explanation
The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the correct answer because it provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report helps track the effectiveness of the organization's supply support system and identifies any issues or areas that need improvement. It allows management to monitor the flow of supplies and ensure that the necessary stock is available to support operations.
37.
Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security
cages and alarmed rooms?
Correct Answer
B. Host installation commander.
Explanation
The host installation commander must authorize the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This is because the host installation commander is responsible for the overall security and operations of the installation, including the authorization and control of classified materials. They have the authority to grant permission for the storage of such materials in designated secure areas to ensure the protection and proper handling of classified information during transit.
38.
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or
confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished
every
Correct Answer
C. 3 hours.
Explanation
When the aircraft owner or user is not present with an aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, it is necessary for them to arrange for security checks to be conducted every 3 hours. This is important to ensure the safety and protection of the sensitive equipment on board the aircraft. Regular security checks help to prevent unauthorized access or tampering with the confidential equipment, thus maintaining its integrity and confidentiality. Conducting these checks at regular intervals reduces the risk of any potential security breaches during the owner or user's absence.
39.
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional
check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
Correct Answer
C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
Explanation
The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all supply assets are properly maintained and meet operational standards. They have the authority to approve or disapprove the inclusion of assets on the list, ensuring that only those assets that require attention are included. The Flight commander/Chief, Maintenance Group commander, and MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) may have oversight and input, but the final decision lies with the LRS Chief Inspector.
40.
Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts
request?
Correct Answer
A. Customer
Explanation
The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This means that the customer, who is in need of the parts, has the authority to decide how urgently they require the supplies. The other options, such as Maintenance Supply Support, Maintenance Supply Liaison, and Logistics Readiness Squadron Customer Service, may assist in the process, but ultimately it is the customer who has the final say in determining the priority of the supply delivery.
41.
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and
pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
Correct Answer
B. AR or BR.
Explanation
The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare. These codes indicate that the repair is needed urgently and should be prioritized.
42.
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must
Maintenance coordinate with?
Correct Answer
D. LRS material management element.
Explanation
Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. The LRS material management element is responsible for managing and controlling the supply of materials and equipment needed for maintenance operations. They ensure that the necessary supplies are available and properly distributed to support maintenance activities. By coordinating with the LRS material management element, maintenance can ensure that they have the necessary resources to effectively carry out their work.
43.
Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter
supply point monitor?
Correct Answer
B. Semiannually.
Explanation
Supply point accounts must be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor semiannually, meaning twice a year. This ensures that the accounts are regularly reviewed and any discrepancies or errors can be identified and corrected in a timely manner. Reconciling the accounts on a semiannual basis helps maintain accurate records and promotes financial accountability within the workcenter.
44.
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB),
supply personnel notify the
Correct Answer
C. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).
Explanation
When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing maintenance activities, including the procurement and distribution of parts. They have the necessary authority and resources to ensure that the MICAP part is quickly and efficiently processed, so that it can be installed on the aircraft and the mission can continue without delay. The other options, such as the Operations Officer, Aircraft Section flight chief, and AMU's PS&D dedicated scheduler, may have other responsibilities but are not directly involved in the handling of MICAP parts.
45.
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report
is submitted?
Correct Answer
B. Supply Discrepancy Report.
Explanation
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a Supply Discrepancy Report is submitted. This report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supply of items, such as missing or incorrect items in an order. By submitting a Supply Discrepancy Report, the customer can request a refund or a replacement for the incorrect or missing item.
46.
Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the
submitting organization or group?
Correct Answer
D. Originating Point.
Explanation
The originating point has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and coordinating the entire program, including the submission of deficiency reports. They are responsible for ensuring that the program runs smoothly and efficiently, and that all necessary actions are taken to address and resolve any reported deficiencies.
47.
Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting
organization?
Correct Answer
B. Action Point.
Explanation
The correct answer is Action Point. The Action Point acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and the submitting organization. This means that the Action Point is responsible for receiving and coordinating the Deficiency Reports, ensuring that they are properly addressed and resolved between the support point and the submitting organization.
48.
Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to
the Screening Point within
Correct Answer
C. 24 hours.
Explanation
Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, it is important to report it promptly to the Screening Point in order to address and rectify the issue as quickly as possible. Waiting too long to report the deficiency could lead to further complications or delays in resolving the problem. Therefore, it is necessary to submit a deficiency report within 24 hours to ensure timely action is taken.
49.
Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office
(TODO) duty?
Correct Answer
A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
Explanation
The MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) is responsible for various duties related to the distribution and availability of technical orders (TO). These duties include assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not a typical duty of the MXG TODO.
50.
What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing
maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and
management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?
Correct Answer
D. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
Explanation
The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. This section is in charge of planning and scheduling maintenance operations, as well as maintaining accurate and up-to-date documentation. They play a crucial role in ensuring that TCTOs are properly documented and managed to maintain the overall efficiency and effectiveness of maintenance operations.