2T271 CDC Practice Test Vol. 3

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The first step in determining passengers’ travel eligibility is to check

    • A.

      Their identification.

    • B.

      Travel restrictions and clearances.

    • C.

      Their travel category and supporting documentation.

    • D.

      The CIC on the travel authorization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Their identification.
    Explanation
    In order to determine passengers' travel eligibility, the first step is to check their identification. This is important because it helps to verify their identity and ensure that they meet the necessary requirements for travel. Identification documents such as passports or driver's licenses are typically used to confirm a person's identity and establish their eligibility to travel. By checking passengers' identification, authorities can ensure that they are who they claim to be and that they have the necessary documentation to travel.

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  • 2. 

    When determining a passenger’s eligibility to travel, if a passenger presents questionable travel orders, what is your first step?

    • A.

      Inform the passenger the document is questionable.

    • B.

      Allow the passenger the first available flight to his/her originating station.

    • C.

      Forward the documents with other supporting paperwork to HQ AMC.

    • D.

      Fax the orders to the nearest DFAS to verify authenticity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inform the passenger the document is questionable.
    Explanation
    The first step when a passenger presents questionable travel orders is to inform the passenger that the document is questionable. This is important because it allows the passenger to be aware that there may be an issue with their travel orders and gives them the opportunity to provide further clarification or documentation. It is the initial step in ensuring the accuracy and legitimacy of the passenger's travel arrangements.

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  • 3. 

    If a passenger is a non-command-sponsored dependent of a military member, residing overseas with the sponsor, determine if the passenger is eligible for space-available travel and if so, which category and location(s).

    • A.

      Category I; CONUS to CONUS only.

    • B.

      Category I; overseas to overseas only.

    • C.

      Category I; overseas to CONUS only.

    • D.

      This passenger is not eligible for space-available travel.

    Correct Answer
    C. Category I; overseas to CONUS only.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Category I; overseas to CONUS only. This means that if a passenger is a non-command-sponsored dependent of a military member residing overseas with the sponsor, they are eligible for space-available travel, but only from overseas to CONUS (Continental United States). They are not eligible for travel within CONUS or from CONUS to overseas.

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  • 4. 

    If a customer is a command-sponsored dependent of a uniformed service member and is accompanying his/her sponsor on approved circuitous travel, determine if he/she is eligible for space-available travel and if so, in which travel category and between which locations.

    • A.

      This passenger is not eligible for space-available travel.

    • B.

      Category I, overseas to overseas and between overseas and CONUS.

    • C.

      Category II, overseas to overseas and between overseas and CONUS.

    • D.

      Category III, overseas to overseas and between overseas and CONUS.

    Correct Answer
    D. Category III, overseas to overseas and between overseas and CONUS.
    Explanation
    The customer, who is a command-sponsored dependent of a uniformed service member, is eligible for space-available travel. They fall under Category III, which allows them to travel overseas to overseas and between overseas and CONUS locations.

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  • 5. 

    If a customer is a non-command-sponsored dependent, acquired in an overseas area during a military member’s current tour of assigned duty and not otherwise entitled to transportation at the government expense, determine which space-available category this passenger is eligible and between which location(s).

    • A.

      Category V; CONUS to overseas only.

    • B.

      Category V; Overseas to overseas only.

    • C.

      Category VI; CONUS to overseas only.

    • D.

      Category VI; overseas to overseas only.

    Correct Answer
    A. Category V; CONUS to overseas only.
    Explanation
    A non-command-sponsored dependent who is acquired in an overseas area during a military member's current tour of assigned duty and is not entitled to transportation at the government expense is eligible for Category V. This category allows the passenger to travel from CONUS (Continental United States) to overseas locations. Therefore, the correct answer is Category V; CONUS to overseas only.

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  • 6. 

    Before entering space-available passengers’ information into the register, collect their AMC Form 140 and other required travel documentation,

    • A.

      And place the form with the mission folder so records can begin the billing process.

    • B.

      And file the station copy according to travel priority, then by date and time of sign-up.

    • C.

      Stamp the form with the date and time of sign-up and forward it to the records section.

    • D.

      Allow them to sign-up for up to five destinations, then stamp the form with the date and time of sign-up.

    Correct Answer
    D. Allow them to sign-up for up to five destinations, then stamp the form with the date and time of sign-up.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to allow them to sign-up for up to five destinations, then stamp the form with the date and time of sign-up. This answer suggests that space-available passengers are given the opportunity to choose up to five destinations they wish to travel to. After they have made their selections, the form is stamped with the date and time of sign-up, indicating when they made their choices. This process allows for efficient record-keeping and ensures that passengers' travel preferences are properly documented.

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  • 7. 

    When selecting passengers for travel, which of the following would you choose first?

    • A.

      Space-available category I; date and time of sign-up 25 July at 1410.

    • B.

      Space-available category I; date and time of sign-up 25 July at 1455.

    • C.

      Space-required priority 1; date and time of sign-up 25 July at 1430.

    • D.

      Space-required priority 1; date and time of sign up 25 July at 1500.

    Correct Answer
    C. Space-required priority 1; date and time of sign-up 25 July at 1430.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Space-required priority 1; date and time of sign-up 25 July at 1430." This option is chosen first because it has the highest priority level (priority 1) and the earliest sign-up time (1430). The other options either have a lower priority level or a later sign-up time, making them less preferable choices for selection.

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  • 8. 

    When selecting space-available travelers from the standby listing, if a category I passenger arrives at the terminal after roll call has begun; what should you do?

    • A.

      Notify the TACC.

    • B.

      Add him/her to the space-available register, and call him/her for the next available flight.

    • C.

      Check his/her travel documentation and if all of it is correct allow him/her a seat(s) on the aircraft.

    • D.

      Contact the ATOC to request additional seating on the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    C. Check his/her travel documentation and if all of it is correct allow him/her a seat(s) on the aircraft.
    Explanation
    If a category I passenger arrives at the terminal after roll call has begun, the correct action to take is to check their travel documentation. If all of their documentation is correct, they should be allowed a seat on the aircraft.

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  • 9. 

    When coordinating the movement of delayed space-required passengers, within how many hours should you move passengers who were bumped for a higher priority passenger?

    • A.

      24 hours.

    • B.

      36 hours.

    • C.

      48 hours.

    • D.

      72 hours.

    Correct Answer
    C. 48 hours.
    Explanation
    Passengers who were bumped for a higher priority passenger should be moved within 48 hours. This time frame allows for a reasonable amount of time to make the necessary arrangements and coordinate the movement of delayed space-required passengers. Moving them within 48 hours ensures that they are accommodated in a timely manner and their travel plans are not significantly disrupted.

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  • 10. 

    When coordinating the movement of delayed space-required passengers, within how many hours should you move delayed intransit passengers?

    • A.

      12 hours.

    • B.

      24 hours.

    • C.

      48 hours.

    • D.

      72 hours.

    Correct Answer
    B. 24 hours.
    Explanation
    Delayed intransit passengers should be moved within 24 hours when coordinating the movement of delayed space-required passengers.

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  • 11. 

    When coordinating the movement of delayed space-required passengers, within how many hours should you move passengers who are returning from emergency leave?

    • A.

      12 hours.

    • B.

      24 hours.

    • C.

      48 hours.

    • D.

      72 hours.

    Correct Answer
    D. 72 hours.
    Explanation
    Passengers who are returning from emergency leave should be moved within 72 hours. This allows for sufficient time to coordinate and arrange the necessary transportation for these passengers, ensuring that they are able to return to their desired destination in a timely manner. Moving them within this timeframe also helps to prioritize their needs and accommodate any urgent or time-sensitive situations they may be facing.

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  • 12. 

    When a commercial-contracted mission is delayed and the delay is considered controllable, who is responsible for caring for these passengers and what services will be provided at no cost to the passenger?

    • A.

      The carrier; meals, lodging and transportation only.

    • B.

      The carrier; meals, lodging, transportation and phone charges only.

    • C.

      AMC; meals, lodging and transportation only.

    • D.

      AMC; meals, lodging, transportation, and phone charges only.

    Correct Answer
    A. The carrier; meals, lodging and transportation only.
    Explanation
    The carrier is responsible for caring for the passengers and will provide meals, lodging, and transportation at no cost to the passenger.

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  • 13. 

    If a commercial contracted aircraft is delayed due to weather, who is responsible for caring for passengers and what services will be provided at no cost to the passenger?

    • A.

      The carrier; lodging, and transportation only.

    • B.

      The carrier; meals, lodging and transportation only.

    • C.

      AMC; lodging and transportation only.

    • D.

      AMC; meals, lodging, and transportation only.

    Correct Answer
    C. AMC; lodging and transportation only.
  • 14. 

    If a DV requests honors while traveling, which DV honors code will you use?

    • A.

      H.

    • B.

      M.

    • C.

      O.

    • D.

      T.

    Correct Answer
    A. H.
    Explanation
    If a DV requests honors while traveling, the DV honors code that will be used is H. This indicates that the DV will be honored during their travel.

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  • 15. 

    If a DV requests no honors while traveling, but requests transportation, which DV honors code will you use?

    • A.

      H.

    • B.

      M.

    • C.

      O.

    • D.

      T.

    Correct Answer
    D. T.
    Explanation
    If a DV requests no honors while traveling but requests transportation, the DV honors code that will be used is T. This code indicates that the DV does not require any honors but does require transportation.

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  • 16. 

    If a DV requests no honors while traveling, but requests quarters only, which DV honors code will you use?

    • A.

      H.

    • B.

      M.

    • C.

      Q.

    • D.

      T.

    Correct Answer
    C. Q.
    Explanation
    If a DV requests no honors while traveling and only requests quarters, the DV honors code that will be used is Q. This indicates that the DV only wants accommodations in quarters and does not require any additional honors or special treatment.

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  • 17. 

    Which circumstance would cause a passenger to be considered a Coin Assist passenger?

    • A.

      The passenger presented a Medal of Honor award certificate at the passenger service counter.

    • B.

      The passenger is traveling in conjunction with the death of a service member, civilian employee, or dependent.

    • C.

      The passenger is traveling because a DOD member or dependent with whom he/she is affiliated is critically ill.

    • D.

      The passenger is a dependent whose sponsor is missing in action, a prisoner of war, or otherwise designated by the DOD.

    Correct Answer
    D. The passenger is a dependent whose sponsor is missing in action, a prisoner of war, or otherwise designated by the DOD.
    Explanation
    A passenger would be considered a Coin Assist passenger if they are a dependent whose sponsor is missing in action, a prisoner of war, or otherwise designated by the DOD. This means that the passenger is traveling under special circumstances related to the military, such as if their sponsor is unaccounted for or in captivity. This designation allows them to receive additional support and assistance during their travel.

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  • 18. 

    Which feature on some organic aircraft allows a large-bodied passenger to use standard seatbelts?

    • A.

      Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers.

    • B.

      Side-wall seats with optional seat belt extensions.

    • C.

      Aft-facing seats with reclining capabilities.

    • D.

      Aft-facing seats with removable arm rests.

    Correct Answer
    A. Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers.
    Explanation
    Side-wall seats designed to carry fully-equipped paratroopers allow a large-bodied passenger to use standard seatbelts because these seats are specifically designed to accommodate individuals wearing bulky equipment. The seats are wider and have reinforced structures to provide additional space and support. As a result, a large-bodied passenger can comfortably fit in these seats and fasten the standard seatbelts without any issues.

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  • 19. 

    If a female passenger who is less than six weeks postpartum wants to travel, then what must she present to passenger agents?

    • A.

      A waiver from HQ AMC.

    • B.

      Females less than six weeks postpartum are never authorized to travel.

    • C.

      A medical officer or civilian equivalent’s certification that she is medically sound.

    • D.

      The infant’s birth certificate with a legible date of birth and signature of the medical doctor.

    Correct Answer
    C. A medical officer or civilian equivalent’s certification that she is medically sound.
    Explanation
    A female passenger who is less than six weeks postpartum must present a medical officer or civilian equivalent's certification that she is medically sound to the passenger agents. This is because traveling shortly after giving birth can pose certain risks and it is important to ensure that the passenger is in good health before allowing them to travel.

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  • 20. 

    If an MEGP passenger notifies the ATOC within three hours of aircraft departure, then he/she

    • A.

      Can proceed directly to the aircraft at any time within the three-hour timeframe.

    • B.

      Will be added to the mission if there are space-available passengers onboard that can be bumped.

    • C.

      Can request cargo be downloaded to accommodate the number of personnel traveling in his/her group.

    • D.

      Will normally not be added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested passengers.

    Correct Answer
    D. Will normally not be added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested passengers.
    Explanation
    If an MEGP passenger notifies the ATOC within three hours of aircraft departure, they will normally not be added to the mission if it will adversely impact already-manifested passengers. This means that if adding the MEGP passenger to the mission will cause problems or inconvenience for passengers who are already on the manifest, they will not be accommodated.

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  • 21. 

    If a customer has a problem, what is the most important thing you can do to provide great customer service?

    • A.

      Smile.

    • B.

      Listen.

    • C.

      Speak clearly.

    • D.

      Ensure you are in compliance with AFI 36–2903.

    Correct Answer
    B. Listen.
    Explanation
    Listening is the most important thing you can do to provide great customer service because it shows that you value the customer's concerns and are willing to understand their problem. By actively listening, you can gather important information, empathize with the customer, and provide appropriate solutions or assistance. It helps in creating a positive customer experience and building trust, leading to customer satisfaction and loyalty.

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  • 22. 

    In which two ways can you build rapport with your customers?

    • A.

      Listening and asking good questions.

    • B.

      Enunciating your words and speaking slowly.

    • C.

      Being prepared for what you’re going to say next.

    • D.

      Speaking clearly and quickly enough so you’re not wasting their time.

    Correct Answer
    A. Listening and asking good questions.
    Explanation
    Building rapport with customers involves establishing a connection and understanding with them. One way to achieve this is by actively listening to their needs, concerns, and feedback. This shows that you value their input and are genuinely interested in helping them. Additionally, asking good questions allows you to gather more information and gain deeper insights into their specific requirements. By combining these two approaches, you can effectively build rapport with your customers and create a positive and productive relationship.

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  • 23. 

    Once you receive the MLR from the previous station, your next step is to

    • A.

      File it in the station copy file.

    • B.

      Give it to the ramp controller for reference and coordination.

    • C.

      Determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft.

    • D.

      Notify the TACC of any special handling cargo or passengers.

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft.
    Explanation
    After receiving the MLR from the previous station, the next step is to determine how much traffic requires download and how much is continuing on the aircraft. This step involves assessing the contents of the MLR and identifying which cargo or passengers need to be offloaded and which can remain on the aircraft. This information is crucial for ensuring efficient coordination and handling of the traffic at the station.

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  • 24. 

    When accomplishing a departure MLR, when the cargo breakdown section includes rolling stock and multi-pallet trains, what other information about those items are included?

    • A.

      If security guards are required for any of the items.

    • B.

      If any of the items are inoperative on board the aircraft.

    • C.

      The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops.

    • D.

      The equipment that will be needed to offload the items and other helpful remarks.

    Correct Answer
    C. The fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the fuselage station on the aircraft where the item starts and stops. This information is included in the cargo breakdown section when accomplishing a departure MLR. It is important to know the specific location within the aircraft where the item will be loaded and unloaded for proper handling and organization. This information helps ensure efficient loading and unloading processes.

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  • 25. 

    When accomplishing a departure MLR with human remains cargo on board, choose the answer that best represents the information that must be included in the report and in which section the information is placed.

    • A.

      SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section.

    • B.

      SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; hazardous cargo section.

    • C.

      SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/123–45–6789; special interest cargo section.

    • D.

      SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/123–45–6789; hazardous cargo section.

    Correct Answer
    A. SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SSgt Jim Jones/USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs; special interest cargo section. This is because when reporting a departure MLR with human remains cargo on board, it is important to include the name of the person responsible (SSgt Jim Jones), their affiliation (USAF/Dover AFB Mortuary Affairs), and the section where the information should be placed (special interest cargo section). This information helps ensure that the report is accurate and the human remains cargo is properly documented and handled.

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  • 26. 

    When accomplishing a departure MLR special interest cargo section, which type of information is not included?

    • A.

      Registered mail information.

    • B.

      Human remains information.

    • C.

      Hazardous cargo information.

    • D.

      Re-icing/refrigerated shipments information.

    Correct Answer
    C. Hazardous cargo information.
    Explanation
    The type of information that is not included when accomplishing a departure MLR special interest cargo section is hazardous cargo information. This means that when completing the section, the person does not need to provide information about any hazardous cargo that may be present.

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  • 27. 

    When completing the AMC Form 77, if an aerial port work center completes all tasks and later returns to the aircraft, record the subsequent handling in which block?

    • A.

      Remarks.

    • B.

      Ground Time.

    • C.

      Time Available.

    • D.

      Coordination.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remarks.
    Explanation
    If an aerial port work center completes all tasks and later returns to the aircraft, the subsequent handling should be recorded in the "Remarks" block. This block is used to provide additional information or details about the tasks completed or any other relevant information related to the handling of the aircraft.

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  • 28. 

    When completing the inbound side of the AMC Form 77, what will you enter into the Location block for AMC MICAP shipments?

    • A.

      The location of your station.

    • B.

      The current location of the AMC MICAP shipment.

    • C.

      The pallet position the AMC MICAP is located on the aircraft.

    • D.

      The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined.

    Correct Answer
    D. The location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the location of the aircraft for which the AMC MICAP is destined. This is because when completing the inbound side of the AMC Form 77, you need to enter the location where the AMC MICAP shipment is ultimately going to be delivered to. This helps in ensuring that the shipment is properly directed and reaches its intended destination.

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  • 29. 

    When completing the inbound side of the AMC Form 77, you will enter in the Explosives block for cargo/mail data offload the total

    • A.

      Weight of explosives off-loaded at your station.

    • B.

      Weight of thru-load and offload explosives on the aircraft.

    • C.

      NEW of explosives offloaded at your station.

    • D.

      NEW of thru-load and offload explosives on the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weight of explosives off-loaded at your station.
    Explanation
    When completing the inbound side of the AMC Form 77, the correct entry for the Explosives block for cargo/mail data offload is the weight of explosives off-loaded at your station. This means that you need to record the total weight of explosives that have been taken off the aircraft at your station.

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  • 30. 

    When completing the outbound side of the AMC Form 77, you will enter in the Loadmaster Scheduled Show block the loadmaster/boom operator scheduled show time

    • A.

      Only.

    • B.

      And the initials of the command post representative passing the information only.

    • C.

      And the initials of the ATOC representative receiving the information only.

    • D.

      And the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information only.

    Correct Answer
    D. And the initials of the command post and ATOC representatives passing/receiving the information only.
  • 31. 

    When completing the AMC Form 68 and a mission operates for more than one day,

    • A.

      Transfer the information to a new AMC Form 68.

    • B.

      Use the previous day’s AMC Form 68 until the mission is complete.

    • C.

      Attach an AMC Form 77 to the AMC Form 68.

    • D.

      Prepare an AMC Form 77 in lieu of the AMC Form 68.

    Correct Answer
    A. Transfer the information to a new AMC Form 68.
    Explanation
    When completing the AMC Form 68 and a mission operates for more than one day, it is necessary to transfer the information to a new AMC Form 68. This is because each AMC Form 68 is meant to document the activities and information for a specific day of the mission. Therefore, when the mission extends beyond one day, a new form is required to accurately record the information for each day.

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  • 32. 

    When accomplishing airlift capability schedules, after extracting the necessary data from the command and control systems or published schedules, what is your next step?

    • A.

      Monitor the schedules.

    • B.

      Adjust airlift as necessary.

    • C.

      Update the work centers with changed or new information.

    • D.

      Compile the information and distribute to the work centers.

    Correct Answer
    D. Compile the information and distribute to the work centers.
    Explanation
    After extracting the necessary data from the command and control systems or published schedules, the next step is to compile the information and distribute it to the work centers. This ensures that all relevant parties are aware of any changed or new information regarding the airlift schedules. Monitoring the schedules and adjusting airlift as necessary may be subsequent steps in the process, but the immediate next step is to compile and distribute the information.

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  • 33. 

    When monitoring cargo capability, after you have run the local management reports and compared them to available airlift, what is your last step?

    • A.

      Update the work centers with changed or new information.

    • B.

      Compile the information and distribute to the work centers.

    • C.

      Extract the necessary data from appropriate C2 systems.

    • D.

      Work with your leadership and TACC to adjust airlift, if necessary.

    Correct Answer
    D. Work with your leadership and TACC to adjust airlift, if necessary.
    Explanation
    After running the local management reports and comparing them to available airlift, the last step is to work with your leadership and TACC (Tanker Airlift Control Center) to adjust airlift if necessary. This implies that the previous steps have provided information on cargo capability and available airlift, and now the next course of action is to collaborate with leadership and TACC to make any required adjustments to the airlift operations.

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  • 34. 

    When clearing explosives shipments, request port-to-port clearance at the earliest possible date, but no later than

    • A.

      12 hours prior to the mission’s departure time only.

    • B.

      24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time only.

    • C.

      12 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater notification time only.

    • D.

      24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater notification time only.

    Correct Answer
    D. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater notification time only.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater notification time only. This means that when clearing explosives shipments, it is necessary to request port-to-port clearance no later than 24 hours before the mission's departure time. However, if there is a specific location that requires a greater notification time, then the clearance should be requested accordingly.

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  • 35. 

    When requesting port-to-port clearance of explosives, which of the following is not required on the explosives clearance request?

    • A.

      Mission number.

    • B.

      Pieces/weight/cube.

    • C.

      Requested departure date.

    • D.

      PSN and UN number.

    Correct Answer
    C. Requested departure date.
    Explanation
    The requested departure date is not required on the explosives clearance request. The other options, such as mission number, pieces/weight/cube, and PSN and UN number, are necessary information that needs to be included in the request.

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  • 36. 

    An APOE will not ship explosives or applicable FMS shipments without APOD approval except when

    • A.

      Free-flow is authorized.

    • B.

      The APOD cannot be contacted for clearance.

    • C.

      Airlift must be adjusted to accommodate the shipment.

    • D.

      The explosives validator ensures normal hazardous cargo restrictions have been met.

    Correct Answer
    A. Free-flow is authorized.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "free-flow is authorized." This means that APOE can ship explosives or applicable FMS shipments without APOD approval as long as free-flow is authorized. Free-flow refers to a process where certain shipments can bypass the usual approval procedures and be shipped without specific clearance.

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  • 37. 

    Who is considered to be the “eyes and ears” of the administrative contracting officer?

    • A.

      Squadron operations officer.

    • B.

      QAP.

    • C.

      Commercial load validator personnel.

    • D.

      ATOC personnel.

    Correct Answer
    B. QAP.
    Explanation
    The Quality Assurance Personnel (QAP) is considered to be the "eyes and ears" of the administrative contracting officer. They are responsible for ensuring that the contractor is meeting all the requirements of the contract and performing the work according to the agreed-upon standards. They monitor and inspect the contractor's performance, conduct audits, and provide feedback to the contracting officer. Their role is crucial in ensuring that the contract is being executed effectively and efficiently.

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  • 38. 

    Which three levels of discrepancies can commercial carriers receive from QAP when using AMC Form 166a?

    • A.

      Critical, major, and minor.

    • B.

      Go, no-go, and partially proficient.

    • C.

      Passenger, cargo, and general operations.

    • D.

      Satisfactory, unsatisfactory and not applicable.

    Correct Answer
    A. Critical, major, and minor.
    Explanation
    Commercial carriers can receive three levels of discrepancies from QAP when using AMC Form 166a: critical, major, and minor. These levels of discrepancies help to categorize and prioritize the issues that need to be addressed by the carriers. Critical discrepancies are the most severe and require immediate attention, major discrepancies are significant but not as urgent, and minor discrepancies are relatively minor issues that still need to be resolved. This system helps to ensure that carriers maintain the highest level of safety and compliance in their operations.

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  • 39. 

    At the end of each month, what happens before AMC Form 56 is forwarded to the records, reports, and analysis section?

    • A.

      It is included in the AMC A4 7107 report.

    • B.

      Section leadership reviews and verifies the information.

    • C.

      Manpower levels are adjusted based on the numbers entered.

    • D.

      It is used to project future workloads and document facts for various studies.

    Correct Answer
    B. Section leadership reviews and verifies the information.
    Explanation
    Before AMC Form 56 is forwarded to the records, reports, and analysis section, the section leadership reviews and verifies the information. This step ensures that the information entered in the form is accurate and reliable before it is included in the report. It is important for the section leadership to review and verify the information to maintain the integrity of the report and to make informed decisions based on the data provided.

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  • 40. 

    When completing AMC Form 56, ATOC personnel will complete the form after

    • A.

      A load plan is re-accomplished.

    • B.

      Pallets are reconfigured due to opportune airlift.

    • C.

      Cargo is frustrated to ACA/CSB.

    • D.

      Pre-built pallets arrived improperly configured and are reconfigured by aerial port personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. A load plan is re-accomplished.
  • 41. 

    When completing the cargo rehandled block of AMC Form 56, who is required to review and sign the form after it is complete?

    • A.

      The officer in charge or superintendent of the section performing the rehandled aircraft workload.

    • B.

      The records, reports, and analysis representative accepting the form.

    • C.

      The individual making entries on the form.

    • D.

      The squadron operations officer.

    Correct Answer
    A. The officer in charge or superintendent of the section performing the rehandled aircraft workload.
    Explanation
    After completing the cargo rehandled block of AMC Form 56, the person who is required to review and sign the form is the officer in charge or superintendent of the section performing the rehandled aircraft workload. This individual is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and completeness of the form before it is submitted.

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  • 42. 

    When completing AMC Form 108, which information is entered into the Remarks block?

    • A.

      Rationale for the rehandled action.

    • B.

      Number of passengers retransported.

    • C.

      Work center performing the rehandled work.

    • D.

      Call sign corresponding with the mission number.

    Correct Answer
    A. Rationale for the rehandled action.
    Explanation
    The information that is entered into the Remarks block when completing AMC Form 108 is the rationale for the rehandled action. This means that the person filling out the form should provide a brief explanation or justification for why the action was taken. This allows for clear documentation and communication of the reasons behind the decision, which can be helpful for future reference or analysis.

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  • 43. 

    When reviewing and reconciling transportation documentation, which report will aerial port management review daily?

    • A.

      Excessive PHT or SET.

    • B.

      Over/short shipment report.

    • C.

      Manifest header summary.

    • D.

      Pallet listing report.

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive pHT or SET.
    Explanation
    Aerial port management will review the Excessive PHT or SET report daily when reviewing and reconciling transportation documentation. This report helps them identify any instances of excessive passenger and baggage handling time or excessive special equipment time, which could indicate inefficiencies or issues in the transportation process.

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  • 44. 

    When reconciling manifests, what is your first step?

    • A.

      Notify HQ AMC.

    • B.

      Correcting the data to ensure proper billing.

    • C.

      Accounting for all the skips on the manifest register.

    • D.

      Researching all skipped manifest numbers on the manifest register.

    Correct Answer
    D. Researching all skipped manifest numbers on the manifest register.
    Explanation
    The first step when reconciling manifests is to research all skipped manifest numbers on the manifest register. This is important because it ensures that all manifests are accounted for and prevents any missing or incorrect data. By researching the skipped manifest numbers, any discrepancies or errors can be identified and corrected, allowing for proper billing and accurate record-keeping.

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  • 45. 

    Data records personnel can file AMC Form 77 in the station files after they have reviewed the folder to ensure

    • A.

      Each aircraft’s schedule of events occurred on time.

    • B.

      Skipped manifests are annotated in the remarks section.

    • C.

      Manifest numbers are in sequential order based on aircraft time of departure and deleted manifests are annotated in the remarks section.

    • D.

      All aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package.

    Correct Answer
    D. All aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that all aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package. This means that the personnel responsible for filing the AMC Form 77 must ensure that they have accurately recorded all relevant information about the aircraft and its events, and that they have included all necessary transportation documents for that specific mission. This ensures that the form is complete and comprehensive, providing a thorough record of the aircraft's activities.

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  • 46. 

    When reviewing AMC Form 77, if data records personnel notice any discrepancies, what will they do?

    • A.

      Notify the squadron operations officer so he/she can direct corrective action.

    • B.

      Send the package back to the ATOC for corrections or correct it themselves.

    • C.

      Send the discrepant portion(s) of the package back to the work center responsible for creating the document.

    • D.

      Notify the TACC that proper billing cannot take place due to the discrepancies.

    Correct Answer
    B. Send the package back to the ATOC for corrections or correct it themselves.
    Explanation
    When reviewing AMC Form 77, if data records personnel notice any discrepancies, they will send the package back to the ATOC for corrections or correct it themselves.

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  • 47. 

    When maintaining CFPs, file each by

    • A.

      Julian date beginning with the start of the fiscal year.

    • B.

      Julian date beginning with the start of the calendar year.

    • C.

      GMT beginning with the start of the fiscal year.

    • D.

      GMT beginning with the start of the calendar year.

    Correct Answer
    A. Julian date beginning with the start of the fiscal year.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Julian date beginning with the start of the fiscal year. This means that when maintaining CFPs (presumably referring to some sort of files or documents), they should be filed according to the Julian date system, which starts counting from the beginning of the fiscal year. The Julian date system is a chronological numbering system that assigns a unique number to each day of the year, starting from 1 on January 1st. Using the fiscal year as the starting point ensures consistency and organization in filing the CFPs.

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  • 48. 

    When maintaining transportation documentation, if a mission number changes what must you do before filing the new AMC Form 77?

    • A.

      Print an additional copy of the old AMC Form 77 and attach it to the new AMC Form 77.

    • B.

      Duplicate all the information from the old AMC Form 77 onto the new one and file.

    • C.

      Write the old mission number on the new AMC Form 77 in the remarks section.

    • D.

      File each AMC Form 77 separately with remarks annotated on each.

    Correct Answer
    A. Print an additional copy of the old AMC Form 77 and attach it to the new AMC Form 77.
    Explanation
    When maintaining transportation documentation, if a mission number changes, the correct action to take before filing the new AMC Form 77 is to print an additional copy of the old AMC Form 77 and attach it to the new form. This ensures that there is a record of the previous mission number along with the updated form.

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  • 49. 

    When maintaining transportation documentation, if a mission originates and terminates at the same station, how will you file the CFP(s)?

    • A.

      Consolidate them into one CFP and file under originating regardless of minor mission number changes.

    • B.

      Print an additional copy of the terminating AMC Form 77 and file it with the originating CFP.

    • C.

      Separate the files by TWCF and non-TWCF for filing.

    • D.

      Maintain two separate files; one for terminating and one for originating.

    Correct Answer
    A. Consolidate them into one CFP and file under originating regardless of minor mission number changes.
    Explanation
    When maintaining transportation documentation for a mission that originates and terminates at the same station, the correct approach is to consolidate all the CFPs into one and file it under the originating station. This should be done regardless of any minor mission number changes.

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  • 50. 

    When maintaining manifest registers, maintain one current

    • A.

      Fiscal year plus one inactive year.

    • B.

      Fiscal year plus two inactive years.

    • C.

      Calendar year plus one inactive year.

    • D.

      Calendar year plus two inactive years.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiscal year plus one inactive year.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "fiscal year plus one inactive year." This means that when maintaining manifest registers, one should keep records for the current fiscal year and one additional inactive year. This allows for easy access to recent records while also keeping a backup of the previous year's records for reference if needed.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 22, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Pattee
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