Trivia Quiz: Air Force 2T271 Vol. 1 CDC Test
(285).jpg "Trivia Quiz: Air Force 2T271 Vol. 1 CDC Test - Quiz")
Are you looking for an effective way to study for CDC USAF 2T271? This quiz can help. With this quiz, you will learn what activities are included in the shift briefing, in what durations is self-inspection conducted, and much more. Take the online quiz to see how much you know and learn more.
- 1.
(001) When planning and scheduling work assignments and priorities, what must you do when you discover a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission?
- A.
Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.
- B.
Annotate the discrepancy on the shift log and verify when the equipment will be fixed.
- C.
Check your e-mail and phone messages to see if it was fixed ahead of schedule.
- D.
Annotate the discrepancy in the shift log and verify the date it was turned in.
Correct Answer
A. Find out what is wrong with it, when it will be fixed, and notify your chain of command.Explanation
When discovering that a piece of equipment is out of commission and it will affect your ability to perform the mission, the correct course of action is to find out the cause of the problem, determine when it will be fixed, and inform your chain of command. This ensures that the necessary steps can be taken to address the issue and make any necessary adjustments to the work assignments and priorities.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
(001) Which activity would you not do while giving a shift briefing?
- A.
Verify all personnel have all required safety equipment and documentation to perform their duties.
- B.
Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned.
- C.
Give a safety briefing, stressing anything that may apply to the day’s activities.
- D.
Take roll, verify all appointments, and identify the daily or weekly goals.
Correct Answer
B. Send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned.Explanation
While giving a shift briefing, one would not send a runner to request augmentation support for the day since you are short-manned. This activity is not related to providing a briefing and is more about requesting additional support. The other activities mentioned, such as verifying personnel's safety equipment and documentation, giving a safety briefing, and taking roll, are all relevant to providing a shift briefing.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
(001) Which of the following is not a consideration when seeking to develop your subordinates?
- A.
Knowing your people and the work center’s current and future needs.
- B.
Communicating your expectations to the work crews.
- C.
Assigning them to the same duties every day.
- D.
Considering their safety and security.
Correct Answer
C. Assigning them to the same duties every day.Explanation
Assigning subordinates to the same duties every day is not a consideration when seeking to develop them. Developing subordinates involves providing them with opportunities for growth and learning, which can be achieved by assigning them to different tasks and responsibilities. By exposing subordinates to various duties, they can acquire new skills, expand their knowledge, and develop a well-rounded skill set. This also helps in enhancing their versatility and adaptability, making them more valuable assets to the organization. Therefore, assigning subordinates to the same duties every day hinders their development and limits their potential for growth.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
(002) Within how many days from the last day of the month must the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, reach AMC?
- A.
10.
- B.
20.
- C.
30.
- D.
45.
Correct Answer
B. 20.Explanation
The Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, must reach AMC within 20 days from the last day of the month. This report is used to provide information about the transportation activities and traffic handled by the station on a monthly basis. It is important for the report to be submitted within the specified time frame to ensure accurate and timely data for analysis and decision-making purposes.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
(002) It is important for you and your subordinates to accurately complete the workload documents for your work center, such as the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, because
- A.
They are used as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, which has a direct impact on your manpower and equipment levels.
- B.
The work center superintendent reviews them daily and asks questions about the missions, which has a direct impact on your performance report.
- C.
Capturing aircraft delays is critical to streamlining work center processes, which has a direct impact on which type of shift you work.
- D.
They are inspected during unit compliance and operational readiness inspections, which has a direct impact on your pass or failure.
Correct Answer
A. They are used as source documents for the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, which has a direct impact on your manpower and equipment levels.Explanation
Completing workload documents accurately is important because they serve as source documents for the AMC Form 82, which directly affects manpower and equipment levels. The AMC Form 82 is used to track and report station traffic handling, and the information provided in the workload documents is used to compile this report. Therefore, accurately completing the workload documents ensures that the correct information is reflected in the AMC Form 82, which in turn affects the allocation of resources such as manpower and equipment.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
(002) If your unit moved 20,000 pounds of cargo in July, what number would you enter in the appropriate block of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
- A.
20,000.
- B.
20K.
- C.
10.
- D.
2.
Correct Answer
C. 10.Explanation
The correct answer is 10 because the question is asking for the number that should be entered in the appropriate block of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report. Since the unit moved 20,000 pounds of cargo, the number that should be entered is 10.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
(002) Which type of manpower authorizations do you use for preparing the work center data on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report, and from which document do you take that data?
- A.
Funded; Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
- B.
Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
- C.
Unfunded; UPMR.
- D.
Unfunded; UMD.
Correct Answer
B. Funded; Unit Manpower Document (UMD). -
- 8.
(002) If it takes your work center personnel over 30 minutes to drive to the C–130 parking area for each K-loader load, which section would you enter this information on the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report?
- A.
Section XII, Remarks.
- B.
Section III, General Information.
- C.
Section IV, Aircraft Handled by Type.
- D.
You would not enter this information on the report.
Correct Answer
A. Section XII, Remarks.Explanation
You would enter this information in Section XII, Remarks, because this section is used to provide additional information or comments about the traffic handling activities. In this case, the information about the time it takes for work center personnel to drive to the C-130 parking area for each K-loader load would be considered as additional information that can be included in the Remarks section.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
(003.) When commanders receive results from self-inspections, they will use those results to
- A.
Assess mission readiness for use on enlisted performance reports.
- B.
Assess mission readiness and direct resources and energies to correct deficiencies.
- C.
Stratify key personnel within each unit to professionally develop lower-ranking individuals.
- D.
Stratify key personnel within each unit for whom to submit annual and quarterly awards packages.
Correct Answer
B. Assess mission readiness and direct resources and energies to correct deficiencies.Explanation
When commanders receive results from self-inspections, they will use those results to assess mission readiness and direct resources and energies to correct deficiencies. This means that the commanders will evaluate the readiness of their mission based on the self-inspection results and then allocate the necessary resources and efforts to address any identified deficiencies. This ensures that the mission is adequately prepared and any issues are addressed promptly.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
(003.) If a commander directs a self-inspection, when may he or she do so?
- A.
Every six months.
- B.
Every quarter.
- C.
At any time.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
C. At any time.Explanation
The commander can direct a self-inspection at any time because there are no restrictions or specific time intervals mentioned in the question. This means that the commander has the authority to initiate a self-inspection whenever they deem it necessary, regardless of whether it has been six months, a quarter, or annually.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
(003.) If a unit does not receive an inspection during an active Special Interest Item (SII) period, after direction from Headquarters Air Mobility Command, the unit will
- A.
Conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidation
- B.
Notify the major command (MAJCOM) commander of the oversight and reschedule the inspection for a later date.
- C.
Conduct a self-inspection on all programs and return the results through the numbered Air Force.
- D.
Notify the Wing commander of the oversight and request an inspection through the MAJCOM.
Correct Answer
A. Conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidationExplanation
If a unit does not receive an inspection during an active Special Interest Item (SII) period, they will conduct a self-inspection on the subject SII and return the results through the Wing Inspector General office for consolidation. This means that the unit will be responsible for inspecting themselves and reporting the results to the appropriate office for review and analysis. This allows for accountability and ensures that any issues or concerns related to the SII are addressed and resolved.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
(003.) How often will you accomplish self-inspection checklists if assigned to an active duty and an Air National Guard (ANG) unit, respectively?
- A.
Every quarter/annually.
- B.
Every six months/annually.
- C.
Annually, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.
- D.
Every six months, regardless of the type of unit you are assigned.
Correct Answer
B. Every six months/annually.Explanation
The correct answer states that self-inspection checklists will be accomplished every six months for both active duty and Air National Guard (ANG) units. This means that regardless of the type of unit a person is assigned to, they will need to complete these checklists every six months. Additionally, these checklists will also need to be completed annually.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
(004) Which is not a level of war?
- A.
Tactical.
- B.
Strategic.
- C.
Offensive.
- D.
Operational.
Correct Answer
C. Offensive.Explanation
The question asks to identify the level of war that is not included among the options. The options provided are tactical, strategic, operational, and offensive. Tactical, strategic, and operational are all recognized levels of war, referring to specific aspects of military planning and execution. Offensive, on the other hand, is not a level of war but rather a type of military operation or action that can be undertaken at any of the recognized levels. Therefore, offensive is the correct answer as it does not represent a distinct level of war.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
(004) Within which level(s) of war does the joint logistics environment exist?
- A.
Tactical only.
- B.
Tactical and strategic only.
- C.
Strategic, offensive, and tactical.
- D.
Strategic, operational, and tactical.
Correct Answer
D. Strategic, operational, and tactical.Explanation
The joint logistics environment exists within the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war. This means that logistics operations are crucial at all three levels of war, from the overall strategic planning and allocation of resources to the operational coordination and execution of logistics support, down to the tactical level where logistics directly support combat operations on the ground.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
(004) Which core capability of joint logistics is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics and supports movement of forces and equipment during deployment?
- A.
Supply.
- B.
Health Service Support.
- C.
Deployment and distribution.
- D.
Operational contract support.
Correct Answer
C. Deployment and distribution.Explanation
Deployment and distribution is considered the cornerstone of joint logistics because it involves the movement of forces and equipment during deployment. This core capability ensures that resources are efficiently and effectively transported to the necessary locations, allowing for the successful execution of military operations. Without proper deployment and distribution, forces and equipment may not be able to reach their intended destinations in a timely manner, hindering the overall mission.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
(004) Which category of airlift provides continuous air movement from and to the continental US (CONUS) and between different overseas locations and major operations or campaigns?
- A.
Tactical.
- B.
Theater.
- C.
Strategic.
- D.
Civil Support.
Correct Answer
C. Strategic.Explanation
Strategic airlift refers to the category of airlift that provides continuous air movement between the continental US (CONUS) and different overseas locations, as well as major operations or campaigns. This type of airlift is focused on long-range transportation of personnel, equipment, and supplies to support military operations on a large scale. Tactical airlift, on the other hand, is more geared towards providing shorter-range transportation within a theater of operations, while theater airlift involves movement within a specific theater of operations. Civil Support airlift is not directly related to military operations and is primarily focused on providing support during domestic emergencies or disasters.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
(004) How far in advance are long-range cargo requirements submitted to Air Mobility Command (AMC)?
- A.
11 months before the calendar year being reported.
- B.
23 months before the calendar year being reported.
- C.
11 months before the fiscal year being reported.
- D.
23 months before the fiscal year being reported.
Correct Answer
D. 23 months before the fiscal year being reported.Explanation
Long-range cargo requirements are submitted to Air Mobility Command (AMC) 23 months before the fiscal year being reported.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
(005) If a combatant commander perceives a threat, which type of plan is created to counter that perceived threat?
- A.
Operation order (OPORD).
- B.
Operational Plan (OPLAN).
- C.
Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
- D.
Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
Correct Answer
B. Operational Plan (OPLAN).Explanation
When a combatant commander perceives a threat, they create an Operational Plan (OPLAN) to counter that perceived threat. An OPLAN is a detailed plan that outlines the commander's objectives, the resources needed, and the specific actions to be taken to counter the threat. It includes the deployment of forces, coordination with other units, and the overall strategy to achieve success. The OPLAN provides a comprehensive and organized approach to address the perceived threat and ensure the commander's forces are prepared and ready to respond effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
(005) Which type of plan’s extensive information can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when it is necessary to execute an operation?
- A.
Operational Plan (OPLAN).
- B.
Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
- C.
Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
- D.
Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN).
Correct Answer
A. Operational Plan (OPLAN).Explanation
Operational Plan (OPLAN) is the correct answer because it is a type of plan that contains extensive information and can be quickly developed into an operation order (OPORD) when there is a need to execute an operation. OPLANs are detailed plans that outline the objectives, tasks, resources, and timelines for military operations. They provide the necessary guidance and instructions for commanders and their staff to effectively carry out a mission.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
(005) What is the objective of concept planning?
- A.
Identify specific units that will provide the needed capability for the operation.
- B.
Calculate detailed support requirements and prepare Time Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).
- C.
Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.
- D.
Provide strategic guidance that can be used to direct and maintain force data for both major command and base-level purposes.
Correct Answer
C. Develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary.Explanation
The objective of concept planning is to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary. This means that concept planning involves creating a plan that outlines the operational and support strategies that will be used in a specific operation. This plan should be flexible enough to be quickly transformed into an OPORD if the situation requires it. Concept planning helps ensure that all necessary operational and support elements are considered and prepared for, allowing for a more efficient and effective execution of the operation.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
(005) Which type of plan is an abbreviated format which will require extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when it’s necessary for an operation?
- A.
Operation order (OPORD).
- B.
Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
- C.
Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
- D.
Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN).
Correct Answer
B. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).Explanation
A concept plan (CONPLAN) is an abbreviated format that requires extensive development before being converted into an operation plan (OPLAN) when necessary for an operation. This means that a CONPLAN is a preliminary plan that outlines the basic concept and objectives of an operation, but it still needs further development and details before it can be implemented as an OPLAN.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
(005) How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning?
- A.
Through the Global Decision Support System (GDSS) 2 mission remarks.
- B.
They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans.
- C.
Headquarters Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC) prepares a report that is distributed to logistics planners for deployment execution.
- D.
Logistics planners attend an annual joint strategic planning meeting after long-range airlift requirements are submitted to HQ AMC.
Correct Answer
B. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans.Explanation
Base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning by extracting them from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into United States Air Force plans. This means that the requirements are taken from the JSPS and incorporated into the plans of the Air Force. This ensures that the logistics requirements are included and considered in the overall planning process for contingencies.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
(005) What is the Air Force’s war planning system that is used to interface with the Joint Operations Planning Execution System (JOPES) Automated Data Processing (ADP)?
- A.
Geographic Location File (GEOFILE).
- B.
Time-phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD).
- C.
Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS).
- D.
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
Correct Answer
D. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES). -
- 24.
(005) The relationship between a plan identification number (PID) within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) and an Operational Plan (OPLAN) or a Concept Plan (CONPLAN) is that a PID corresponds directly to either
- A.
Unit type code and contains all of the OPLANs and CONPLANs associated with the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).
- B.
Cargo category code contained within the type unit characteristics (TUCHA) file and contains detailed OPLAN and CONPLAN data.
- C.
An OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces.
- D.
National Air Mobility System (NAMS) and contains all of the data used to aggregate cargo category codes with the OPLAN or CONPLAN.
Correct Answer
C. An OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces.Explanation
A plan identification number (PID) within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) corresponds directly to an Operational Plan (OPLAN) or a Concept Plan (CONPLAN) and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces. This means that the PID is specifically linked to the details and logistics of how the forces will be deployed and operated according to the OPLAN or CONPLAN.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
(006) If you are assigned to the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), you are responsible for
- A.
Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
- B.
Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
- C.
Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
- D.
Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
Correct Answer
D. Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.Explanation
If you are assigned to the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), your responsibility is to inspect equipment and cargo with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
(006) If you are assigned to the Passenger Deployment Function (PDF), you are responsible for
- A.
Controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
- B.
Manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
- C.
Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
- D.
Inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
Correct Answer
C. Monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.Explanation
If you are assigned to the Passenger Deployment Function (PDF), your responsibility is to monitor and report delays in passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System. This means you are in charge of keeping track of any delays that occur during the processing of passengers and cargo and reporting them using the Logistics Module System.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
(006) If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type of training should you receive?
- A.
Initial.
- B.
Refresher.
- C.
Weak area.
- D.
New procedure.
Correct Answer
A. Initial.Explanation
If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, you should receive initial training. Initial training is necessary to provide you with the basic knowledge and skills required for the new role. It helps you understand the fundamentals and familiarize yourself with the tasks and responsibilities involved in the deployment function. This training will enable you to start off on the right foot and build a strong foundation in the new role.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
(007) Of the following, which is not a purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
- A.
Provide data critical to crisis planning.
- B.
Provide for contingency or peacetime planning processes.
- C.
Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data.
- D.
Used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces for war.
Correct Answer
C. Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data.Explanation
The purpose of the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is to provide data critical to crisis planning, provide for contingency or peacetime planning processes, and to be used by Air Force leadership to assess their effectiveness in organizing, training, and equipping forces for war. The answer "Ensure timeliness, accuracy, and validity of Air and Space Expeditionary reporting tool data" is not a purpose of SORTS.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
(007) If you are accomplishing Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting for your unit, you must submit the report every
- A.
30 days or before every Air and Space Expeditionary (AEF) tempo band rotation.
- B.
30 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall category level (C-level).
- C.
90 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall C-level.
- D.
90 days or before every AEF tempo band rotation.
Correct Answer
B. 30 days or when changes affect your unit’s overall category level (C-level).Explanation
The correct answer is 30 days or when changes affect your unit's overall category level (C-level). This means that if there are any changes that impact the unit's overall category level, the SORTS report must be submitted within 30 days. Additionally, the report must also be submitted before every Air and Space Expeditionary (AEF) tempo band rotation. This ensures that the unit's status of resources and training system is accurately reported and up to date.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
(007) Which Air Force (AF) form (or approved facsimile) will you use to accomplish your unit’s Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement report?
- A.
AF Form 632.
- B.
AF Form 623.
- C.
AF Form 732.
- D.
AF Form 723.
Correct Answer
D. AF Form 723. -
- 31.
(007) If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, what category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
- A.
C–1.
- B.
C–2.
- C.
C–3.
- D.
C–4.
Correct Answer
B. C–2.Explanation
If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, it will be reported as C–2 during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting. This means that the unit is fully capable of performing its mission, but there may be some minor deficiencies in resources or training that do not significantly impact its overall effectiveness.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
(007) If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, what category level (C-level) will you report it as during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
- A.
C–1.
- B.
C–2.
- C.
C–3.
- D.
C–4.
Correct Answer
C. C–3.Explanation
If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, it will be reported as C–3 during SORTS reporting. This means that the unit has the necessary resources and training to perform some of its designated wartime missions, but not all of them.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
(007) If you are assigned as your unit’s Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status that is essential to
- A.
Keep your unit deployment manager (UDM) informed.
- B.
Assign valid unit line numbers to the proper taskings.
- C.
Smooth AEF execution.
- D.
Ensure a solid C-level.
Correct Answer
C. Smooth AEF execution.Explanation
As the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, your role is to report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status. This information is crucial in ensuring smooth AEF execution. By providing this information, you enable the unit deployment manager (UDM) to stay informed and make informed decisions regarding task assignments and deployment. This helps to streamline the execution of AEF operations and ensures that all necessary resources and personnel are properly allocated.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
(007) If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit’s ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to
- A.
Request a waiver to the AEF tempo band cycle until the MAJCOM can provide resource support.
- B.
Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.
- C.
Remove your unit from the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo band cycle until the deficiencies are corrected.
- D.
Reclaim your MAJCOMs decision to task your unit for upcoming tempo band cycles until you can obtain the resources you need to correct the deficiencies.
Correct Answer
B. Request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.Explanation
If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit's ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement. This means that if your unit lacks the necessary resources or is unable to meet the required capabilities, you should reach out to the MAJCOM FAM for assistance or propose changes to the DOC statement to address the deficiencies.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
(008) What are the relationships between the expeditionary site survey process (ESSP) and the ingarrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?
- A.
ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.
- B.
IGESP/ESP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the ESSP.
- C.
ESSP, the prime focus of part 2 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies limiting factors and shortages.
- D.
ESSP, the prime focus of part 3 of the IGESP/ESP, identifies overages and shortfalls.
Correct Answer
A. ESSP gives planning committees a standard method for collecting, storing, and accessing site data used to make decisions about the IGESP/ESP.Explanation
The ESSP provides a standardized approach for gathering, storing, and retrieving site data, which is crucial for making decisions regarding the IGESP/ESP. This implies that the ESSP plays a vital role in supporting the planning committees by providing them with the necessary information to develop and implement the IGESP/ESP effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
(008) Which of the following is not one of the three specific objectives within part 2 of the ingarrison expeditionary site plan (IGESP) and expeditionary site plan (ESP)?
- A.
Assesses the ability to support the operation.
- B.
Allocates resources previously identified in part 1.
- C.
Identifies limiting factors (LIMFAC), shortfalls, and overages.
- D.
Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators.
Correct Answer
D. Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators.Explanation
The correct answer is "Appoints required changes with second-party functional area coordinators." This answer is not one of the three specific objectives within part 2 of the IGESP and ESP. The three specific objectives are assessing the ability to support the operation, allocating resources previously identified in part 1, and identifying limiting factors, shortfalls, and overages. The answer choice of appointing required changes with second-party functional area coordinators is not mentioned as one of the objectives in part 2.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
(008) When reviewing deployment procedures outlined in the installation deployment plan (IDP), what crucial element in each step of the process must you and the installation deployment officer always consider?
- A.
Operational risk management (ORM).
- B.
Infrastructure.
- C.
Flexibility.
- D.
Clarity.
Correct Answer
A. Operational risk management (ORM).Explanation
When reviewing deployment procedures outlined in the installation deployment plan (IDP), it is crucial to always consider operational risk management (ORM). This means assessing and mitigating any potential risks that could impact the successful implementation of the deployment plan. By considering ORM in each step of the process, you can identify and address any potential issues or challenges that may arise, ensuring a smooth and effective deployment.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
(009) What is the primary purpose of support agreements?
- A.
Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.
- B.
Ensure the support process runs efficiently with all units prepared to deploy.
- C.
Develop local support guidance explaining how all units will deploy from the installation.
- D.
Define local processes, procedures, and resources that will be used when deploying forces.
Correct Answer
A. Identify the specific support functions one party will perform for another.Explanation
The primary purpose of support agreements is to identify the specific support functions that one party will perform for another. This means that support agreements are meant to outline and clarify the responsibilities and tasks that each party will undertake in order to provide support to the other. This helps to ensure clear communication and understanding between the parties involved, and allows for a more efficient and effective support process. It also helps to establish accountability and ensure that all parties are aware of their roles and responsibilities in the support agreement.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
(009) If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, which type of support agreement is required?
- A.
Intragovernmental.
- B.
Intergovernmental.
- C.
Intraservice.
- D.
Interservice.
Correct Answer
C. Intraservice.Explanation
When assigned to an Air Force unit that is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, the type of support agreement required is an Intraservice agreement. This means that the agreement is made between different units within the same service, in this case, the Air Force. It allows for the provision of support and resources between these units to ensure effective operations and cooperation within the service.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
(009) If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to an Army unit, which type of support agreement is required?
- A.
Intragovernmental.
- B.
Intergovernmental.
- C.
Intraservice.
- D.
Interservice.
Correct Answer
D. Interservice.Explanation
When an Air Force unit is providing a service to an Army unit, the required type of support agreement is an "Interservice" agreement. This type of agreement refers to cooperation and coordination between different branches of the military, such as the Army and the Air Force. It ensures that the two units can work together effectively and efficiently to provide the necessary support and services.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
(009) If you are assigned to an Air Force unit and your unit is providing a service to another Air Force unit on base, on which form would that arrangement need to be documented?
- A.
DD Form 1144.
- B.
AF Form 1144.
- C.
DD Form 4411.
- D.
AF Form 4411.
Correct Answer
A. DD Form 1144. -
- 42.
(009) When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required, resulting in which of the following documents?
- A.
Memorandum of support (MOS) or a memorandum of functional agreement (MOFA).
- B.
Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).
- C.
Installation support plan (ISP) or an MOA.
- D.
ISP or an MOU.
Correct Answer
B. Memorandum of agreement (MOA) or a memorandum of understanding (MOU).Explanation
When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required. This mutual understanding is then documented in either a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) or a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). These documents outline the terms and conditions agreed upon by the parties involved and serve as a reference for the support required.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
(010) If SrA Williams has been identified as an augmentation support member, who will fund her training and required gear to perform her augmentation duties?
- A.
The installation will fund these requirements.
- B.
The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee.
- C.
The unit to which SrA Williams is normally assigned.
- D.
SrA Williams must provide her own gear to be an augmentee.
Correct Answer
B. The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee.Explanation
The correct answer is "The unit using SrA Williams as an augmentee." This means that the unit to which SrA Williams is being assigned will be responsible for funding her training and providing her with the required gear to perform her augmentation duties.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
010) A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because
- A.
Of the legal, regulatory, and bargaining stipulations that are too difficult to work around.
- B.
If they work more than eight hours a day, they must be compensated with time off or overtime pay.
- C.
Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.
- D.
Augmentation support must be explicitly documented in the individual’s contract before performing augmentation duties.
Correct Answer
C. Of being subject to deploy in support of an operations plan, taking priority over local augmentation requirements.Explanation
A member who is assigned to a unit type code (UTC) is normally not assigned augmentation duties because they may be required to deploy in support of an operations plan, which takes priority over local augmentation requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
(011) Which product is the primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission?
- A.
Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
- B.
Work Center Rotation Schedule (WCRS).
- C.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
- D.
AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report RCS: AMC-A43 (M&Q) 7107.
Correct Answer
A. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).Explanation
The primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission is the Unit Manpower Document (UMD). This document outlines the authorized positions within a unit and provides information on the personnel assigned to each position. It helps ensure that the unit has the necessary manpower to carry out its mission effectively. The Work Center Rotation Schedule (WCRS) is a schedule that outlines the rotation of personnel within work centers, the Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) is a roster of unit personnel, and AMC Form 82 is a monthly report on station traffic handling. However, none of these documents specifically reflect the authorized positions for accomplishing the mission.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
(011) A “1” under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the Unit Manpower Document (UMD) indicates the
- A.
Number of positions that exist for the specified organizational structure code (OSC).
- B.
Number of positions that exist for the specified grade.
- C.
Specified position is unfunded for that quarter.
- D.
Specified position is funded for that quarter.
Correct Answer
D. Specified position is funded for that quarter.Explanation
A "1" under the Fiscal Year and Quarter column on the Unit Manpower Document (UMD) indicates that the specified position is funded for that quarter. This means that the necessary resources and budget have been allocated to support the position during that specific time period.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
(012) When performing a joint inspection (JI), you annotate the “start time” block on DD Form 2133, Joint Airlift Inspection Record, by entering the
- A.
Greenwich Meantime the JI is scheduled to start.
- B.
Greenwich Meantime the JI actually started.
- C.
Local time the JI is scheduled to start.
- D.
Local time the JI actually started.
Correct Answer
D. Local time the JI actually started.Explanation
The correct answer is "local time the JI actually started." This is because the "start time" block on DD Form 2133 is used to record the actual start time of the joint inspection (JI) in local time, not the scheduled start time or Greenwich Meantime. This information is important for documenting the exact time the JI began.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
(012) When performing a joint inspection (JI), how will you annotate the DD Form 2133 if an item on the list is satisfactory?
- A.
An “X.”
- B.
Circle it.
- C.
A check mark.
- D.
Leave it blank.
Correct Answer
C. A check mark.Explanation
When performing a joint inspection (JI), if an item on the list is satisfactory, it will be annotated with a check mark.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
(012) During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark a nitrogen kit as acceptable for airlift, you must ensure that
- A.
You verify the material inside the cart is, in fact, nitrogen.
- B.
Vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time.
- C.
You release the valves on the left side of the cart so the nitrogen does not expand in flight.
- D.
Valve stems on the pressure panel are serviceable and caps are present and properly installed.
Correct Answer
B. Vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time.Explanation
The correct answer is to ensure that vent kit materials accompany the cargo and technicians are available at load time. This is because during a joint inspection, it is important to verify that all necessary equipment and personnel are present before marking a nitrogen kit as acceptable for airlift. The other options mentioned in the question are not directly related to the requirement of vent kit materials and technicians being available.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
012) During a joint inspection (JI), before you can mark an internal slingable unit (ISU) as acceptable for airlift, you must ensure the cargo within it is secured and restrained
- A.
To prevent movement and damage during flight.
- B.
With three 2 x 4 wooden beams spanning the width of the ISU.
- C.
To allow room for hazardous materials to expand and reduce during flight.
- D.
With ¼-inch nylon rope to secure all hazardous materials to the doors to prevent opening.
Correct Answer
A. To prevent movement and damage during flight.Explanation
The correct answer is "to prevent movement and damage during flight." This is because ensuring that the cargo within the internal slingable unit (ISU) is secured and restrained is necessary to prevent any movement or damage during the airlift. The other options provided in the question do not address the main concern of securing and restraining the cargo for safe transportation.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Nov 18, 2012Quiz Created by
Tz9zmj
- 1W0510 Quizzes
- 2A552 Quizzes
- 2A651 Quizzes
- 2A654 Quizzes
- 2A671 Quizzes
- 2A672 Quizzes
- 2A6X1 Quizzes
- 2A753 Quizzes
- 2S051 Quizzes
- 2s071 Quizzes
- 3d052 Quizzes
- 3d054 Quizzes
- 3D151 Quizzes
- 3D152 Quizzes
- 3d1x3 Quizzes
- 3DX7X Quizzes
- 3e451 Quizzes
- 3e6x1 Quizzes
- 4a051 Quizzes
- 5j0x1 Quizzes
- Z3D153 Quizzes
- Z3dx7x Quizzes
- Z3p051 Quizzes
Back to top