3D156 Vol 2 : Airfield Systems Trivia Questions! Quiz

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 238

Questions: 97 | Attempts: 238 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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3D156 Vol 2 : Airfield Systems Trivia Questions! Quiz - Quiz

Questions and Answers

1.

The localizer equipment shelter is generally painted what colors?
- A.
  
  International orange and white
- B.
  
  Olive drab and black
- C.
  
  Brown and tan
- D.
  
  Red and white
Correct Answer
A. International orange and white

Explanation
The localizer equipment shelter is generally painted in international orange and white colors. This color combination is commonly used for visibility and safety purposes. International orange is a highly visible color that stands out in various environments, making it easier to locate the shelter. White is often used as a contrasting color to enhance visibility and provide a clear distinction. This color scheme helps ensure that the localizer equipment shelter can be easily identified and accessed, especially in emergency situations or low-light conditions.

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2.

Approximately how many feet is the localizer equipment shelter offset from the center of the localizer array?
- A.
  
  100
- B.
  
  200
- C.
  
  350
- D.
  
  500
Correct Answer
B. 200

Explanation
The localizer equipment shelter is offset from the center of the localizer array by approximately 200 feet.

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3.

How can the localizer station be controlled?
- A.
  
  Local only
- B.
  
  Remote only
- C.
  
  Locally from the site or remotely from the control tower or radar approach control (RAPCON)
- D.
  
  Remotely from the site or locally from the control tower of RAPCON
Correct Answer
C. Locally from the site or remotely from the control tower or radar approach control (RAPCON)

Explanation
The localizer station can be controlled either locally from the site or remotely from the control tower or radar approach control (RAPCON). This means that the station can be operated and managed by personnel on-site, as well as by operators located in the control tower or RAPCON. This flexibility allows for efficient control and coordination of the localizer station, ensuring safe and accurate navigation for aircraft.

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4.

How many channels do the radios in the localizer equipment station have?
- A.
  
  One
- B.
  
  Two
- C.
  
  Three
- D.
  
  Four
Correct Answer
A. One

Explanation
The radios in the localizer equipment station have only one channel.

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5.

In megahertz (MHz), the frequency range of the transmitters in the localizer equipment station is
- A.
  
  108 to 112
- B.
  
  324 to 336
- C.
  
  962 to 1,213
- D.
  
  2,250 to 2,259
Correct Answer
A. 108 to 112

Explanation
The correct answer is 108 to 112 MHz. This frequency range is used in the transmitters of the localizer equipment station. The localizer is a component of the instrument landing system (ILS) used in aviation to guide aircraft during the approach and landing phases. The frequency range of 108 to 112 MHz is specifically allocated for the localizer function, ensuring accurate and reliable navigation for aircraft.

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6.

What is the nominal carrier plus sideband (CSB) watt (W) output power of the course transmitter in the localizer?
- A.
  
  10
- B.
  
  15
- C.
  
  20
- D.
  
  25
Correct Answer
B. 15

Explanation
The nominal carrier plus sideband (CSB) watt output power of the course transmitter in the localizer is 15.

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7.

What is the nominal carrier plus sideband (CSB) watt (W) output power of the clearance transmitter in the localizer?
- A.
  
  10
- B.
  
  15
- C.
  
  20
- D.
  
  25
Correct Answer
A. 10

Explanation
The nominal carrier plus sideband (CSB) watt output power of the clearance transmitter in the localizer is 10 watts.

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8.

In the localizer, what frequency, in kilohertz (kHz), is the course (CRS) carrier transmitted?
- A.
  
  Station assigned frequency (SAF) + 4.00
- B.
  
  SAF +4.75
- C.
  
  SAF -4.00
- D.
  
  SAF -4.75
Correct Answer
B. SAF +4.75

Explanation
The course (CRS) carrier is transmitted at a frequency that is 4.75 kilohertz (kHz) higher than the station assigned frequency (SAF).

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9.

In the localizer, what frequency, in kilohertz (kHz), is the clearance (CLR) carrier transmitted?
- A.
  
  Station assigned frequency (SAF) + 4.75
- B.
  
  SAF+4.00
- C.
  
  SAF -4.75
- D.
  
  SAF -4.00
Correct Answer
C. SAF -4.75

Explanation
The clearance (CLR) carrier is transmitted at a frequency that is 4.75 kilohertz (kHz) lower than the station assigned frequency (SAF).

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10.

The hertz (Hz) frequency of the coded tone to provide the station identification (ID) is
- A.
  
  770
- B.
  
  1,020
- C.
  
  1,410
- D.
  
  2,250
Correct Answer
B. 1,020

Explanation
The hertz (Hz) frequency of the coded tone to provide the station identification (ID) is 1,020. This means that the tone used for station identification is produced at a frequency of 1,020 hertz.

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11.

Which parameter is not checked by the localizer course monitors?
- A.
  
  Course width
- B.
  
  Frequency difference
- C.
  
  Radio frequency (RF) level
- D.
  
  Identification (ID) percent modulation
Correct Answer
B. Frequency difference

Explanation
The localizer course monitors check various parameters to ensure the accuracy of the localizer signal. These parameters include course width, radio frequency (RF) level, and identification (ID) percent modulation. However, the parameter that is not checked by the localizer course monitors is the frequency difference.

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12.

How many monitors must detect a fault to cause an equipment transfer in the localizer?
- A.
  
  One
- B.
  
  Two
- C.
  
  Three
- D.
  
  Four
Correct Answer
B. Two

Explanation
In the localizer system, a fault is detected when two monitors detect the fault simultaneously. This redundancy ensures that false alarms are minimized and that a fault is confirmed before triggering an equipment transfer. Therefore, two monitors must detect a fault to cause an equipment transfer in the localizer.

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13.

What controls the localizer clearance (CLR) transmitters?
- A.
  
  Control unit
- B.
  
  Changeover unit
- C.
  
  Clearance monitors
- D.
  
  Course transmitters
Correct Answer
D. Course transmitters

Explanation
The localizer clearance (CLR) transmitters are controlled by the course transmitters. Course transmitters are responsible for transmitting the correct course information to the CLR transmitters, which then transmit the signals to aircraft to guide them along the correct approach path. The course transmitters ensure that the CLR transmitters are accurately aligned with the runway's centerline, allowing for precise navigation during approach and landing.

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14.

In watts (W) and milliwatts (mW) respectively, what is the nominal localizer course transmitter carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO) power?
- A.
  
  15,360
- B.
  
  10,300
- C.
  
  5,190
- D.
  
  3,190
Correct Answer
A. 15,360
15.

Which unit of the localizer course transmitter provides a means of suppressing the carrier in the sideband only (SBO)?
- A.
  
  Exciter
- B.
  
  Modulator assembly
- C.
  
  Identification keyer
- D.
  
  Diode-switching network
Correct Answer
D. Diode-switching network

Explanation
The diode-switching network is the unit of the localizer course transmitter that provides a means of suppressing the carrier in the sideband only (SBO). This means that it allows the transmitter to transmit the sideband signals without the carrier signal, which can help in reducing interference and improving the quality of the transmitted signal. The exciter, modulator assembly, and identification keyer are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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16.

What is the nominal clearance sideband only (SBO) milliwatt (mW) power in the localizer?
- A.
  
  180
- B.
  
  300
- C.
  
  360
- D.
  
  450
Correct Answer
B. 300

Explanation
The nominal clearance sideband only (SBO) milliwatt (mW) power in the localizer is 300.

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17.

From where does the 90/150 hertz (Hz) control assembly in the clearance transmitter receive its 90- and 150-Hz signals?
- A.
  
  Changeover unit
- B.
  
  Local control unit
- C.
  
  Course transmitter
- D.
  
  Clearance monitor
Correct Answer
C. Course transmitter

Explanation
The 90/150 Hz control assembly in the clearance transmitter receives its 90- and 150-Hz signals from the course transmitter.

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18.

The left antennas at the localizer are fed sideband only (SBO) signals that is at what degrees out of phase compared to the SBO fed to the right antenna?
- A.
  
  0
- B.
  
  90
- C.
  
  180
- D.
  
  270
Correct Answer
C. 180

Explanation
The left antennas at the localizer are fed sideband only (SBO) signals that are 180 degrees out of phase compared to the SBO fed to the right antenna.

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19.

Localizer clearance carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO)signals are fed to which antennas?
- A.
  
  Pairs 1-5
- B.
  
  Pairs 3-6
- C.
  
  Inner four pairs
- D.
  
  All antennas
Correct Answer
A. Pairs 1-5

Explanation
The localizer clearance carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO) signals are fed to pairs 1-5 antennas.

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20.

When might a single frequency localizer be installed?
- A.
  
  When the localizer is installed on a category I airfield.
- B.
  
  When the localizer is installed on a category III airfield.
- C.
  
  When a dual-frequency localizer would cause interference.
- D.
  
  When the forward terrain is free of major obstructions and terrain problems.
Correct Answer
D. When the forward terrain is free of major obstructions and terrain problems.

Explanation
A single frequency localizer might be installed when the forward terrain is free of major obstructions and terrain problems. This is because a single frequency localizer relies on a clear line of sight between the aircraft and the ground-based transmitter. If there are major obstructions or terrain problems, it could interfere with the signal and affect the accuracy of the localizer. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the forward terrain is clear before installing a single frequency localizer.

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21.

In a single-frequency localizer using 8 antennas, what is the sideband only (SBO) and carrier-plus sideband (CSB) phase relationship between the two antennas of each pair?
- A.
  
  SBO is in phase; CSB is in phase
- B.
  
  SBO is in phase; CSB is 180° of phase
- C.
  
  SBO is 180° out of phase; CSB is in phase
- D.
  
  SBO is 180° out of phase; CSB is 180° out of phase.
Correct Answer
C. SBO is 180° out of pHase; CSB is in pHase

Explanation
The correct answer states that the sideband only (SBO) is 180° out of phase, while the carrier-plus sideband (CSB) is in phase. This means that the two antennas of each pair are producing signals that are exactly opposite in phase for the sideband only, while they are producing signals that are in phase for the carrier-plus sideband. This phase relationship allows for the separation and detection of the sideband and carrier signals in the localizer system.

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22.

What will most likely happen if an antenna cable is broken or shorted, it will cause
- A.
  
  An abnormal indication
- B.
  
  A transmitter changeover
- C.
  
  A cable fault alarm
- D.
  
  Station shutdown
Correct Answer
B. A transmitter changeover

Explanation
If an antenna cable is broken or shorted, it will most likely cause a transmitter changeover. This means that the system will automatically switch to a backup transmitter in order to maintain the transmission of signals. This is done to ensure uninterrupted communication and prevent any disruption in the transmission process.

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23.

Which parameter is not checked by the localizer course monitors?
- A.
  
  Frequency separation
- B.
  
  Radio frequency (RF) level
- C.
  
  Identification (ID) percent modulation
- D.
  
  Width difference in depth of modulation (DDM)
Correct Answer
A. Frequency separation

Explanation
The localizer course monitors check various parameters to ensure the accuracy of the localizer signal. However, frequency separation is not one of the parameters that they monitor. The frequency separation refers to the difference in frequency between the localizer and the glide slope signals, which is typically 4.25 MHz. This parameter is crucial for maintaining the correct alignment and guidance of the aircraft during approach and landing.

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24.

What is the kilohertz (kHz) frequency of the clock pulse generated by the timing assembly in a localizer course monitor?
- A.
  
  460.8
- B.
  
  500.8
- C.
  
  512.4
- D.
  
  602.5
Correct Answer
A. 460.8

Explanation
The correct answer is 460.8. This suggests that the kilohertz frequency of the clock pulse generated by the timing assembly in a localizer course monitor is 460.8 kHz.

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25.

Which monitor assembly displays the measured parameters?
- A.
  
  Signal processor
- B.
  
  Digital readout
- C.
  
  Measurement
- D.
  
  Timing
Correct Answer
B. Digital readout

Explanation
The digital readout is the monitor assembly that displays the measured parameters. It is a device that shows the numerical values of the measurements in a digital format, making it easier for users to read and interpret the data. The signal processor, measurement, and timing are not directly responsible for displaying the measured parameters.

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26.

In kilohertz (kHz), what is the frequency difference between the localizer course (CRS) and the clearance (CLR) radio frequency (RF) signals?
- A.
  
  Stationed assigned frequency (SAF) + 4.75
- B.
  
  SAF -4.75
- C.
  
  4.75
- D.
  
  9.5
Correct Answer
D. 9.5

Explanation
The frequency difference between the localizer course (CRS) and the clearance (CLR) radio frequency (RF) signals is 9.5 kHz.

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27.

Which reference is not a monitored parameter in the null-reference glide slope?
- A.
  
  Path difference in depth of modulation (DDM)
- B.
  
  Path radio frequency (RF) level
- C.
  
  Ident percent of modulation
- D.
  
  Width difference in DDM
Correct Answer
C. Ident percent of modulation

Explanation
The null-reference glide slope is a system used in aviation to guide aircraft during landing. It monitors certain parameters to ensure accuracy. In this case, the question asks for the reference that is not monitored. The correct answer is "ident percent of modulation". This parameter is not monitored in the null-reference glide slope system.

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28.

The glide slope carrier frequency is modulated with what percent of the depth of modulation per tone?
- A.
  
  20
- B.
  
  40
- C.
  
  70
- D.
  
  95
Correct Answer
B. 40

Explanation
The correct answer is 40. In a glide slope system, the carrier frequency is modulated to provide guidance to aircraft during approach and landing. The depth of modulation per tone refers to the amount by which the carrier frequency is varied. A depth of modulation of 40 percent means that the carrier frequency is modulated by 40 percent of its original frequency. This modulation allows for precise and accurate guidance to the aircraft, ensuring a safe landing.

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29.

Which hertz (Hz) signal is not an output status tone of the control unit?
- A.
  
  705
- B.
  
  1,410
- C.
  
  2,350
- D.
  
  2,820
Correct Answer
C. 2,350

Explanation
The given question asks for a hertz (Hz) signal that is not an output status tone of the control unit. The options provided are 705, 1,410, 2,350, and 2,820. Since the question asks for a signal that is not an output status tone, we can assume that the other three options are output status tones. Therefore, the correct answer is 2,350.

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30.

In the null-reference glide slope, what signal or signals are applied to the lower antenna?
- A.
  
  Carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and clearance (CLR).
- B.
  
  Clearance (CLR) and sideband only (SBO).
- C.
  
  Carrier-plus sideband (CSB) only.
- D.
  
  Sideband only (SBO) only.
Correct Answer
C. Carrier-plus sideband (CSB) only.

Explanation
The correct answer is Carrier-plus sideband (CSB) only. The null-reference glide slope system uses a single antenna and applies only the carrier-plus sideband signal to it. This signal is used to create a null or zero reference point, which helps the aircraft maintain the correct glide slope during approach and landing. The clearance and sideband-only signals are not applied to the lower antenna in the null-reference glide slope system.

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31.

In the null-reference glide slope, what signal or signals are applied to the upper antenna?
- A.
  
  Carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and clearance (CLR).
- B.
  
  Clearance (CLR) and sideband only (SBO).
- C.
  
  Carrier-plus sideband (CSB) only.
- D.
  
  Sideband only (SBO) only.
Correct Answer
D. Sideband only (SBO) only.
32.

In the glide slope, what happens if the main transmitter is on and both monitors detect a radiated fault?
- A.
  
  Main transmitter is turned off and standby transmitter is turned on.
- B.
  
  Main transmitter and standby transmitter are turned off.
- C.
  
  Main transmitter is turned off and back on.
- D.
  
  Main transmitter is turned off only.
Correct Answer
A. Main transmitter is turned off and standby transmitter is turned on.

Explanation
If both monitors detect a radiated fault, it means that there is a problem with the main transmitter. In order to ensure the accuracy and safety of the glide slope, the main transmitter needs to be turned off. At the same time, the standby transmitter is turned on to take over the transmission of the glide slope signal. This ensures that the glide slope remains functional and reliable even in the event of a fault with the main transmitter.

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33.

What is the null-reference glide slope’s nominal power, in watts and milliwatts respectively, for the carrier-plus-sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO)?
- A.
  
  .33, .45
- B.
  
  3.3, 4.5
- C.
  
  3.3, .45
- D.
  
  3, 45
Correct Answer
D. 3, 45
34.

The diode switching network (4A9) in the glide slope differs from the 4A9 in the localizer, when considering their length of line, because the glide slope is
- A.
  
  Shorter than the localizer
- B.
  
  Two times that of the localizer
- C.
  
  Three times that of the localizer
- D.
  
  Four times that of the localizer
Correct Answer
C. Three times that of the localizer

Explanation
The diode switching network (4A9) in the glide slope is three times longer than the 4A9 in the localizer.

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35.

When the aircraft is on the glide path, the airborne indicator shows what deflection?
- A.
  
  Nominal 5 microamps
- B.
  
  Nominal 1 microamp
- C.
  
  Minimum
- D.
  
  None
Correct Answer
D. None

Explanation
The question is asking about the deflection shown on the airborne indicator when the aircraft is on the glide path. The correct answer is "none" because when the aircraft is on the glide path, there should be no deflection shown on the airborne indicator. This indicates that the aircraft is properly aligned with the glide path and is descending at the correct rate.

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36.

The glide slope monitors use exactly the same cards as the localizer course monitor except for the
- A.
  
  Width clearance assembly
- B.
  
  Clearance difference assembly
- C.
  
  Near-field radiated pattern signal processor
- D.
  
  Near-field path signal processor and clearance assembly
Correct Answer
D. Near-field path signal processor and clearance assembly

Explanation
The glide slope monitors and the localizer course monitor use the same cards, except for the near-field path signal processor and clearance assembly. This suggests that the near-field path signal processor and clearance assembly is unique to the glide slope monitors and is not used in the localizer course monitor.

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37.

The very high frequency Omni-directional and radio range (VOR) Power Supply 1A7 is an AC to DC converter that supplies what operating direct current (DC) voltage?
- A.
  
  30
- B.
  
  35
- C.
  
  40.5
- D.
  
  45.5
Correct Answer
C. 40.5

Explanation
The VOR Power Supply 1A7 is an AC to DC converter that supplies an operating direct current (DC) voltage of 40.5 volts.

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38.

Which unit will absorb the transmitter output power if the antenna has an open or short circuit?
- A.
  
  The 4-port circulator
- B.
  
  The directional coupler
- C.
  
  A low power radio (RF) termination load
- D.
  
  A high power RF termination load
Correct Answer
D. A high power RF termination load

Explanation
A high power RF termination load will absorb the transmitter output power if the antenna has an open or short circuit. This is because a termination load is designed to match the impedance of the transmission line and absorb any excess power that is not transmitted through the antenna. In the case of an open or short circuit, the antenna is not able to properly radiate the power, so it is necessary to redirect that power to a termination load to prevent reflections and potential damage to the transmitter.

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39.

From initial fault detection, how long do the tactical air navigation (TACAN) monitors require to shut down the transmitter?
- A.
  
  7 seconds
- B.
  
  14 seconds
- C.
  
  7 microseconds
- D.
  
  14 microseconds
Correct Answer
B. 14 seconds

Explanation
The correct answer is 14 seconds. This suggests that the tactical air navigation (TACAN) monitors take 14 seconds to shut down the transmitter after detecting a fault.

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40.

In case of a primary power loss, how many hours will the very high-frequency omnidirectional and radio range (VOR) battery assembly provide backup power?
- A.
  
  Two
- B.
  
  Four
- C.
  
  Six
- D.
  
  Eight
Correct Answer
A. Two

Explanation
The VOR battery assembly provides backup power for two hours in case of a primary power loss.

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41.

When utilizing either of the personal computers (PC), which of the following operations can the operator perform?
- A.
  
  Turn the transmitter on or off
- B.
  
  Turn on the control indicator
- C.
  
  Power-up the system
- D.
  
  Bypass monitors
Correct Answer
D. Bypass monitors

Explanation
The operator can bypass monitors when utilizing a personal computer.

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42.

How many main windows is the personal computer (PC) display divided into?
- A.
  
  One
- B.
  
  Two
- C.
  
  Three
- D.
  
  Four
Correct Answer
B. Two

Explanation
A personal computer (PC) display is typically divided into two main windows. This allows users to multitask and have multiple applications or documents open simultaneously. Having two main windows helps improve productivity and efficiency by allowing users to easily switch between different tasks or programs without having to close or minimize windows.

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43.

The personal computer (PC) displays data from how many monitors?
- A.
  
  One
- B.
  
  Two
- C.
  
  Three
- D.
  
  Four
Correct Answer
B. Two

Explanation
A personal computer (PC) can display data from two monitors. This means that it has the capability to connect and use two separate monitors simultaneously. This can be useful for multitasking or for expanding the screen real estate for better productivity. With two monitors, users can have multiple windows or applications open at the same time, allowing for easier organization and access to information.

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44.

What is connected to the local personal computer (PC) to interface it with the remote PC?
- A.
  
  Modem
- B.
  
  Optical interface
- C.
  
  Control indicator
- D.
  
  Radio frequency monitor
Correct Answer
A. Modem

Explanation
A modem is connected to the local personal computer (PC) to interface it with the remote PC. A modem is a device that converts digital signals from the computer into analog signals that can be transmitted over telephone lines or other communication channels. It allows the computer to connect to the internet or communicate with other remote computers. Modems are commonly used for dial-up internet connections or for connecting to remote networks.

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45.

Which of the following adjustments are air traffic control (ATC) personnel allowed to make to the control indicator?
- A.
  
  Operating power
- B.
  
  Transmitter frequency
- C.
  
  Volume control of the audio
- D.
  
  Transponder identification (ID) ON/OFF control
Correct Answer
C. Volume control of the audio

Explanation
Air traffic control (ATC) personnel are allowed to make adjustments to the volume control of the audio on the control indicator. This allows them to adjust the volume of the audio communication between the ATC personnel and the pilots. By having control over the audio volume, ATC personnel can ensure clear and effective communication with pilots, especially in noisy or busy environments. This adjustment helps maintain a safe and efficient air traffic control system.

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46.

The output of the transmit section of the coder and decoder (CODEC) is controlled by the
- A.
  
  ON/OFF switch
- B.
  
  START/STOP switch
- C.
  
  Analog/digital (A/D) converter
- D.
  
  Digital/analog (D/A) converter
Correct Answer
B. START/STOP switch

Explanation
The output of the transmit section of the CODEC is controlled by the START/STOP switch. This switch determines when the transmission should start and stop. It allows the user to initiate and terminate the transmission of data through the CODEC. The other options, such as the ON/OFF switch, A/D converter, and D/A converter, are not directly involved in controlling the output of the transmit section.

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47.

The visual status lamps on the control indicator show the
- A.
  
  Actual status of the remote site.
- B.
  
  Actual status of the control indicator.
- C.
  
  Position of the START/STOP switch on the digital computer.
- D.
  
  Position of the START/STOP switch on the control indicator.
Correct Answer
A. Actual status of the remote site.

Explanation
The visual status lamps on the control indicator are designed to display the actual status of the remote site. This means that the lamps will indicate whether the remote site is in operation, functioning properly, or experiencing any issues. The purpose of these lamps is to provide real-time information about the remote site's status, allowing operators to quickly assess and respond to any problems that may arise.

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48.

The very high frequency Omni-directional and radio range (VOR) watt output power range of the carrier signal is
- A.
  
  5 to 10
- B.
  
  10 to 25
- C.
  
  25 to 100
- D.
  
  50 to 150
Correct Answer
C. 25 to 100

Explanation
The VOR watt output power range of the carrier signal is 25 to 100. This means that the watt output power of the VOR signal can range from 25 watts to 100 watts.

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49.

The very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) monitor alarm limits are set to cause an alarm if continuous identification (ID) is present for how many seconds?
- A.
  
  4
- B.
  
  6
- C.
  
  30
- D.
  
  90
Correct Answer
B. 6

Explanation
The correct answer is 6. The VOR monitor alarm limits are set to cause an alarm if continuous identification (ID) is present for 6 seconds. This means that if the VOR signal is continuously being identified for 6 seconds, an alarm will be triggered. This is likely done to ensure that pilots are receiving accurate and reliable navigation information from the VOR system.

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50.

What is the operating megahertz (MHz) frequency range of the very high frequency omni- directional and radio range (VOR) antenna?
- A.
  
  100 to 120
- B.
  
  108 to 118
- C.
  
  110 to 116
- D.
  
  112 to 114
Correct Answer
B. 108 to 118

Explanation
The operating megahertz (MHz) frequency range of the very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) antenna is 108 to 118. This range allows the VOR antenna to receive and transmit signals within this frequency range, which is commonly used for aviation navigation purposes.

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3D156 Vol 2 : Airfield Systems Trivia Questions! Quiz

The localizer equipment shelter is generally painted what colors?

Approximately how many feet is the localizer equipment shelter offset from the center of the localizer array?

How can the localizer station be controlled?

How many channels do the radios in the localizer equipment station have?

In megahertz (MHz), the frequency range of the transmitters in the localizer equipment station is

What is the nominal carrier plus sideband (CSB) watt (W) output power of the course transmitter in the localizer?

What is the nominal carrier plus sideband (CSB) watt (W) output power of the clearance transmitter in the localizer?

In the localizer, what frequency, in kilohertz (kHz), is the course (CRS) carrier transmitted?

In the localizer, what frequency, in kilohertz (kHz), is the clearance (CLR) carrier transmitted?

The hertz (Hz) frequency of the coded tone to provide the station identification (ID) is

Which parameter is not checked by the localizer course monitors?

How many monitors must detect a fault to cause an equipment transfer in the localizer?

What controls the localizer clearance (CLR) transmitters?

In watts (W) and milliwatts (mW) respectively, what is the nominal localizer course transmitter carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO) power?

Which unit of the localizer course transmitter provides a means of suppressing the carrier in the sideband only (SBO)?

What is the nominal clearance sideband only (SBO) milliwatt (mW) power in the localizer?

From where does the 90/150 hertz (Hz) control assembly in the clearance transmitter receive its 90- and 150-Hz signals?

The left antennas at the localizer are fed sideband only (SBO) signals that is at what degrees out of phase compared to the SBO fed to the right antenna?

Localizer clearance carrier-plus sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO)signals are fed to which antennas?

When might a single frequency localizer be installed?

In a single-frequency localizer using 8 antennas, what is the sideband only (SBO) and carrier-plus sideband (CSB) phase relationship between the two antennas of each pair?

What will most likely happen if an antenna cable is broken or shorted, it will cause

Which parameter is not checked by the localizer course monitors?

What is the kilohertz (kHz) frequency of the clock pulse generated by the timing assembly in a localizer course monitor?

Which monitor assembly displays the measured parameters?

In kilohertz (kHz), what is the frequency difference between the localizer course (CRS) and the clearance (CLR) radio frequency (RF) signals?

Which reference is not a monitored parameter in the null-reference glide slope?

The glide slope carrier frequency is modulated with what percent of the depth of modulation per tone?

Which hertz (Hz) signal is not an output status tone of the control unit?

In the null-reference glide slope, what signal or signals are applied to the lower antenna?

In the null-reference glide slope, what signal or signals are applied to the upper antenna?

In the glide slope, what happens if the main transmitter is on and both monitors detect a radiated fault?

What is the null-reference glide slope’s nominal power, in watts and milliwatts respectively, for the carrier-plus-sideband (CSB) and sideband only (SBO)?

The diode switching network (4A9) in the glide slope differs from the 4A9 in the localizer, when considering their length of line, because the glide slope is

When the aircraft is on the glide path, the airborne indicator shows what deflection?

The glide slope monitors use exactly the same cards as the localizer course monitor except for the

The very high frequency Omni-directional and radio range (VOR) Power Supply 1A7 is an AC to DC converter that supplies what operating direct current (DC) voltage?

Which unit will absorb the transmitter output power if the antenna has an open or short circuit?

From initial fault detection, how long do the tactical air navigation (TACAN) monitors require to shut down the transmitter?

In case of a primary power loss, how many hours will the very high-frequency omnidirectional and radio range (VOR) battery assembly provide backup power?

When utilizing either of the personal computers (PC), which of the following operations can the operator perform?

How many main windows is the personal computer (PC) display divided into?

The personal computer (PC) displays data from how many monitors?

What is connected to the local personal computer (PC) to interface it with the remote PC?

Which of the following adjustments are air traffic control (ATC) personnel allowed to make to the control indicator?

The output of the transmit section of the coder and decoder (CODEC) is controlled by the

The visual status lamps on the control indicator show the

The very high frequency Omni-directional and radio range (VOR) watt output power range of the carrier signal is

The very high frequency omni-directional and radio range (VOR) monitor alarm limits are set to cause an alarm if continuous identification (ID) is present for how many seconds?

What is the operating megahertz (MHz) frequency range of the very high frequency omni- directional and radio range (VOR) antenna?