CPCT/A Patient Care Exam: Quiz!

1.

When working with older adults, which of the subsequent options is not a special consideration phlebotomist should consider?

A.

Provide a protective environment.
B.

Mobility issues.
C.

Thin fragile veins.
D.

Visual acuity.

Correct Answer
A. Provide a protective environment.

Explanation
When working with older adults, phlebotomists need to consider special considerations due to the physiological changes that occur with aging. Mobility issues can affect the ability of older adults to move and position themselves, making it important for phlebotomists to provide assistance and ensure their safety during the procedure. Thin fragile veins are common in older adults, so phlebotomists need to be skilled in locating and accessing these veins without causing injury. Visual acuity may be reduced in older adults, so phlebotomists should ensure proper lighting and use magnification if necessary. However, providing a protective environment is not specifically related to the unique needs of older adults during phlebotomy procedures.

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2.

When working with newborn babes, which of the subsequent options is not a special consideration?

A.

Ensure warmth.
B.

Use protective restraints where necessary
C.

Provide a protective environment.
D.

Accurately monitor the total volume of withdrawn blood.

Correct Answer
B. Use protective restraints where necessary

Explanation
When working with newborn babies, it is important to ensure warmth because they are more sensitive to temperature changes. Providing a protective environment is also necessary to keep them safe from any harm. Accurately monitoring the total volume of withdrawn blood is crucial to prevent any complications. However, using protective restraints where necessary is not a special consideration when working with newborn babes as it may restrict their movement and hinder their development.

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3.

Which of the following options right states the difference between fainting and hypovolemic shock?

A.

Fainting is a medical emergency.
B.

Hypovolemic shock is a medical emergency.
C.

Fainting may be caused by an emotional reaction or pain.
D.

B and C

Correct Answer
D. B and C

Explanation
The correct answer is B and C. Fainting and hypovolemic shock are both medical emergencies, but they have different causes. Fainting can be caused by an emotional reaction or pain, while hypovolemic shock is caused by a significant loss of blood volume.

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4.

Which of the following options can be considered symptoms of latex allergy?

A.

Shortness of breath.
B.

Runny nose, watery eyes
C.

Skin redness, hives.
D.

All of the above.

Correct Answer
D. All of the above.

Explanation
All of the given options can be considered symptoms of latex allergy. Shortness of breath is a common symptom, as latex particles can become airborne and cause respiratory issues. Runny nose and watery eyes are also common symptoms, as they indicate an allergic reaction to latex. Skin redness and hives are typical signs of an allergic reaction, and they can occur when the skin comes into contact with latex. Therefore, all of these symptoms can be indicative of a latex allergy.

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5.

Which of the following is the appropriate and right time for labeling a patient specimen?

A.

Immediately after collection
B.

Before the blood is drawn
C.

After all blood has been collected for the day
D.

None of the above

Correct Answer
A. Immediately after collection

Explanation
The appropriate and right time for labeling a patient specimen is immediately after collection. This ensures that the specimen is accurately labeled and reduces the risk of misidentification or mix-ups. Labeling the specimen before the blood is drawn or after all blood has been collected for the day may lead to errors and confusion. Therefore, it is crucial to label the specimen immediately after collection to maintain accuracy and patient safety.

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6.

Which of the subsequent options rightly refers to chain of custody?

A.

The process an arrested person follows when in jail.
B.

The order of laboratory supervisors, similar to chain of command.
C.

The process for maintaining control of a specimen, from the actual collection to final disposition, used under special circumstances such as work place, sports, or law enforcement testing.
D.

The process for maintaining control of a specimen, from the notional collection to final disposition, used under special circumstances such as work place, sports, or law enforcement testing.

Correct Answer
C. The process for maintaining control of a specimen, from the actual collection to final disposition, used under special circumstances such as work place, sports, or law enforcement testing.

Explanation
The correct answer refers to the process of maintaining control of a specimen, from the actual collection to final disposition, used in special circumstances such as workplace, sports, or law enforcement testing. This process ensures that the specimen is properly handled, stored, and transported to maintain its integrity and prevent tampering or contamination. It is an important aspect of maintaining the reliability and validity of test results.

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7.

Which of the following is NOT considered requirements for a quality specimen?

A.

Non-hemolyzed specimen.
B.

Right patient, right specimen, right tube, right test, right label.
C.

Specimen transported to lab within two hours of collection.
D.

Non-clotted specimen (when anticoagulant additive is used)

Correct Answer
C. Specimen transported to lab within two hours of collection.

Explanation
The correct answer is "Specimen transported to lab within two hours of collection." This is because the question asks for the requirement that is NOT considered for a quality specimen. While it is important to transport the specimen to the lab within two hours of collection to ensure accurate results, it is not specifically mentioned as a requirement for a quality specimen. The other options, such as non-hemolyzed specimen, right patient/specimen/tube/test/label, and non-clotted specimen when an anticoagulant additive is used, are all considered requirements for a quality specimen.

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8.

Which of the subsequent statements is NOT FALSE about implementing an advanced directive?

A.

The relatives will be given the legal right to decide for the client's condition.
B.

Advance directives mean do not resuscitate orders (DNRs).
C.

The directive is applicable to a client who can understand and make choices.
D.

The physician has evaluated the wishes as expressed in the document to determine what the client may want or not want.

Correct Answer
D. The pHysician has evaluated the wishes as expressed in the document to determine what the client may want or not want.

Explanation
The statement "The physician has evaluated the wishes as expressed in the document to determine what the client may want or not want" is NOT FALSE about implementing an advanced directive. This means that the physician has reviewed the client's expressed wishes in the document to understand their preferences for medical treatment.

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9.

Which of the following rightly states the purpose of an incident report?

A.

Admit wrong doing in writing.
B.

Report an incident.
C.

To get your story in before the patient does.
D.

Tell on a co-worker anonymously.

Correct Answer
B. Report an incident.

Explanation
The purpose of an incident report is to document and report an incident that has occurred. It serves as a formal record of the event, providing details about what happened, when it occurred, and any relevant information. It is not about admitting wrongdoing, getting ahead of the patient, or anonymously reporting on a co-worker. The main focus is to accurately report the incident for documentation and further action if necessary.

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10.

Which of the following is the correct authority to provide a background check information on the newly hired patient care technician, if the agency wishes to do so?

A.

The patient care technician Registry
B.

The National Council for State Boards of Nursing
C.

Previous employer
D.

The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987

Correct Answer
A. The patient care technician Registry

Explanation
The patient care technician Registry is the correct authority to provide a background check information on the newly hired patient care technician. The registry maintains records and information on patient care technicians, including their qualifications, certifications, and any disciplinary actions. Therefore, they would have the most accurate and up-to-date information regarding the technician's background and suitability for the role.

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CPCT/A Patient care Exam: Quiz!

When working with older adults, which of the subsequent options is not a special consideration phlebotomist should consider?

When working with newborn babes, which of the subsequent options is not a special consideration?

Which of the following options right states the difference between fainting and hypovolemic shock?

Which of the following options can be considered symptoms of latex allergy?

Which of the following is the appropriate and right time for labeling a patient specimen?

Which of the subsequent options rightly refers to chain of custody?

Which of the following is NOT considered requirements for a quality specimen?

Which of the subsequent statements is NOT FALSE about implementing an advanced directive?

Which of the following rightly states the purpose of an incident report?

Which of the following is the correct authority to provide a background check information on the newly hired patient care technician, if the agency wishes to do so?