3DX7X Volume 2. Expeditionary Communications, Plans And Project Management
CDC Z3DX7X TEST 70 Questions
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which deployment planning process develops predetermined response to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepare deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?
- A.
Deliberate Planning
- B.
Crisis Action Planning
- C.
Mobilization Planning
- D.
Force Rotational Planning
Correct Answer
A. Deliberate PlanningExplanation
Deliberate Planning is the correct answer because it involves developing predetermined responses to potential crises, determining the forces required to achieve objectives, preparing deployment plans, and continually evaluating selected courses of action. This process is typically used for long-term planning and is characterized by thorough analysis and consideration of various factors before making decisions.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?
- A.
Volume 1
- B.
Volume 2
- C.
Volume 3
- D.
Volume 4
Correct Answer
A. Volume 1Explanation
Volume 1 is the correct answer because it provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war. The other volumes may provide information on different aspects of war and mobilization planning, but Volume 1 specifically focuses on general policies and guidance.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?
- A.
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center
- B.
Installation Deployment Officer (IDO)
- C.
Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM)
- D.
Joint Staff
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) CenterExplanation
The AFPC Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process. This center is responsible for managing and coordinating the deployment of Air Force personnel and resources. They ensure that the necessary requirements for a deployment are identified and sourced, including personnel, equipment, and supplies. By initiating the process, the AFPC AEF Center ensures that all necessary steps are taken to prepare for a deployment and that the appropriate resources are allocated.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission?
- A.
Standard Unit Type Code (UTC)
- B.
Joint force/capability
- C.
In-lieu-of (ILO)
- D.
Ad hoc
Correct Answer
B. Joint force/capabilityExplanation
The correct answer is "Joint force/capability." This type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking involves one service providing a force or capability to fulfill the core mission of another service. It allows for the seamless integration and cooperation between different services within a joint force, ensuring that the mission is effectively carried out even if one service is unable to provide their own capabilities.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
- A.
Training
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Facility Condition
- D.
Equipment Condition
Correct Answer
C. Facility ConditionExplanation
The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) measures and reports on various areas related to military operations. These areas include training, personnel, and equipment condition. However, facility condition is not measured and reported by SORTS. SORTS primarily focuses on assessing the readiness and availability of personnel and equipment for military operations.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)
- A.
Training
- B.
Personnel
- C.
Home Station Mission
- D.
Equipment Condition
Correct Answer
C. Home Station MissionExplanation
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) measures the readiness categories of Training, Personnel, and Equipment Condition. The readiness category of Home Station Mission is not measured by ART.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI?
- A.
10-201
- B.
10-244
- C.
10-401
- D.
10-403
Correct Answer
B. 10-244Explanation
The correct answer is 10-244 because it is the Air Force Instruction (AFI) that provides the governing guidance for the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting. AFI 10-244 specifically outlines the procedures and requirements for reporting in the ART system, ensuring that accurate and timely information is provided for force management and operational planning purposes.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which Document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?
- A.
AFI 10-201
- B.
AFI 10-244
- C.
AFI 10-401
- D.
AFI 10-403
Correct Answer
A. AFI 10-201Explanation
AFI 10-201 provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who develops Logistics Details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for Unit Type Codes (UTC)?
- A.
Pilot Units
- B.
Joint Planners
- C.
Logistics Readiness Squadron
- D.
Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDETS
Correct Answer
A. Pilot UnitsExplanation
Pilot Units develop Logistics Details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for Unit Type Codes (UTC). This means that the responsibility of creating and maintaining LOGDETS lies with the pilot units, who are tasked with ensuring that the necessary logistics support is in place for a specified period of time. It is their role to plan and coordinate the logistical requirements to sustain the UTCs effectively.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?
- A.
Force Protection
- B.
Airfield Operations
- C.
Force Accountability
- D.
Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)
Correct Answer
D. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)Explanation
The question is asking for the capability that is not initially available in the open the airbase force module. The open the airbase force module is likely a system or a group of personnel responsible for managing and securing an airbase. Force Protection, Airfield Operations, and Force Accountability are all essential initial capabilities of the module, as they involve ensuring the safety and security of the airbase and its personnel. On the other hand, Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD) is not typically an initial capability of the module, as it specifically deals with the detection and disposal of explosive devices, which may require specialized training and equipment.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are?
- A.
Force Protection and Logistics
- B.
Intelligence and Force Protection
- C.
Secure Communications and Intelligence
- D.
Secure Communications and Force Accountability
Correct Answer
C. Secure Communications and IntelligenceExplanation
The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are secure communications and intelligence. Secure communications ensure that information is transmitted and received without unauthorized access or interference, allowing for effective coordination and decision-making. Intelligence refers to the collection, analysis, and dissemination of information about the operational environment, enabling commanders to understand the situation and make informed decisions. These capabilities are crucial for establishing control and ensuring effective command and control of military operations.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?
- A.
Robust the Airbase
- B.
Operate the Airbase
- C.
Establish the Airbase
- D.
Generate the Mission
Correct Answer
C. Establish the AirbaseExplanation
The force module that facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support is "Establish the Airbase". This force module focuses on setting up the necessary infrastructure, logistics, and support systems to establish an operational airbase. It involves tasks such as constructing runways, setting up communication networks, establishing supply chains, and coordinating with command and control elements. By successfully establishing the airbase, it becomes possible to generate air support and carry out the assigned mission effectively.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?
- A.
2 days, 7 days
- B.
2 days, 14 days
- C.
7 days, 14 days
- D.
14 days, 30 days
Correct Answer
B. 2 days, 14 daysExplanation
The airbase force module is expected to arrive within 2 days after opening the airbase. The estimated completion of the delivery is 14 days.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?
- A.
Generate the MIssion
- B.
Establish the Airbase
- C.
Operate the Airbase
- D.
Robust the Airbase
Correct Answer
D. Robust the AirbaseExplanation
The force module that contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established is "Robust the Airbase." This suggests that the process of robusting the airbase involves bringing in additional support forces after the initial establishment of the deployed location. These support forces are not immediately available but are expected to arrive within 30 days to further strengthen and enhance the operations of the airbase.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at?
- A.
Scott AFB, IL
- B.
Travis AFB, CA
- C.
Peterson AFB, CO
- D.
Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ
Correct Answer
D. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJExplanation
The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?
- A.
O-4
- B.
O-5
- C.
O-6
- D.
O-7
Correct Answer
C. O-6Explanation
The typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander is O-6. This indicates that the commander holds the rank of Colonel in the United States military. The O-6 pay grade is typically associated with senior officers who have significant experience and responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a cafe environment?
- A.
Command and Control
- B.
Operate the Airbase
- C.
Robust the Airbase
- D.
Open the Airbase
Correct Answer
A. Command and ControlExplanation
The correct answer is Command and Control. Command and Control force module is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to 150 users in a cafe environment. This force module is responsible for coordinating and directing military operations, ensuring effective communication and decision-making among different units and personnel. It plays a crucial role in managing and controlling the overall operations of the theater in a timely and efficient manner.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?
- A.
2 kilometers (km)
- B.
4 km
- C.
8 km
- D.
16 km
Correct Answer
D. 16 kmExplanation
The maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D) is 16 km.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?
- A.
Strategy
- B.
Combat Plans
- C.
Combat Support
- D.
Combat Operations
Correct Answer
C. Combat SupportExplanation
The division that is not a part of the Air and Space Operations Center is Combat Support. The Air and Space Operations Center is responsible for coordinating and executing combat operations, combat plans, and strategy. Combat Support, on the other hand, focuses on providing logistical and administrative support to the combat forces.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?
- A.
MQ-9 Reaper
- B.
RQ-11B Raven
- C.
MQ-1B Predator
- D.
RQ-4B Global Hawk
Correct Answer
B. RQ-11B RavenExplanation
The RQ-11B Raven is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS) because it is a lightweight and portable drone that is commonly used for surveillance and reconnaissance missions. It is designed to be launched by hand and can provide real-time video and imagery to the operator. The other options mentioned, such as the MQ-9 Reaper, MQ-1B Predator, and RQ-4B Global Hawk, are larger and more advanced unmanned aerial systems that are typically used for long-range missions and have greater capabilities than the RQ-11B Raven.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?
- A.
3D0X3, Cyber Surety
- B.
3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems
- C.
3D1X3, RF Transmissions Systems
- D.
3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems
Correct Answer
A. 3D0X3, Cyber SuretyExplanation
The career field 3D0X3, Cyber Surety, is not assigned to engineering installation units. The other three career fields, 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems, 3D1X3, RF Transmissions Systems, and 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems, are all associated with engineering installation units.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis?
- A.
38 Engineering Squadron (ES)
- B.
38 Contracting Squadron (CONS)
- C.
38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS)
- D.
85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)
Correct Answer
D. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS)Explanation
The correct answer is 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS). This unit is the only one that has a flight assigned to support a 72-hour rapid response force during a crisis. They provide specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis.Rate this question:
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- 23.
All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the Armed Forces Network (AFN) in?
- A.
1942
- B.
1954
- C.
1988
- D.
1998
Correct Answer
D. 1998 -
- 24.
What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tool, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?
- A.
MPTO 00-33A-1001
- B.
MPTO 00-33A-1002
- C.
MPTO 00-33A-2001
- D.
MPTO 00-33A-2002
Correct Answer
A. MPTO 00-33A-1001 -
- 25.
The five phases of Project Management are initiate,
- A.
Funding, execute, close, and control
- B.
Plan, execute, monitor, and control
- C.
Plan, execute, close, and control
- D.
Plan, control, close, and support
Correct Answer
C. Plan, execute, close, and controlExplanation
The correct answer is "plan, execute, close, and control." This sequence represents the typical flow of project management activities. First, the project is planned, including setting goals, defining tasks, and allocating resources. Then, the project is executed, with the team carrying out the planned activities. After completion, the project is closed, ensuring that all deliverables are met and any outstanding issues are resolved. Finally, the project is controlled, which involves monitoring progress, making adjustments as needed, and ensuring that the project meets its objectives.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?
- A.
Funding
- B.
Technical Solution
- C.
Requirements management plan
- D.
Answers, guidance, and education
Correct Answer
D. Answers, guidance, and educationExplanation
In the Initiate Phase, the project manager provides answers, guidance, and education to the project team. This is crucial as it helps to clarify any doubts or questions that team members may have regarding the project. The project manager also provides guidance on the overall direction and goals of the project, ensuring that everyone is on the same page. Additionally, the project manager educates the team on the project's objectives, scope, and any specific requirements that need to be met. This helps to ensure that the project starts off on the right track and that everyone is well-informed and prepared.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?
- A.
Processes
- B.
Priorities
- C.
Requirements
- D.
Technical Solutions
Correct Answer
C. RequirementsExplanation
Source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability are called requirements. Requirements outline the specific functionalities, features, and criteria that the cyberspace infrastructure capability needs to meet in order to fulfill its intended purpose. These documents serve as a guide for designing, developing, and implementing the necessary components and processes required to achieve the desired capability.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?
- A.
Cost management plan
- B.
Allied support plan
- C.
Technical plan
- D.
Material plan
Correct Answer
A. Cost management planExplanation
The cost management plan is a component of the project plan. It outlines how project costs will be estimated, budgeted, and controlled throughout the project's lifecycle. This plan includes details on cost estimation techniques, cost baseline, cost control measures, and reporting procedures. It ensures that the project stays within budget and helps in managing financial resources effectively.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as?
- A.
The status
- B.
A milestone
- C.
A deliverable
- D.
The final result
Correct Answer
C. A deliverableExplanation
A deliverable is the desired outcome, product, or service that is expected to be produced or provided as a result of a project. It is something tangible or measurable that can be delivered to the stakeholders. It represents the end result or goal that the project aims to achieve.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?
- A.
Status request
- B.
Defect repairs
- C.
Preventative action
- D.
Corrective action
Correct Answer
B. Defect repairsExplanation
Defect repairs are a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project that does not meet the requirement specifications. This refers to fixing any flaws or issues in the project that deviate from the desired outcome. It involves identifying and rectifying defects or errors in order to align the project with the specified requirements.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?
- A.
AFTO Form 745
- B.
AFTO Form 747
- C.
AFTO Form 749
- D.
AF Form 1747
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 747Explanation
AFTO Form 747 is the correct answer because it is the document that marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system. This form is used by the United States Air Force to certify that the system has been installed correctly and is fully operational. It serves as a record of completion and provides confirmation that all necessary steps have been taken to ensure the success of the project.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed?
- A.
Major
- B.
Minor
- C.
Major and Minor
- D.
Major and Critical
Correct Answer
A. MajorExplanation
Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed "Major." This suggests that there are certain significant issues or problems that can arise in a system, causing it to deviate from the expected operational requirements. These exceptions are of higher importance and may have a significant impact on the system's overall functionality and performance.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regarding of the phase?
- A.
Follow-up
- B.
Controlling
- C.
Organization
- D.
Documenting
Correct Answer
A. Follow-upExplanation
Follow-up is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase. It involves monitoring the project's progress, identifying any issues or deviations from the plan, and taking appropriate actions to address them. By regularly following up on the project's status, milestones, and deliverables, project managers can ensure that the project stays on track and make necessary adjustments to meet the objectives. This helps in maintaining control over the project and ensuring its successful completion.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Changes are requested during a project using an
- A.
AF Form 1146
- B.
AF Form 1747
- C.
AFTO Form 46
- D.
AFTO Form 47
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 1146Explanation
The AF Form 1146 is used to request changes during a project. It is a form specifically designed for this purpose within the Air Force. The other forms mentioned, AF Form 1747, AFTO Form 46, and AFTO Form 47, do not serve the same function as the AF Form 1146 and are not used for requesting changes during a project.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Who implements a technical solution for a base?
- A.
Project monitor
- B.
Project manager
- C.
Communications squadron
- D.
Implementing organization
Correct Answer
D. Implementing organizationExplanation
The implementing organization is responsible for implementing a technical solution for a base. This means that they are the ones who are in charge of actually putting the solution into action and making it work. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to carry out the implementation process effectively. The project monitor, project manager, and communications squadron may have their own roles and responsibilities within the project, but it is the implementing organization that takes on the task of implementing the technical solution.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What title is anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?
- A.
Project monitor
- B.
Project manager
- C.
Program action officer
- D.
Program action monitor
Correct Answer
C. Program action officerExplanation
A program action officer is someone who is assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties. They are responsible for coordinating and implementing actions related to the program, ensuring that tasks are completed on time and within budget. They work closely with the program manager to ensure the smooth execution of the program and help in achieving its objectives. The title "program action officer" accurately describes the role and responsibilities of the individual assisting the program manager.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy,
- A.
Service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service involvement
- B.
Service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement
- C.
Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement
- D.
Service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement
Correct Answer
C. Service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvementExplanation
The correct answer is service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. These stages represent the life cycle of ITIL services. Service design involves designing new or changed services to meet the needs of the business and customers. Service transition focuses on transitioning these services into operation, including testing and deployment. Service operation is the stage where the services are delivered and managed on a day-to-day basis. Continual service improvement involves analyzing and improving the services over time to ensure they meet changing business needs.Rate this question:
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- 38.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?
- A.
Service improvement
- B.
Service transition
- C.
Service strategy
- D.
Service design
Correct Answer
C. Service strategyExplanation
In the Service Strategy stage of the ITIL, the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle are determined. This stage focuses on understanding the organization's business objectives and aligning them with IT services. It involves identifying opportunities for improvement, defining service offerings, and creating a strategy to meet customer needs and expectations. This stage sets the direction for the service provider and ensures that all subsequent stages are aligned with the overall business strategy.Rate this question:
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- 39.
In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?
- A.
Service design
- B.
Service strategy
- C.
Service transition
- D.
Service operation
Correct Answer
C. Service transitionExplanation
In the ITIL framework, the stage where the framework is created to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment is the Service Transition stage. This stage focuses on planning, building, and testing the service before it is deployed into the live environment. It involves activities such as change management, release and deployment management, and knowledge management to ensure a smooth transition from design to operation.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
The correct answer is 2 because MAJCOMs (Major Commands) require engineering support for their cyberspace systems integration. This support is provided by the Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier 2, which specializes in integrating and managing cyberspace systems for specific commands or organizations. Tiers 1, 3, and 4 may also provide support, but Tier 2 is specifically designated for MAJCOMs.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning Systems (CIPS)?
- A.
AFI 33-115
- B.
AFI 33-150
- C.
TO 00-33D-3001
- D.
TO 00-33D-3004
Correct Answer
B. AFI 33-150Explanation
AFI 33-150 is the correct answer because it provides the guidance for the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning Systems (CIPS). This document outlines the procedures and requirements for planning, implementing, and managing cyberspace infrastructure within the Air Force. It covers topics such as system architecture, network design, and security measures. By following the guidelines outlined in AFI 33-150, the Air Force can ensure the effective and secure use of CIPS.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?
- A.
Work orders
- B.
Trouble tickets
- C.
Infrastructure requirements
- D.
Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CIPS)
Correct Answer
A. Work ordersExplanation
The functional area of Work Orders in the Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level in less than 30 days. These enhancements are in the form of a maintenance task order, allowing for efficient and timely improvements to be made to the cyberspace infrastructure. This functional area focuses on the execution and coordination of work tasks, ensuring that necessary upgrades and changes are implemented promptly.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources?
- A.
Organic
- B.
Contract
- C.
Inorganic
- D.
Self-Help
Correct Answer
D. Self-HelpExplanation
The local communications squadron implements the funding option of Self-Help using base level support and resources. Self-Help refers to the practice of using internal resources and capabilities to address funding needs and support projects without relying on external sources. This option allows the squadron to utilize their own resources and expertise to fund and carry out necessary communication initiatives within the base.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?
- A.
TO 00-33A-1001
- B.
TO 00-33A-3003
- C.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
- D.
Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)
Correct Answer
B. TO 00-33A-3003Explanation
The correct answer, TO 00-33A-3003, is a reference to a document that contains a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program. This document is likely a technical manual or guide that provides information and guidance on various aspects of the programs, including the responsible commands and offices. It can be used as a resource to find the relevant contacts and offices for specific programs.Rate this question:
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- 45.
As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?
- A.
Base Communications System Officer
- B.
Affected Work Center
- C.
Base Civil Engineer
- D.
Project Managers
Correct Answer
C. Base Civil EngineerExplanation
The Base Civil Engineer is not required to review and validate technical solutions. This is because their role primarily involves overseeing the planning, design, construction, and maintenance of infrastructure projects on a military base, rather than reviewing and validating technical solutions for other areas. The other options, such as the Base Communications System Officer, Affected Work Center, and Project Managers, may be involved in reviewing and validating technical solutions as part of their responsibilities.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?
- A.
Requirements services from outside agencies
- B.
Mobility (deployment) equipment
- C.
Requires additional manpower
- D.
Requires additional funding
Correct Answer
D. Requires additional fundingExplanation
The given options are all potential causes for requirements to be considered special, except for the one that states "Requires additional funding". While the other options suggest factors that could make requirements unique or different from standard ones, the need for additional funding does not necessarily make a requirement special. Many requirements may require additional funding without being considered special.Rate this question:
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- 47.
In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?
- A.
Concept Plan
- B.
Functional Plan
- C.
Supporting Plan
- D.
Operational Plan
Correct Answer
A. Concept PlanExplanation
A concept plan is a type of plan where writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing an assigned mission in the event of a future situation. However, they only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements. This means that the concept plan focuses more on the overall strategy and approach to achieving the mission, rather than the specific logistical details and requirements.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?
- A.
Concept Plan
- B.
Functional Plan
- C.
Supporting Plan
- D.
Operational Plan
Correct Answer
C. Supporting PlanExplanation
A supporting plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans when tasked by the supported combatant commander. This plan is designed to provide assistance and resources to the main contingency plans, ensuring their successful execution. It outlines the specific actions, resources, and support needed to achieve the objectives of the contingency plans. The supporting plan works in conjunction with the main plans, helping to address any gaps or challenges that may arise during the execution of the contingency plans.Rate this question:
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- 49.
If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in?
- A.
Program Plan (PPLAN)
- B.
Program Action Directive (PAD)
- C.
Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph
- D.
Timed Phase Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD)
Correct Answer
C. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragrapHExplanation
In this scenario, if the instructions do not provide enough detail to warrant a separate annex, the information on base functional area support would be placed in the Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. The OPLAN is a comprehensive document that outlines the operational concept, tasks, and responsibilities for a specific operation. Since the information on base functional area support is related to the overall operation, it would be appropriate to include it in the OPLAN major paragraph.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?
- A.
Special Measures
- B.
Administration
- C.
Assumptions
- D.
Logistics
Correct Answer
D. LogisticsExplanation
The area of the Annex K that is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime is Logistics.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 15, 2016Quiz Created by
Edwarj1795
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