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What facility design element determines how well a facility serves the mission requirement and its occupants on a day in and day out basis?
A.
Functionality
B.
Flexibility
C.
Accuracy
D.
Economy
Correct Answer
A. Functionality
Explanation Functionality is the correct answer because it refers to the design element that determines how well a facility serves its mission requirement and occupants on a daily basis. Functionality ensures that the facility is designed and equipped to efficiently and effectively meet the needs of its users, allowing them to carry out their tasks and activities with ease. It encompasses factors such as layout, equipment placement, and operational efficiency, all of which contribute to the overall functionality of the facility.
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2.
When assessing existing conditions at a proposed construction site, what potential hazards should you look for?
A.
Weapons storage area, asbestos, lead-based paint, and contaminated soil.
B.
Asbestos, Weapons storage area, and contaminated soil.
C.
Asbestos, lead-based paint, and Weapons storage area.
D.
Asbestos, lead-based paint, and contaminated soil.
Correct Answer
D. Asbestos, lead-based paint, and contaminated soil.
Explanation When assessing existing conditions at a proposed construction site, it is important to look for potential hazards that may pose risks to the workers or the environment. Asbestos is a hazardous material commonly found in older buildings, and exposure to it can cause serious health issues. Lead-based paint is another potential hazard that can be found in older structures, and it can lead to lead poisoning if ingested or inhaled. Contaminated soil, which may contain harmful chemicals or pollutants, is also a hazard that should be identified and addressed. Therefore, the correct answer is asbestos, lead-based paint, and contaminated soil.
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3.
What should govern all military construction design?
A.
Flexibility
B.
Accuracy
C.
Economy
D.
Function
Correct Answer
D. Function
Explanation Military construction design should be governed by function. This means that the design should prioritize the practicality and effectiveness of the structure for its intended purpose. Functionality ensures that the construction meets the specific requirements and needs of the military, allowing it to perform its tasks efficiently. It takes into account factors such as operational requirements, safety, security, and adaptability to changing circumstances. By prioritizing function, military construction design can ensure that resources are utilized effectively and that the structure serves its purpose effectively.
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4.
What design standards do you need to be aware for all military construction?
A.
Military and government only.
B.
Military, industrial, and government
C.
Military, industrial, and local ordinances.
D.
Metropolitan ordinances, military, and industrial.
Correct Answer
B. Military, industrial, and government
Explanation The correct answer is military, industrial, and government. When it comes to military construction, it is important to be aware of design standards that are specific to the military, as well as those that apply to industrial projects and government regulations. These design standards ensure that military constructions meet the necessary requirements for functionality, safety, and compliance with government regulations. Additionally, industrial standards may be applicable to certain aspects of military construction, such as the use of specific materials or construction techniques.
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5.
Where can you find the military design standards for military construction?
A.
AFMC
B.
AFCESA
C.
US Army Corps of Engineers
D.
United Facilities Guide Specification.
Correct Answer
B. AFCESA
Explanation AFCESA, which stands for Air Force Civil Engineer Center, is the correct answer because it is responsible for providing technical guidance and standards for military construction. They develop and maintain the United Facilities Guide Specifications (UFGS), which are the military design standards used for military construction projects. The UFGS provide detailed requirements and criteria for various construction disciplines such as architecture, civil engineering, electrical engineering, and mechanical engineering. Therefore, AFCESA is the appropriate source to find the military design standards for military construction.
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6.
In the Unified Soils Classification System, what type of soil group does the letter "M" designates?
A.
Silt
B.
Sand
C.
Gravel
D.
Highly organic
Correct Answer
A. Silt
Explanation The letter "M" in the Unified Soils Classification System designates the soil group called Silt.
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7.
At least what percent of the soil must be retained on the No. 200 sieve for it to be classified as coarse grained?
A.
10 percent
B.
20 percent
C.
40 percent
D.
50 percent
Correct Answer
D. 50 percent
Explanation To classify soil as coarse grained, at least 50 percent of the soil must be retained on the No. 200 sieve. This means that the soil particles are larger in size and do not pass through the sieve. If less than 50 percent of the soil is retained, it would be classified as fine grained, indicating smaller particle sizes.
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8.
What size sieve is used to distinguish between gravels and sands?
A.
No. 4
B.
No. 10
C.
No. 40
D.
No. 200
Correct Answer
A. No. 4
Explanation The size sieve used to distinguish between gravels and sands is No. 4. This means that the sieve has a mesh size of 4, which allows particles smaller than 4mm to pass through. Gravels typically have larger particle sizes, while sands have smaller particle sizes. By using a No. 4 sieve, the larger gravels will be retained on top of the sieve, while the smaller sands will pass through. This helps in the classification and separation of different particle sizes in soil or aggregate samples.
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9.
Which of these properties indicate whether or not soil contains clay?
A.
Cohesion
B.
Plasticity
C.
Compaction
D.
Permeability
Correct Answer
B. Plasticity
Explanation Plasticity is the property that indicates whether or not soil contains clay. Clay soils are known for their plasticity, meaning they can be easily molded and shaped when wet. This property is due to the small particle size and unique mineral composition of clay soils. Soils that do not contain clay will not exhibit plasticity and will not be easily molded or shaped. Therefore, the presence or absence of plasticity can be used as an indicator of the clay content in soil.
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10.
When wet soil is air-dried in a laboratory, the moisture is removed by evaporation until
A.
a constant weight is attained
B.
The meniscus in the pore openings restricts the rate of capillary rise
C.
The hygroscopic moisture in the soil is in equilibrium with the moisture vapor in the air.
D.
the capillary fringe in the soil recedes to a point where it is in equilibrium with hygroscopic moisture.
Correct Answer
C. The hygroscopic moisture in the soil is in equilibrium with the moisture vapor in the air.
Explanation When wet soil is air-dried in a laboratory, the moisture is removed by evaporation until the hygroscopic moisture in the soil is in equilibrium with the moisture vapor in the air. This means that the soil has reached a point where it no longer loses moisture through evaporation because the amount of moisture in the soil is balanced with the amount of moisture in the air. At this point, the soil has reached a constant weight, indicating that all excess moisture has been evaporated.
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11.
What is the plasticity index of a soil with a liquid limit of 28 and a plastic limit of 21?
A.
0.75
B.
1.33
C.
7.00
D.
49.0
Correct Answer
C. 7.00
Explanation The plasticity index of a soil is the numerical difference between its liquid limit and plastic limit. In this case, the liquid limit is 28 and the plastic limit is 21. By subtracting the plastic limit from the liquid limit, we get a plasticity index of 7.00.
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12.
What do we call the particle size distribution of a soil aggregate?
A.
Angularity
B.
Durability
C.
Gradation
D.
Granularity
Correct Answer
C. Gradation
Explanation The particle size distribution of a soil aggregate is called gradation. Gradation refers to the arrangement of different particle sizes within the aggregate. It describes the distribution of particles from coarse to fine, and it is an important characteristic that affects the engineering properties of the soil, such as its permeability and stability. By understanding the gradation of a soil aggregate, engineers and geologists can make informed decisions about its suitability for various applications, such as construction or agriculture.
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13.
A soil whose individual grains cover a narrow range of particle sizes is
A.
un-graded
B.
Gap-graded
C.
well-graded
D.
poorly-graded
Correct Answer
D. poorly-graded
Explanation A soil whose individual grains cover a narrow range of particle sizes is considered poorly-graded. This means that the soil lacks a variety of particle sizes, which can negatively affect its overall stability and drainage properties. Poorly-graded soils often have a high percentage of one particular particle size, leading to uneven compaction and limited permeability. These soils can be difficult to work with and may require additional measures, such as adding other materials or improving compaction methods, to achieve desired engineering properties.
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14.
What should be done if a structure is likely to be affected by the ground water table or by capillary action?
A.
Lower the grade line
B.
Raise the ground water table
C.
Keep the site location regardless of cost
D.
Change the site location if there is enough cause
Correct Answer
D. Change the site location if there is enough cause
Explanation If a structure is likely to be affected by the ground water table or by capillary action, the best course of action would be to change the site location if there is enough cause. This means that if there is sufficient evidence or reason to believe that the ground water table or capillary action will negatively impact the structure, it is advisable to find a different location for the structure. This is a proactive approach to avoid potential damage or problems that may arise from the interaction between the structure and the ground water table or capillary action.
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15.
To prevent the flow of water from standing in low places and seeping into the ground,
the minimum longitudinal grade of a ditch should be
A.
0.2 percent
B.
0.5 percent
C.
2 percent
D.
5 percent
Correct Answer
B. 0.5 percent
Explanation To prevent the flow of water from standing in low places and seeping into the ground, a ditch should have a minimum longitudinal grade of 0.5 percent. This means that the ditch should have a slope of 0.5 percent or greater to ensure that water flows away from the low places and does not accumulate. A steeper slope helps to maintain the proper drainage and prevent water from pooling or seeping into the ground, which can cause issues such as erosion or waterlogging.
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16.
The maximum grade of ditch side slopes is determined by
A.
The nature of the soil
B.
The area to be drained
C.
Specification limitations
D.
The equipment available
Correct Answer
A. The nature of the soil
Explanation The maximum grade of ditch side slopes is determined by the nature of the soil. This is because different types of soil have varying levels of stability and erosion resistance. Soils with good stability can have steeper side slopes, while soils with poor stability require gentler slopes to prevent erosion and collapse. Therefore, understanding the nature of the soil is crucial in determining the maximum grade of ditch side slopes.
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17.
Which of these conditions is a function of subsurface drainage?
A.
To lower the water table
B.
To raise the water table
C.
To maintain underground springs
D.
To collect water in pools or layers beneath the surface
Correct Answer
A. To lower the water table
Explanation Subsurface drainage is a technique used to remove excess water from the soil and lower the water table. By installing drainage systems such as pipes or ditches, the water is drained away, preventing waterlogging and allowing better root growth for plants. This helps to improve soil structure, increase oxygen levels, and prevent water-related issues such as flooding or soil erosion. Therefore, lowering the water table is a function of subsurface drainage.
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18.
What is the minimum distance required between the top of the base course
and the natural water table if frost action is to be prevented?
A.
2 feet
B.
3 feet
C.
4 feet
D.
5 feet
Correct Answer
C. 4 feet
Explanation To prevent frost action, a minimum distance of 4 feet is required between the top of the base course and the natural water table. This distance is necessary to ensure that the base course is not affected by freezing and thawing cycles caused by the proximity of the water table. By having a sufficient distance, the base course can remain stable and prevent any damage or heaving caused by frost action.
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19.
Asphalt cement is usually made fluid by
A.
Heating
B.
adding alcohol
C.
Mixing with coal air
D.
Adding ascorbic acid
Correct Answer
A. Heating
Explanation Asphalt cement is usually made fluid by heating. Heating helps to increase the temperature of the asphalt cement, which in turn reduces its viscosity and makes it more fluid. This process is necessary for various applications of asphalt, such as paving roads or creating asphalt shingles. By heating the asphalt cement, it becomes easier to work with and can be applied more efficiently.
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20.
Which of these is not one of the functions of aggregate in a bituminous pavement mix?
A.
Provide a nonskid surface
B.
Provide a binder for the bitumen
C.
Transmit the load to the base course
D.
Take the abrasive action of the traffic
Correct Answer
B. Provide a binder for the bitumen
21.
Which of these can determine an aggregate's affinity for water?
A.
Wash test
B.
Stripping test
C.
Distillation test
D.
Mohs hardness scale
Correct Answer
B. Stripping test
Explanation The stripping test can determine an aggregate's affinity for water. This test involves removing the asphalt binder from the aggregate using a solvent. If the aggregate has a high affinity for water, it will also have a high affinity for the solvent, resulting in a higher amount of asphalt binder being stripped off. Conversely, if the aggregate has a low affinity for water, it will also have a low affinity for the solvent, resulting in a lower amount of asphalt binder being stripped off. Therefore, the stripping test can indicate the aggregate's affinity for water.
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22.
Which variables affect the final mix-design of a bituminous pavement?
A.
Moisture content and aggregate size
B.
Moisture content, intended use, gradation, and angularity
C.
Intended use, binder type, loading, and maximum aggregate size
D.
Plasticity, binder type, maximum aggregate size, and angularity
Correct Answer
C. Intended use, binder type, loading, and maximum aggregate size
Explanation The final mix-design of a bituminous pavement is influenced by several variables. The intended use of the pavement is an important factor as it determines the required strength and durability. The binder type is also crucial as different types of binders have varying properties and performance characteristics. The loading on the pavement, which refers to the amount and type of traffic it will experience, affects the design by determining the thickness and composition of the pavement layers. Additionally, the maximum aggregate size plays a role in the mix-design as it affects the stability and strength of the pavement.
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23.
N/A
A.
N/A
B.
N/A
Correct Answer
A. N/A
24.
Water's main function in concrete mix is to
A.
Make the mix workable and inhibit hydration
B.
make the mix workable and start hydration
C.
Increase weight of mix and inhibit hydration
D.
decrease the amount of mix and start hydration
Correct Answer
B. make the mix workable and start hydration
Explanation Water's main function in a concrete mix is to make the mix workable and start hydration. Water is added to the mix to create a paste that can be easily poured and shaped. It acts as a lubricant, allowing the particles of cement, sand, and aggregate to move and flow together. Additionally, water is essential for the hydration process, where the cement particles react chemically with water to form a solid and durable structure. Without water, the mix would be too dry and difficult to work with, and hydration would not occur properly, resulting in weak and brittle concrete.
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25.
Fine aggregate used in cement paste should have a
A.
Rough shape to promote workability
B.
Round shape to promote workability
C.
Round shape to promote uniformity
D.
Rough shape to promote uniformity
Correct Answer
B. Round shape to promote workability
Explanation Fine aggregate used in cement paste should have a round shape to promote workability. This is because round-shaped particles have less surface area and can easily slide past each other, resulting in a more fluid mixture. This promotes better workability, making it easier to mix, place, and finish the cement paste. On the other hand, rough-shaped particles would create more friction and resistance, making the mixture less workable. Therefore, a round shape is preferred for fine aggregate in cement paste to enhance workability.
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26.
To be suitable for construction, concrete should be
A.
strong, watertight, durable, and workable
B.
economical, strong, watertight, and uniform
C.
durable, watertight, workable, and uniform
D.
Well graded, economical, strong, and watertight
Correct Answer
D. Well graded, economical, strong, and watertight
Explanation Concrete needs to have a well-graded mix of aggregates to ensure that it is strong and durable. This means that the different sizes of aggregates are evenly distributed throughout the mixture, allowing for better compaction and reducing the risk of weak spots. Additionally, concrete should be economical, meaning that it is cost-effective to produce and use. It should also be strong to withstand the loads and stresses it will be subjected to. Furthermore, concrete needs to be watertight to prevent water from seeping through and causing damage. Therefore, the correct answer is "well graded, economical, strong, and watertight."
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27.
Which of these plastic concrete properties is affected as you add more aggregate to a given amount of cement paste?
A.
Non-segregation
B.
workability
C.
Uniformity
D.
Durability
Correct Answer
B. workability
Explanation As more aggregate is added to a given amount of cement paste, the workability of the concrete is affected. Workability refers to the ease with which the concrete can be mixed, placed, and finished. Adding more aggregate can decrease the workability of the concrete, making it more difficult to work with. This is because the aggregate particles can increase the viscosity of the mixture, making it thicker and less fluid. Therefore, the correct answer is workability.
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28.
Which of these factors affects the watertightness of a concrete mix?
A.
Aggregate size
B.
Aggregate gradation
C.
Water to cement ratio
D.
Cement amount in mix
Correct Answer
C. Water to cement ratio
Explanation The water to cement ratio refers to the amount of water relative to the amount of cement in a concrete mix. This ratio is crucial in determining the watertightness of the mix. A higher water to cement ratio can result in a more porous and less dense concrete, making it more susceptible to water penetration. On the other hand, a lower water to cement ratio creates a denser and more impermeable concrete, enhancing its watertightness. Therefore, the water to cement ratio is a key factor that affects the watertightness of a concrete mix.
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29.
The acceptable range for air content in air-entrained concrete is
A.
2 to 5.5 percent
B.
3 to 6.6 percent
C.
4 to 7.5 percent
D.
5 to 8.5 percent
Correct Answer
C. 4 to 7.5 percent
Explanation The acceptable range for air content in air-entrained concrete is 4 to 7.5 percent. This range is determined based on the desired durability and workability of the concrete. Air-entrained concrete is designed to have small, evenly distributed air bubbles throughout the mixture, which helps to improve its resistance to freezing and thawing cycles. A lower air content may result in reduced freeze-thaw resistance, while a higher air content may decrease the strength and workability of the concrete. Therefore, the range of 4 to 7.5 percent is considered acceptable for achieving the desired properties of air-entrained concrete.
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30.
When too much silt and clay are present in a concrete mixture, the concrete surface
A.
Cannot withstand abrasion
B.
May be covered by hair cracks
C.
Has large cracks
D.
Is shiny
Correct Answer
B. May be covered by hair cracks
Explanation When too much silt and clay are present in a concrete mixture, it affects the overall strength and durability of the concrete. This can result in the formation of hairline cracks on the surface of the concrete. These cracks are very thin and may not be immediately visible, but they can weaken the concrete and make it more susceptible to further damage. Therefore, the concrete surface may be covered by hairline cracks when there is an excessive amount of silt and clay in the mixture.
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31.
If you must use sand that has organic impurities, you should
A.
decrease the water to cement ratio
B.
Increase the amount of sand required
C.
Decrease the amount of sand required
D.
Increase the amount of coarse aggregate required
Correct Answer
A. decrease the water to cement ratio
Explanation When using sand that has organic impurities, decreasing the water to cement ratio is recommended. Organic impurities in sand can affect the strength and durability of the concrete. By reducing the water to cement ratio, the mixture becomes less fluid, which helps to compensate for the impurities and maintain the desired strength and workability of the concrete. This adjustment ensures that the organic impurities do not compromise the quality of the final product.
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32.
Which tests determine the soundness of concrete aggregates?
A.
Freeze thaw, hardness, and salt
B.
Hardness, salt, shale, and sodium sulfate
C.
Hardness, salt, and undesirable light weight materials
D.
Freeze-thaw, salt, and undesirable light weight materials
Correct Answer
D. Freeze-thaw, salt, and undesirable light weight materials
Explanation The soundness of concrete aggregates is determined by conducting tests such as freeze-thaw, salt, and undesirable light weight materials. These tests help to assess the ability of the aggregates to withstand freezing and thawing cycles, resist the detrimental effects of salt, and identify any lightweight materials that may negatively impact the quality and performance of the concrete.
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33.
The slump of concrete mix is mainly governed by the
A.
Water to cement ratio
B.
Type of cement used
C.
Size of the aggregate used
D.
Temperature at the time of the test
Correct Answer
C. Size of the aggregate used
Explanation The size of the aggregate used in the concrete mix affects the slump. Smaller aggregate particles tend to have a higher surface area, which increases the water demand and reduces the workability of the mix. On the other hand, larger aggregate particles require more water to coat them, resulting in a higher slump. Therefore, the size of the aggregate used directly influences the slump of the concrete mix.
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34.
The volumetric test of concrete determines its
A.
Durability
B.
consistency
C.
Air content
D.
watertightness
Correct Answer
C. Air content
Explanation The volumetric test of concrete determines its air content. This test is conducted to measure the amount of air voids present in the concrete mixture. The air content is an important factor in determining the durability and consistency of the concrete. It affects the strength, workability, and resistance to freezing and thawing of the concrete. The air content also plays a crucial role in preventing cracking and improving the overall performance of the concrete structure.
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35.
Generally, a concrete beam's flexural strength (modulus of rupture) is approximately what percent of the compressive strength?
A.
10 percent
B.
15 percent
C.
20 percent
D.
25 percent
Correct Answer
B. 15 percent
Explanation The flexural strength, also known as the modulus of rupture, of a concrete beam is typically around 15 percent of its compressive strength. This means that the beam's ability to withstand bending or flexing is only a fraction of its ability to withstand compression. This is because concrete is stronger in compression than in tension, and when a beam is subjected to bending, the bottom fibers are in tension while the top fibers are in compression. Therefore, the flexural strength is lower compared to the compressive strength.
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36.
Discard the results of the flexural strength test if the specimens breaks outside the middle third of the span by more than
A.
3 percent of the span length
B.
5 percent of the span length
C.
7 percent of the span length
D.
10 percent of the span length
Correct Answer
B. 5 percent of the span length
Explanation If a specimen breaks outside the middle third of the span by more than 5 percent of the span length, the results of the flexural strength test should be discarded. This is because a break outside the middle third indicates that the specimen was not properly supported during the test, leading to inaccurate results. By discarding these results, the validity and reliability of the test can be maintained.
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37.
Concrete's compressive strength is mainly affected by the
A.
Amount of sand in the mix
B.
Size of the coarse aggregate
C.
Length and the diameter of the cylinder
D.
Water-cement ratio and hydration that has occurred
Correct Answer
D. Water-cement ratio and hydration that has occurred
Explanation The compressive strength of concrete is mainly affected by the water-cement ratio and the hydration that has occurred. The water-cement ratio refers to the amount of water used in the concrete mix compared to the amount of cement. A higher water-cement ratio can result in weaker concrete, as excess water can lead to increased porosity and decreased strength. Hydration is the chemical reaction that occurs when water and cement combine, forming a strong bond and increasing the strength of the concrete over time. Therefore, the water-cement ratio and hydration are key factors in determining the compressive strength of concrete.
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38.
When testing the compressive strength of concrete, what should you do to the ends of the test cylinders?
A.
Make the ends smooth
B.
Make the ends perpendicular to the side
C.
Make the ends in the same parallel plane
D.
make the sides even with the end
Correct Answer
C. Make the ends in the same parallel plane
Explanation To test the compressive strength of concrete, it is important to make the ends of the test cylinders in the same parallel plane. This ensures that the force applied during testing is evenly distributed across the entire surface of the cylinder. If the ends are not in the same parallel plane, it could result in uneven loading and inaccurate test results. Therefore, making the ends in the same parallel plane is crucial for obtaining reliable and consistent compressive strength measurements.
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39.
Cracks in concrete may be controlled by
A.
Reducing restraint through the use of joints and increasing moisture to the concrete mix
B.
Reducing steel stresses at service load conditions and increasing restraint through the use of joints
C.
Increasing moisture to the concrete mix and providing adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement
D.
Providing adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement and reducing restraint through the use of joints
Correct Answer
D. Providing adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement and reducing restraint through the use of joints
Explanation Cracks in concrete can be controlled by providing adequate temperature and shrinkage reinforcement, which helps to minimize the internal stresses caused by temperature changes and shrinkage during the curing process. Additionally, reducing restraint through the use of joints allows for controlled cracking by providing predetermined locations for the concrete to crack, relieving stress and preventing random cracks from forming.
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40.
Hich type of joint is used to allow placement of separate construction elements at different times?
A.
Control joints
B.
Seismic joints
C.
Expansion joints
D.
Construction joints
Correct Answer
D. Construction joints
Explanation Construction joints are used to allow placement of separate construction elements at different times. These joints are created intentionally to accommodate the expansion, contraction, or movement of the different elements. They are typically formed by leaving a gap between the two elements and then filling it with a suitable material such as concrete or mortar. This allows for flexibility in the construction process and helps to prevent cracking or damage that may occur due to the movement of the elements over time.
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41.
The loads present within a structure are classified as
A.
Uniformly distributed loads and concentrated loads
B.
Uniformly distributed loads and live loads
C.
Concentrated loads and dead loads
D.
Live loads and dead loads
Correct Answer
D. Live loads and dead loads
Explanation The loads present within a structure are classified as live loads and dead loads. Live loads refer to the dynamic or moving loads that can change in magnitude or position, such as people, furniture, vehicles, or equipment. Dead loads, on the other hand, are the static or permanent loads that remain constant and do not change, such as the weight of the structure itself, walls, floors, or fixed equipment. By categorizing loads into live loads and dead loads, engineers can accurately calculate the structural requirements and ensure the safety and stability of the structure.
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42.
Which kind of stress in a structure occurs on the side opposite the load?
A.
Shear
B.
Torsion
C.
Tension
D.
Compression
Correct Answer
C. Tension
Explanation Tension stress occurs on the side opposite the load in a structure. Tension stress is a pulling or stretching force that tends to elongate or lengthen the material. In this case, the load is causing the material to be stretched or pulled apart, creating tension stress on the opposite side.
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43.
Walls, columns, piers, or pilasters resting on footings are used with
A.
Spread foundations
B.
mat foundations
C.
Raft foundations
D.
Pile foundations
Correct Answer
A. Spread foundations
Explanation Walls, columns, piers, or pilasters resting on footings are typically used with spread foundations. Spread foundations are a type of shallow foundation that distribute the load of the structure over a larger area of soil. This type of foundation is commonly used when the soil is strong enough to support the weight of the structure without the need for deeper foundations such as piles. By spreading the load over a larger area, spread foundations help to prevent excessive settlement or uneven settling of the structure.
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44.
In general, footings should be located so that they
A.
rest on compacted organic soil
B.
Are at a minimum of 5 feet below and undisturbed soil
C.
are above the ground water table and above the frost line
D.
Are above the ground water table but below the frost line
Correct Answer
D. Are above the ground water table but below the frost line
Explanation Footings should be located above the ground water table to prevent them from being affected by water saturation, which can weaken the soil and compromise the stability of the structure. However, they should also be located below the frost line to prevent frost heave, which can occur when moisture in the soil freezes and expands, causing the footing to shift. Therefore, the ideal location for footings is above the ground water table but below the frost line.
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45.
A foundation that develops the load bearing capacity through friction with the adjacent soil
A.
uses isolated footings
B.
Uses continuous footings
C.
Is a type of pile foundation
D.
is a type of spread foundation
Correct Answer
C. Is a type of pile foundation
Explanation A pile foundation is a type of foundation that develops the load bearing capacity through friction with the adjacent soil. Unlike spread foundations, which distribute the load over a larger area, pile foundations transfer the load to deeper, more stable layers of soil or rock. Pile foundations are typically used in situations where the soil near the surface is weak or unstable, and they provide a deep and stable support system for structures.
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46.
What type of concrete masonry unit CMU i snot used for Air Force facilities?
A.
Type I, moisture controlled
B.
Type II, moisture controlled
C.
Type I, non-moisture controlled
D.
Type II, non-moisture controlled
Correct Answer
D. Type II, non-moisture controlled
Explanation Air Force facilities require concrete masonry units (CMUs) that are moisture controlled to prevent water damage and maintain structural integrity. Type II, non-moisture controlled CMUs would not be suitable for Air Force facilities as they do not have the necessary moisture control properties. These CMUs may be more susceptible to water infiltration and damage, which could compromise the integrity of the structure. Therefore, Type II, non-moisture controlled CMUs are not used for Air Force facilities.
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47.
When may structural steel for buildings be permanently exposed to weather?
A.
When using hollow steel columns
B.
When using exterior structural steel
C.
When overall efficiency and economy will result
D.
When using non-expansion and non-contraction joints
Correct Answer
C. When overall efficiency and economy will result
Explanation Structural steel for buildings may be permanently exposed to weather when overall efficiency and economy will result. This means that if leaving the steel exposed to weather conditions will lead to cost savings and improved efficiency in terms of construction and maintenance, it is acceptable to do so. This decision may be influenced by factors such as the climate, the type of steel used, and the design considerations of the building.
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48.
Temperature and deflection movements in a structural steel framing systems are controlled by
A.
rigid framing techniques
B.
The spacing between members
C.
Expansion and contraction joints
D.
welding the connections instead of using rivets or bolts
Correct Answer
C. Expansion and contraction joints
Explanation Expansion and contraction joints are used to control temperature and deflection movements in structural steel framing systems. These joints allow for the expansion and contraction of the steel members due to temperature changes, preventing excessive stress and potential damage to the structure. By providing a flexible connection between the members, expansion and contraction joints accommodate the thermal movements and help maintain the stability and integrity of the framing system.
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49.
The dimensional stability of plywood is improved through
A.
additional layers
B.
Cross-lamination
C.
The use of waterproof glue
D.
Additives impregnated into the fibers
Correct Answer
B. Cross-lamination
Explanation Cross-lamination is a method used to improve the dimensional stability of plywood. By alternating the direction of the wood grain in each layer, cross-lamination helps to counteract the natural tendency of wood to expand and contract with changes in moisture content. This technique reduces the overall movement of the plywood, making it less prone to warping, twisting, or shrinking. By enhancing the plywood's stability, cross-lamination ensures that it maintains its shape and size over time, making it a more reliable and durable material for various applications.
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50.
In regard to wood framing, values known as allowable unit stresses consider the
A.
species and grade of wood members
B.
Stress value within the wood members
C.
Necessary dimensions for wood members
D.
Effects of strength reducing characteristics such as knots
Correct Answer
D. Effects of strength reducing characteristics such as knots
Explanation Allowable unit stresses in wood framing take into account the effects of strength reducing characteristics such as knots. Knots are areas where branches have grown out of the main trunk, causing irregularities in the wood grain and reducing its strength. The presence of knots can weaken the wood and affect its load-bearing capacity. Therefore, when determining the allowable unit stresses for wood members in framing, it is important to consider the effects of knots and other strength reducing characteristics.
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