Review Test On Services General! Trivia Questions Quiz

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Review Test On Services General! Trivia Questions Quiz - Quiz

This quiz was created on 01 May 2010 from the following CDC volume:
AFSC 3M051
3M051A 01 0807
EDIT CODE 04
Check the back cover of your volume to ensure that the above information matches yours.
Consider all choices carefully, and select the best answer to each question.
You must score a 90% or above on this exam to take your actual CDCs


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) The purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) is to:

    • A.

      Increase personnel awareness of health, welfare, and recreational opportunities.

    • B.

      Maintain the physical fitness of personnel to avoid injuries and illnesses.

    • C.

      Promote training opportunities that increase personnel morale.

    • D.

      Protect personnel from workplace death, injuries, and illnesses.

    Correct Answer
    D. Protect personnel from workplace death, injuries, and illnesses.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "protect personnel from workplace death, injuries, and illnesses." This is because the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) is to ensure the safety and well-being of personnel by implementing measures to prevent workplace accidents, injuries, and illnesses. AFOSH aims to create a safe working environment and protect personnel from any harm or health risks that may occur in the workplace.

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  • 2. 

    (001) Who ensures all personnel have a safe and healthful work environment where recognized standards are eliminated or controlled at acceptable levels?

    • A.

      Installation commander.

    • B.

      Services commander.

    • C.

      Public health.

    • D.

      Supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for ensuring that all personnel have a safe and healthful work environment. This includes eliminating or controlling recognized standards at acceptable levels. As the highest-ranking authority on the installation, the commander has the authority and responsibility to enforce safety and health regulations and standards to protect the well-being of all personnel.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Who provides safe and healthful workplaces, and conducts periodic self-inspections for hazards or deficiencies?

    • A.

      Commanders, resource management flight chief, and supervisors.

    • B.

      Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors.

    • C.

      Commanders, public health, and supervisors.

    • D.

      Commanders and supervisors.

    Correct Answer
    B. Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors.
    Explanation
    Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors are responsible for providing safe and healthful workplaces and conducting periodic self-inspections for hazards or deficiencies. This means that these individuals have the authority and responsibility to ensure that the workplace is free from potential dangers or deficiencies that could harm the employees. They are expected to regularly assess the workplace, identify any potential hazards, and take appropriate measures to address them. This includes implementing safety protocols, providing necessary training, and enforcing safety regulations to maintain a safe working environment.

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  • 4. 

    (001) In reference to Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) responsibilities, all Air Force personnel must:

    • A.

      Conduct a job safety analysis.

    • B.

      Establish hazard reporting programs.

    • C.

      Maintain safety and fire prevention reports until superseded.

    • D.

      Promptly report safety, fire, and health hazards and deficiencies.

    Correct Answer
    D. Promptly report safety, fire, and health hazards and deficiencies.
    Explanation
    In reference to Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) responsibilities, all Air Force personnel must promptly report safety, fire, and health hazards and deficiencies. This is important to ensure a safe working environment and prevent accidents or injuries. By reporting hazards and deficiencies promptly, necessary actions can be taken to address and mitigate these risks. This promotes a culture of safety and helps in maintaining a safe and healthy workplace for all Air Force personnel.

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  • 5. 

    (002) Any supervisor can attend Supervisor Safety Training (SST) if:

    • A.

      There is a need to check up on the training of newly assigned personnel.

    • B.

      Safety conditions have not improved from the previous year.

    • C.

      Initial training was completed over five years.

    • D.

      There is a need for refresher training.

    Correct Answer
    D. There is a need for refresher training.
    Explanation
    Supervisors can attend Supervisor Safety Training (SST) if there is a need for refresher training. This suggests that the purpose of SST is to refresh and update the knowledge and skills of supervisors in regards to safety. Attending the training allows supervisors to stay current with safety protocols and practices. The other options - checking up on newly assigned personnel, safety conditions not improving, and completing initial training over five years - do not specifically address the need for refresher training.

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  • 6. 

    (002) What form is used to document safety training, and who maintains it?

    • A.

      Air Force (AF) Form 79; activity manager.

    • B.

      AF Form 55; supervisor.

    • C.

      Department of Defense (DD) Form 79; activity manager.

    • D.

      DD Form 55; supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 55; supervisor.
    Explanation
    AF Form 55 is used to document safety training in the Air Force, and it is maintained by the supervisor. This form is specifically designed to track and record safety training activities, ensuring that all personnel receive the necessary training to maintain a safe work environment. The supervisor is responsible for maintaining this form, updating it with the relevant training information, and ensuring that all required training is completed by their subordinates.

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  • 7. 

    (002) Detecting unsafe or unhealthful working conditions at the earliest possible time and abating hazards at the lowest possible working level are essential elements of what program?

    • A.

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH).

    • B.

      Only OSHA and AFOSH when on a military base.

    • C.

      AFOSH.

    • D.

      OSHA.

    Correct Answer
    C. AFOSH.
    Explanation
    The question asks about the essential elements of a program that involve detecting unsafe or unhealthful working conditions and abating hazards at the lowest possible working level. The correct answer is AFOSH, which stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. This suggests that AFOSH is the program that focuses on these essential elements within the Air Force. OSHA is a separate organization that deals with occupational safety and health in general, but the question specifies that the program in question is related to the Air Force. Therefore, OSHA is not the correct answer in this case.

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  • 8. 

    (002) The Air Force is responsible to investigate occupational injuries and illness to Air Force personnel as defined in what Air Force instruction (AFI)?

    • A.

      91-202.

    • B.

      91-204.

    • C.

      91-205.

    • D.

      91-207.

    Correct Answer
    B. 91-204.
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction 91-204 is the correct answer because it specifically addresses the responsibility of the Air Force to investigate occupational injuries and illnesses to Air Force personnel. The other options, 91-202, 91-205, and 91-207, do not pertain to this specific topic and therefore are not the correct answer.

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  • 9. 

    (003) What ranks are eligible to fill various special experience identifier (SEI)-coded positions?

    • A.

      A1C-TSgt.

    • B.

      A1C-MSgt.

    • C.

      SrA- MSgt.

    • D.

      SrA-SMSgt.

    Correct Answer
    C. SrA- MSgt.
    Explanation
    The ranks of SrA-MSgt are eligible to fill various special experience identifier (SEI)-coded positions.

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  • 10. 

    (003) The rotation program is mandatory for AB to:

    • A.

      SrA.

    • B.

      SSgt.

    • C.

      TSgt.

    • D.

      MSgt.

    Correct Answer
    B. SSgt.
    Explanation
    The rotation program is mandatory for AB to SSgt because it allows them to gain experience and develop their skills in different areas of their job. By rotating through different positions and responsibilities, ABs can broaden their knowledge and become well-rounded in their field. This prepares them for the increased responsibilities and leadership roles that come with being a SSgt.

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  • 11. 

    (003) As a Services specialist, what duty will you perform if you are managing services operations?

    • A.

      Operating fixed, bare base, and portable food facilities and equipment.

    • B.

      Determining occupancy status and determining and certifying nonavailability of transient quarters.

    • C.

      Making sure storage facilities and procedures adequately safeguard subsistence, equipment, and supplies.

    • D.

      Identifying facility requirements and conducting surveys to determine facility renovation, construction, and modernization needs.

    Correct Answer
    D. Identifying facility requirements and conducting surveys to determine facility renovation, construction, and modernization needs.
    Explanation
    As a Services specialist managing services operations, one of the duties is to identify facility requirements and conduct surveys to determine facility renovation, construction, and modernization needs. This involves assessing the current state of the facilities and equipment, identifying any deficiencies or areas that need improvement, and conducting surveys to gather data and information for future planning and decision-making regarding facility upgrades and improvements. This duty helps ensure that the facilities are maintained and upgraded to meet the needs and standards of the organization.

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  • 12. 

    (004) The Specialty Training Standard (STS) serves as a contract between what major command (MAJCOM) and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses?

    • A.

      Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • B.

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    • C.

      Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

    • D.

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
    Explanation
    The Specialty Training Standard (STS) serves as a contract between the Air Education and Training Command (AETC) and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses. AETC is responsible for providing initial and advanced training for Air Force personnel, and the STS outlines the specific training requirements for each specialty code. Therefore, AETC is the correct answer as it is the command that oversees the training standards and ensures that the necessary training is provided.

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  • 13. 

    (004) How many months do individuals in Journeyman (5 level) upgrade training (UGT) have to complete all their career development courses (CDC)?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      15

    • C.

      18

    • D.

      24

    Correct Answer
    B. 15
    Explanation
    Individuals in Journeyman (5 level) upgrade training (UGT) have to complete all their career development courses (CDC) within 15 months. This timeframe allows them to acquire the necessary knowledge and skills to advance in their career and meet the requirements for their next level of training. Completing the CDC within this time frame ensures that individuals are well-prepared and equipped with the necessary qualifications to progress further in their career.

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  • 14. 

    (004) With the recommendation of your supervisor, what rank must you have to be awarded a Superintendent (9 level)?

    • A.

      TSgt.

    • B.

      MSgt.

    • C.

      SMSgt.

    • D.

      CMSgt.

    Correct Answer
    C. SMSgt.
    Explanation
    To be awarded a Superintendent (9 level), the rank required is SMSgt. A Superintendent is a high-ranking position within the military, responsible for overseeing and managing a department or division. This position requires extensive experience and expertise, which is typically achieved at the rank of SMSgt. This rank signifies a high level of skill, knowledge, and leadership abilities, making it suitable for a Superintendent role.

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  • 15. 

    (004) Who developed the Services Training and Education Plan (STEP)?

    • A.

      HQ Air Force Services Agency (AFSVA).

    • B.

      HQ US Air Forces Europe (USAFE).

    • C.

      Major commands (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      HQ US Air Force (USAF).

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ Air Force Services Agency (AFSVA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is HQ Air Force Services Agency (AFSVA). This agency is responsible for developing the Services Training and Education Plan (STEP). They are in charge of coordinating and implementing training and education programs for the Air Force Services community.

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  • 16. 

    (004) What training tool is used to help training managers and trainers conduct effective, standardized on-the-job training throughout the Services career field?

    • A.

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • B.

      Services Training and Education Plan (STEP).

    • C.

      Specialty Training Standard (STS).

    • D.

      Career Field Standard (CFS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Services Training and Education Plan (STEP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Services Training and Education Plan (STEP). This tool is used to help training managers and trainers conduct effective, standardized on-the-job training throughout the Services career field. It provides guidance on the required training for each career field and outlines the specific knowledge and skills that individuals need to acquire. The STEP ensures that training is consistent and comprehensive, helping to develop a highly skilled and competent workforce.

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  • 17. 

    (004) How many category lists are prepared when prioritizing work?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    When prioritizing work, three category lists are prepared. These lists help in organizing tasks based on their urgency and importance. By categorizing work into three lists, individuals can effectively manage their workload and ensure that important tasks are given the necessary attention.

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  • 18. 

    (005) When developing a master task listing (MTL), who determines which tasks in the Specialty Training Standard (STS) apply to their specific mission?

    • A.

      Individual.

    • B.

      Supervisor.

    • C.

      Flight chief.

    • D.

      Activity manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Supervisor.
    Explanation
    The supervisor determines which tasks in the Specialty Training Standard (STS) apply to their specific mission when developing a master task listing (MTL). The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work of their subordinates and ensuring that they are trained and competent in the tasks required for their specific mission. They have the knowledge and authority to assess the needs of their mission and select the appropriate tasks from the STS to be included in the MTL.

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  • 19. 

    (005) The master task listing (MTL) is a list of tasks that are performed where?

    • A.

      Work center.

    • B.

      Each base.

    • C.

      Each command.

    • D.

      Deployed locations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Work center.
    Explanation
    The master task listing (MTL) is a list of tasks that are performed at the work center. This means that the MTL includes all the tasks that need to be completed at a specific work center, ensuring that all necessary tasks are accounted for and completed efficiently. The MTL helps in organizing and prioritizing tasks within a work center, ensuring smooth operations and effective task management.

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  • 20. 

    (006) Which option is a validated manpower need that has been deferred?

    • A.

      Funded.

    • B.

      Unfunded.

    • C.

      Appropriated.

    • D.

      Non-Appropriated.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unfunded.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unfunded." In this context, a validated manpower need refers to a required number of personnel that has been determined necessary. However, if it is labeled as "unfunded," it means that the necessary funding or financial resources to support the manpower need have not been allocated or provided. This suggests that although the need for additional personnel has been recognized, there is currently no budget or funding available to fulfill that need.

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  • 21. 

    (006) What shows the number of people and the rank structure required for each work center to complete their mission?

    • A.

      Alpha roster.

    • B.

      Manpower authorization.

    • C.

      Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

    • D.

      Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) shows the number of people and the rank structure required for each work center to complete their mission. This document provides an overview of the manpower needs and helps in planning and organizing the workforce. It ensures that the right number of personnel with the appropriate ranks are allocated to each work center, allowing them to effectively carry out their tasks and responsibilities. The UMD is an essential tool in manpower management and resource allocation within a unit.

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  • 22. 

    (006) The Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) is a report

    • A.

      Showing a unit's wartime taskings only.

    • B.

      Showing members who have duty restrictions.

    • C.

      That combines an alpha roster and the Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

    • D.

      That combines a unit's wartime taskings and any required "peacetime adds" that are needed in the daily operation of a base.

    Correct Answer
    C. That combines an alpHa roster and the Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) combines an alpha roster and the Unit Manpower Document (UMD). This means that the UPMR includes a list of personnel in the unit (alpha roster) as well as information about the unit's manpower requirements and allocations (UMD). By combining these two elements, the UPMR provides a comprehensive view of the unit's personnel management and manpower needs.

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  • 23. 

    (006) On the Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR), what does "double billeted" refer to?

    • A.

      A Unit Manpower Document (UMD) term that will cause a PCS move.

    • B.

      A conditions that usually causes a shortage.

    • C.

      Two people assigned to the same UMD position.

    • D.

      Someone promoted to SMSgt or Chief whose unit does not have an authorization for that grade.

    Correct Answer
    C. Two people assigned to the same UMD position.
    Explanation
    "Double billeted" refers to the situation where two people are assigned to the same Unit Manpower Document (UMD) position. This means that there are two individuals fulfilling the responsibilities and duties of a single position within the unit.

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  • 24. 

    (007) Who approves a nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA)?

    • A.

      NAF accounting office (AO).

    • B.

      Installation commander.

    • C.

      Services commander.

    • D.

      Contracting officer.

    Correct Answer
    B. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for approving a nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA). This is because the installation commander has the authority and oversight over the operations and activities within the installation, including NAFIs. They are in a position to review and authorize any agreements or contracts involving NAFIs to ensure they align with the installation's goals and objectives. The NAF accounting office (AO), services commander, and contracting officer may have roles in the process, but the ultimate approval rests with the installation commander.

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  • 25. 

    (007) Strategic Sourcing (SS) memorandums of agreement (MOA) allow continued in-house operation of activities despite the

    • A.

      Loss of APF manpower.

    • B.

      Loss of NAF manpower.

    • C.

      Increase in APF manpower costs.

    • D.

      Increase in NAF manpower costs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of APF manpower.
    Explanation
    Strategic Sourcing (SS) memorandums of agreement (MOA) are designed to allow continued in-house operation of activities despite the loss of APF (Appropriated Fund) manpower. This means that even if there is a reduction in APF manpower, the activities can still be carried out internally without outsourcing or relying on external resources. The purpose of SS MOA is to ensure the continuity of operations and minimize the impact of workforce changes on the organization. Therefore, the correct answer is loss of APF manpower.

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  • 26. 

    (007) What is the primary purpose of a temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA)?

    • A.

      Sustainment.

    • B.

      Dollar savings.

    • C.

      Increase services.

    • D.

      Increase hours of operation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustainment.
    Explanation
    A temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA) serves the primary purpose of sustaining a particular operation or activity. It is a formal document that outlines the terms and conditions agreed upon by two or more parties for a temporary period. By establishing this agreement, the parties involved ensure the continuation and support of the specified operation or activity. The T-MOA helps to maintain and sustain the necessary resources, personnel, and logistics required for the smooth functioning of the operation.

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  • 27. 

    (008) Individual Service Contracts should not be used for which of the following situations?

    • A.

      Construction Services.

    • B.

      Services that do not exceed a year.

    • C.

      Services that are paid on a fixed amount or per job basis.

    • D.

      Services that do not create an employer/employee relationship.

    Correct Answer
    A. Construction Services.
    Explanation
    Individual Service Contracts should not be used for Construction Services because construction services typically involve complex and long-term projects that require detailed specifications, timelines, and coordination with multiple contractors and suppliers. Using individual service contracts for construction services may lead to confusion, lack of accountability, and potential legal issues. Instead, construction projects usually require a separate contract, such as a construction contract or a design-build contract, that addresses the specific needs and complexities of the construction industry.

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  • 28. 

    (008) The contracting system is responsive to mission needs and requirements and awards contracts that are in the best interest of the:

    • A.

      Government.

    • B.

      Services commander.

    • C.

      Installation commander.

    • D.

      Resource management flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    A. Government.
    Explanation
    The contracting system is designed to be responsive to mission needs and requirements and to award contracts that are in the best interest of the government. This means that the system prioritizes the government's interests and ensures that contracts are aligned with the government's goals and objectives. The government is ultimately responsible for overseeing and managing the contracting process, making sure that it serves their needs and achieves the desired outcomes.

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  • 29. 

    (008) Whose side does the Air Force take when dealing with a contract-related labor dispute that may occur on an Air Force installation?

    • A.

      Labor party.

    • B.

      Contracting.

    • C.

      Civilian authorities.

    • D.

      The Air Force remains neutral.

    Correct Answer
    D. The Air Force remains neutral.
    Explanation
    When dealing with a contract-related labor dispute that may occur on an Air Force installation, the Air Force takes a neutral stance. This means that they do not side with either party involved in the dispute. Instead, they remain impartial and do not interfere in the negotiations or decisions made by the labor party and civilian authorities. This neutrality helps to ensure fairness and maintain the integrity of the contract process.

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  • 30. 

    (009) When determining manpower requirements for food service operations at a deployed location, which of the following actions should be done to ensure food service operations continue?

    • A.

      Determine the available work space.

    • B.

      Determine the manpower augmentation options.

    • C.

      Determine the equipment availability.

    • D.

      Determine the available rations.

    Correct Answer
    B. Determine the manpower augmentation options.
    Explanation
    To ensure food service operations continue at a deployed location, it is important to determine the manpower augmentation options. This involves identifying additional personnel resources that can be brought in to support the food service operations. By determining the manpower augmentation options, the organization can ensure that there are enough staff members to handle the workload and maintain efficient operations. This is crucial in order to meet the food service needs of the deployed personnel and ensure their well-being.

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  • 31. 

    (009) Who should be considered when determining manpower augmentation options to ensure essential lodging operations continue to operate during mobilization?

    • A.

      Civilian overhires and rotating personnel.

    • B.

      Augmentation, contractors, and rotating personnel.

    • C.

      Temporary duty (TDY) taskings, rotating personnel, and contractors.

    • D.

      Civilian overhires, augmentation, and TDY taskings.

    Correct Answer
    D. Civilian overhires, augmentation, and TDY taskings.
    Explanation
    When determining manpower augmentation options to ensure essential lodging operations continue to operate during mobilization, it is important to consider civilian overhires, augmentation, and temporary duty (TDY) taskings. Civilian overhires can provide additional personnel to fill in any staffing gaps, while augmentation can involve bringing in additional resources or support from other units or organizations. TDY taskings can involve temporarily assigning personnel from other locations to assist with lodging operations. Considering these options can help ensure that the necessary manpower is in place to maintain essential lodging operations during mobilization.

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  • 32. 

    (009) Who has the responsibility for determining strategic mission support requirements for the Air Reserve Component (ARC) installations?

    • A.

      Unit.

    • B.

      Squadron.

    • C.

      Base.

    • D.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    The Major command (MAJCOM) has the responsibility for determining strategic mission support requirements for the Air Reserve Component (ARC) installations. This means that the MAJCOM is responsible for identifying and specifying the necessary resources, capabilities, and support needed by the ARC installations to carry out their strategic missions effectively. The MAJCOM has the authority and oversight to ensure that the ARC installations have the necessary support and resources to fulfill their mission requirements.

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  • 33. 

    (009) Who, other than the field operating agency (FOA), determines the total wartime manpower resources needed to support wartime requirements?

    • A.

      Individual mobilization augmentee (IMA).

    • B.

      Air reserve component (ARC).

    • C.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      Unit commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    The Major Command (MAJCOM) determines the total wartime manpower resources needed to support wartime requirements. The MAJCOM is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of subordinate units within their command, including manpower allocation and resource management. They have the authority to assess the needs of the command and make decisions regarding manpower allocation during wartime. The other options, Individual Mobilization Augmentee (IMA), Air Reserve Component (ARC), and Unit Commander, do not have the same level of authority or responsibility as the MAJCOM in determining wartime manpower resources.

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  • 34. 

    (010) Who allocates appropriated money?

    • A.

      Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES).

    • B.

      Nonappropriated funds instrumentalities (NAFI).

    • C.

      Commissary.

    • D.

      Congress.

    Correct Answer
    D. Congress.
    Explanation
    Congress is responsible for allocating appropriated money. As the legislative branch of the government, Congress has the authority to determine how federal funds are distributed and spent. This includes the allocation of money for various purposes, such as funding government agencies, programs, and initiatives. The other options listed, Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES), Nonappropriated funds instrumentalities (NAFI), and Commissary, do not have the authority to allocate appropriated money.

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  • 35. 

    (010) Operations and maintenance (O&M) funds are used to:

    • A.

      Renovate facilities.

    • B.

      Conduct day-to-day operations.

    • C.

      Purchase equipment costing S50,000 or more.

    • D.

      Perform only essential operations as determined by Services personnel.

    Correct Answer
    B. Conduct day-to-day operations.
    Explanation
    Operations and maintenance (O&M) funds are specifically allocated for the purpose of conducting day-to-day operations. This includes activities such as regular maintenance, repairs, and upkeep of facilities, as well as other operational expenses that are necessary for the smooth functioning of an organization. O&M funds are not intended for renovating facilities or purchasing expensive equipment. The use of these funds is determined by Services personnel, who prioritize essential operations that need to be carried out on a daily basis.

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  • 36. 

    (010) At what level are procurement funds controlled?

    • A.

      Flight.

    • B.

      Squadron.

    • C.

      Base.

    • D.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    Procurement funds are controlled at the Major command (MAJCOM) level. This means that the authority and responsibility for managing and allocating procurement funds lies with the MAJCOM, which is a higher-level organizational unit within the military hierarchy. The MAJCOM has the oversight and decision-making power to determine how procurement funds are utilized across various units, such as flights, squadrons, and bases. This ensures centralized control and coordination of procurement activities to optimize resource allocation and meet the overall objectives of the MAJCOM.

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  • 37. 

    (010) Which options are sources of nonappropriated funds (NAF)?

    • A.

      Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES) dividends, income from concessionaire-operated activities, and fallout funds.

    • B.

      Local fees and charges, contributions and donations, and procurement funds.

    • C.

      Contributions and donations, local fees and charges, and AAFES dividends.

    • D.

      Contributions and donations, membership dues, and procurement funds.

    Correct Answer
    C. Contributions and donations, local fees and charges, and AAFES dividends.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is contributions and donations, local fees and charges, and AAFES dividends. These options are sources of nonappropriated funds (NAF) because contributions and donations are voluntary payments made by individuals or organizations, local fees and charges are fees collected for services or facilities provided by the military, and AAFES dividends are the profits distributed by the Army and Air Force Exchange Service.

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  • 38. 

    (010) Category A funded facilities are facilities that are for what type of activities?

    • A.

      Basic community support.

    • B.

      Revenue generating.

    • C.

      Mission sustaining.

    • D.

      Mission essential.

    Correct Answer
    C. Mission sustaining.
    Explanation
    Category A funded facilities are facilities that are funded specifically to support and sustain the mission of an organization or institution. These facilities are essential for carrying out the core activities and functions that align with the mission and goals of the organization. They may include infrastructure, equipment, or resources that are necessary for the successful operation and achievement of the organization's mission.

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  • 39. 

    (010) Category B funded facilities are facilities that are for what type of activities?

    • A.

      Basic community support.

    • B.

      Revenue generating.

    • C.

      Mission sustaining.

    • D.

      Mission essential.

    Correct Answer
    A. Basic community support.
    Explanation
    Category B funded facilities are facilities that are primarily for basic community support activities. These facilities are typically funded by the government or other organizations to provide essential services and support to the local community. These activities may include providing healthcare services, education, social services, recreational facilities, and other community development programs. The focus of Category B funded facilities is to meet the basic needs of the community and improve the overall well-being of its residents.

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  • 40. 

    (010) Category C funded facilities are facilities that are for what type of activities?

    • A.

      Basic community support.

    • B.

      Revenue generating.

    • C.

      Mission sustaining.

    • D.

      Mission essential.

    Correct Answer
    B. Revenue generating.
    Explanation
    Category C funded facilities are facilities that are primarily focused on generating revenue. These facilities are designed to generate income through various activities or services provided. Unlike basic community support facilities, which primarily serve the community without generating revenue, Category C funded facilities aim to generate funds to support their operations and contribute to the organization's financial sustainability. Therefore, revenue generating is the correct answer.

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  • 41. 

    (011) What is the first step in the budgeting process?

    • A.

      Verify funds availability.

    • B.

      Identify the unit's mission.

    • C.

      Establish and write down the activity's goal.

    • D.

      Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established.

    Correct Answer
    B. Identify the unit's mission.
    Explanation
    The first step in the budgeting process is to identify the unit's mission. This step is important because it sets the overall direction and purpose of the budget. By understanding the unit's mission, goals, and objectives, it becomes easier to align the budget with these priorities. Once the mission is identified, it becomes easier to establish and write down the activity's goals and determine the requirements needed to attain these goals. However, before any of these steps can be taken, it is crucial to have a clear understanding of the unit's mission.

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  • 42. 

    (011) What is the second step in the budgeting process?

    • A.

      Verify funds availability.

    • B.

      Identify the unit's mission.

    • C.

      Establish and write down the activity's goal.

    • D.

      Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established.

    Correct Answer
    C. Establish and write down the activity's goal.
    Explanation
    The second step in the budgeting process is to establish and write down the activity's goal. This step involves clearly defining the specific objective or purpose that the budget is intended to achieve. By establishing the activity's goal, it provides a clear direction for the budgeting process and helps in determining the resources and requirements needed to attain the goals. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the entire budgeting process and ensures that the budget aligns with the desired outcomes.

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  • 43. 

    (011) What is the third step in the budgeting process?

    • A.

      Verify funds availability.

    • B.

      Identify the unit's mission.

    • C.

      Establish and write down the activity's goal.

    • D.

      Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established.

    Correct Answer
    D. Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established.
    Explanation
    The third step in the budgeting process is to establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established. This step involves identifying the specific resources, such as personnel, equipment, and materials, that are necessary to achieve the goals set in the previous step. By determining the requirements, you can accurately estimate the costs associated with each goal and allocate the appropriate funds to ensure their attainment.

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  • 44. 

    (011) There are how many categories of budgeting responsibilities?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    There are three categories of budgeting responsibilities.

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  • 45. 

    (011) Which budget does Services use to obtain authorized funds to support the Services squadron requirements?

    • A.

      Cash flow.

    • B.

      Income and expense.

    • C.

      Appropriated funds (APF).

    • D.

      APF and nonappropriated funds (NAF) requirements.

    Correct Answer
    C. Appropriated funds (APF).
    Explanation
    Services use appropriated funds (APF) to obtain authorized funds to support the Services squadron requirements. APF refers to funds that are specifically allocated by the government for specific purposes, such as supporting the operations and activities of government agencies and departments. These funds are authorized by Congress through the appropriations process and are used to finance the day-to-day operations, personnel costs, and other expenses of the Services squadron.

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  • 46. 

    (011) By what other name is the income and expense budget known?

    • A.

      Cash flow.

    • B.

      Operating Budget

    • C.

      Appropriated funds (APF).

    • D.

      APF and nonappropriated funds (NAF) requirements.

    Correct Answer
    B. Operating Budget
    Explanation
    The income and expense budget is commonly known as the operating budget. This budget outlines the projected income and expenses for a specific period, typically a year, and helps organizations plan and allocate their resources accordingly. It includes details about revenue sources, such as sales or grants, and various operating expenses, such as salaries, utilities, and supplies. By analyzing the operating budget, organizations can evaluate their financial health, make informed decisions, and ensure that they have enough funds to cover their expenses and achieve their goals.

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  • 47. 

    (012) At base level, who is the single custodian for all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets, unless another individual is appointed as directed by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34-201?

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Flight chief.

    • C.

      Services commander.

    • D.

      Resource management flight chief (RMFC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Resource management flight chief (RMFC).
    Explanation
    The Resource Management Flight Chief (RMFC) is the single custodian for all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets at the base level, unless another individual is appointed as directed by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34-201. This means that the RMFC is responsible for overseeing and managing all NAF assets, ensuring their proper use, maintenance, and accountability. The supervisor, flight chief, and services commander may have other responsibilities within their respective roles, but the RMFC specifically holds the custodial responsibility for NAF assets.

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  • 48. 

    (012) What program is a plan of organization and all of the methods and measures used to safeguard resources, assure accuracy and reliability of information, assure adherence to applicable laws, and promote operational economy and efficiency?

    • A.

      Installation security.

    • B.

      Internal management controls.

    • C.

      External management controls.

    • D.

      Financial management and accounting.

    Correct Answer
    B. Internal management controls.
    Explanation
    Internal management controls refer to the program that encompasses the plan of organization and all the methods and measures used to safeguard resources, ensure the accuracy and reliability of information, adhere to applicable laws, and promote operational economy and efficiency. This program is crucial for maintaining the effectiveness and efficiency of an organization's operations and ensuring the proper use of resources. It involves establishing policies, procedures, and processes to monitor and control various aspects of the organization's activities, including financial management and accounting.

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  • 49. 

    (012) Who identifies the assessable units within their command and appoints an installation focal point to administer the internal management controls (IMC) program?

    • A.

      Group commander.

    • B.

      Squadron commander.

    • C.

      Installation commander.

    • D.

      Combat support flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for identifying the assessable units within their command and appointing an installation focal point to administer the internal management controls (IMC) program. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that the IMC program is effectively implemented and managed within their installation.

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  • 50. 

    (012) A loss of an asset can result from

    • A.

      Willful misconduct, proximate cause, and gross negligence.

    • B.

      Simple and gross negligence, willful misconduct, and remote cause.

    • C.

      Simple and gross negligence, joint and several liability, and remote cause.

    • D.

      Simple and gross negligence, proximate and remote cause, and willful misconduct.

    Correct Answer
    A. Willful misconduct, proximate cause, and gross negligence.
    Explanation
    A loss of an asset can result from willful misconduct, proximate cause, and gross negligence. Willful misconduct refers to intentional actions that cause harm or loss to an asset. Proximate cause refers to the direct or immediate cause of the loss. Gross negligence refers to a severe form of negligence where the responsible party fails to exercise even a minimal level of care, resulting in the loss of the asset. These three factors combined can lead to the loss of an asset.

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  • Current Version
  • Aug 13, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 16, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    181FSS/SVF
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