3m051a Volume 1. Services General
3M051A-01-1104, Edit Code 05 ; Test is used to guage Airmans progress in their CDCs.
- 1.
Who ensures all personnel have a safe and healthful work environment where recognized standards are eliminated or controlled at acceptable levels?
- A.
Installation commander.
- B.
Force support squadron commander.
- C.
Public health official.
- D.
Supervisor.
Correct Answer
A. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander is responsible for ensuring that all personnel have a safe and healthful work environment. They are in charge of implementing and enforcing recognized standards to eliminate or control any potential hazards or risks at acceptable levels. This includes overseeing the implementation of safety protocols, conducting regular inspections, and addressing any concerns or issues related to workplace safety. The installation commander plays a crucial role in creating a culture of safety and ensuring the well-being of all personnel within the installation.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who provides safe and healthful workplaces, and conducts periodic self-inspections for hazards or deficiencies?
- A.
Commanders, resource management flight chief, and supervisors.
- B.
Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors.
- C.
Commanders, public health, and supervisors.
- D.
Commanders and supervisors only.
Correct Answer
B. Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors.Explanation
Commanders, functional managers, and supervisors are responsible for providing safe and healthful workplaces and conducting periodic self-inspections for hazards or deficiencies. This means that they have the authority and duty to ensure that the workplace is safe and free from any potential hazards or deficiencies that could harm the employees. They are expected to regularly inspect the workplace, identify any potential risks, and take appropriate actions to mitigate them. This includes implementing safety measures, providing necessary training, and enforcing safety protocols to create a safe working environment for everyone.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who should promptly report safety, fire, and health hazards and deficiencies?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Force support squadron commander.
- C.
Installation commander.
- D.
All Air Force personnel.
Correct Answer
D. All Air Force personnel.Explanation
All Air Force personnel should promptly report safety, fire, and health hazards and deficiencies. This includes not only the supervisors, force support squadron commander, and installation commander, but also every individual serving in the Air Force. This is because ensuring safety and addressing hazards is a collective responsibility that requires the active participation and vigilance of all personnel. By involving all Air Force personnel in reporting hazards and deficiencies, the organization can effectively identify and address potential risks, thereby promoting a safer environment for everyone.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What enables Air Force personnel to meet their Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program responsibilities?
- A.
Commanders.
- B.
Supervisors.
- C.
Training.
- D.
Instructions.
Correct Answer
C. Training.Explanation
Training enables Air Force personnel to meet their Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program responsibilities by providing them with the necessary knowledge and skills to identify and mitigate workplace hazards, follow safety protocols, and ensure a safe working environment. Through training, personnel are equipped with the information and tools they need to effectively carry out their responsibilities and contribute to the overall safety and health of the Air Force. Commanders and supervisors play important roles in enforcing safety measures and providing instructions, but without proper training, personnel may not have the necessary understanding and competence to fulfill their responsibilities effectively.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Detecting unsafe or unhealthful working conditions at the earliest possible time and abating hazards at the lowest possible working level are essential elements of what program?
- A.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH).
- B.
OSHA and AFOSH only when on a military base.
- C.
AFOSH.
- D.
OSHA.
Correct Answer
C. AFOSH.Explanation
The correct answer is AFOSH. AFOSH stands for Air Force Occupational Safety and Health. Detecting unsafe or unhealthful working conditions early on and addressing hazards at the lowest working level are crucial components of the AFOSH program. OSHA, on the other hand, is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, which is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States, but it does not specifically pertain to the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 6.
How is the decision to train specific task and knowledge items in an initial skills course made?
- A.
Subject matter experts’ inputs only.
- B.
A review of the occupational survey report (OSR) data only.
- C.
By the career field manager based on his or her experiences.
- D.
A review of the OSR data and subject matter experts’ inputs.
Correct Answer
D. A review of the OSR data and subject matter experts’ inputs.Explanation
The decision to train specific task and knowledge items in an initial skills course is made by reviewing the occupational survey report (OSR) data and considering the inputs from subject matter experts. The OSR data provides valuable information about the skills and knowledge required for a particular job, while the input from subject matter experts ensures that the training aligns with industry standards and best practices. By combining these two sources of information, the decision-makers can make informed choices about the content of the initial skills course.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Training for the Services Journeyman (5) level primarily consist of
- A.
Fitness Specialist course.
- B.
On-the-job training (OJT).
- C.
Shift leader mobile training.
- D.
Journeyman Leadership course.
Correct Answer
B. On-the-job training (OJT).Explanation
The correct answer is on-the-job training (OJT). This is because the question is asking about the training required for the Services Journeyman (5) level, and out of the given options, on-the-job training is the most relevant and commonly used method for this level. On-the-job training allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their actual job role, gaining hands-on experience and knowledge specific to their field. This type of training is often preferred as it provides practical, real-world learning opportunities and allows individuals to apply what they have learned directly to their work.Rate this question:
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- 8.
How many months do individuals in Journeyman (5-skill level) upgrade training (UGT) have to complete their entire career development course (CDC)?
- A.
12.
- B.
16.
- C.
18.
- D.
24.
Correct Answer
A. 12.Explanation
Individuals in Journeyman (5-skill level) upgrade training (UGT) have to complete their entire career development course (CDC) within 12 months. This suggests that the UGT program is designed to provide individuals with the necessary skills and knowledge for their career development in a relatively short period of time. It also implies that there is a sense of urgency in completing the CDC within a year, possibly to ensure that individuals are equipped with the required expertise in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The career field education and training plan (CFETP) provides all of the following except a
- A.
Comprehensive education and training document that identifies life-cycle education/training requirements.
- B.
Clear career path to success and instills rigor in all aspects of career field training.
- C.
Clear path to instill a sense of industry in career field training.
- D.
Clear and comprehensive document that identifies all job objectives and skills needed to complete the job.
Correct Answer
D. Clear and comprehensive document that identifies all job objectives and skills needed to complete the job.Explanation
The CFETP provides a comprehensive education and training document that identifies life-cycle education/training requirements, a clear career path to success, and instills rigor in all aspects of career field training. It also provides a clear path to instill a sense of industry in career field training. However, it does not provide a clear and comprehensive document that identifies all job objectives and skills needed to complete the job.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The career field education and training plan (CFETP) is made up of how many parts?
- A.
2.
- B.
3.
- C.
4.
- D.
5.
Correct Answer
A. 2.Explanation
The career field education and training plan (CFETP) is made up of two parts. This suggests that the CFETP consists of two distinct components or sections.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The specialty training standards (STS) serves as a contract between what major command (MAJCOM) and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses?
- A.
Air Combat Command (ACC).
- B.
Air Mobility Command (AMC).
- C.
Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).
- D.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
Correct Answer
D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).Explanation
The correct answer is Air Education and Training Command (AETC). The specialty training standards (STS) serve as a contract between AETC and the functional user to show which of the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) are taught in formal schools and correspondence courses. This means that AETC is responsible for providing the necessary training and education for individuals in specific Air Force specialties.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is not designed to let trainees train themselves?
- A.
Career field education and training plan (CFETP).
- B.
Services training aids (STA).
- C.
Career field standard (CFS).
- D.
Specialty training standard (STS).
Correct Answer
B. Services training aids (STA).Explanation
The Services training aids (STA) are not designed to let trainees train themselves. STA refers to materials or resources that are used to support training, such as manuals, videos, or presentations. While these aids can be helpful in providing information and guidance to trainees, they are not intended to replace hands-on training or the guidance of an instructor. Trainees still require direct instruction and supervision to develop the necessary skills and knowledge in their career field.Rate this question:
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- 13.
How many category lists do you prepare when prioritizing work?
- A.
2.
- B.
3.
- C.
4.
- D.
5.
Correct Answer
B. 3.Explanation
When prioritizing work, it is common to prepare multiple category lists to effectively manage tasks. By organizing work into different categories, such as urgent, important, or low priority, individuals can allocate their time and resources accordingly. Having three category lists allows for a balanced approach, ensuring that tasks are appropriately classified and addressed based on their significance and deadlines.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which is not a factor that affects objective assessment?
- A.
Odd ball effect.
- B.
I-did-it-better effect.
- C.
Leveling effect.
- D.
It wasn’t me effect.
Correct Answer
D. It wasn’t me effect.Explanation
The "It wasn't me effect" is not a factor that affects objective assessment. This phrase implies that someone is trying to avoid taking responsibility or blame for something, which is unrelated to the process of objective assessment. Objective assessment refers to the evaluation of something based on factual evidence and unbiased criteria, without personal biases or external influences. The other options listed in the question, such as the odd ball effect, the I-did-it-better effect, and the leveling effect, are all factors that can potentially affect objective assessment by introducing biases or subjective judgments.Rate this question:
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- 15.
People in what ranks are eligible to fill various special experience identifier (SEI)-coded positions?
- A.
Airman first class (A1C) – technical sergeant (TSgt).
- B.
A1C – master sergeant (MSgt).
- C.
Senior Airman (SrA) – MSgt.
- D.
SrA – senior master sergeant (SMSgt).
Correct Answer
C. Senior Airman (SrA) – MSgt. -
- 16.
The 2 Track rotation program is mandatory for people with ranks of airman basic (AB) to
- A.
Senior airman (SrA).
- B.
Staff sergeant (SSgt).
- C.
Technical sergeant (TSgt).
- D.
Master sergeant (MSgt).
Correct Answer
B. Staff sergeant (SSgt).Explanation
The 2 Track rotation program is mandatory for people with ranks of airman basic (AB) to senior airman (SrA). This means that individuals in these ranks are required to participate in the program. The program is not mandatory for individuals with ranks of technical sergeant (TSgt), master sergeant (MSgt), or higher. Therefore, the correct answer is staff sergeant (SSgt), as individuals in this rank are required to participate in the program.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A person is automatically entered into Track 2 when he or she rotates into what core function?
- A.
Food.
- B.
Fitness.
- C.
Lodging.
- D.
Readiness.
Correct Answer
A. Food.Explanation
A person is automatically entered into Track 2 when he or she rotates into the core function of Food. This suggests that Track 2 is specifically related to the food aspect, indicating that individuals who are responsible for food-related tasks or roles are placed in this track.Rate this question:
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- 18.
When developing a master task listing (MTL), who determines which tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) apply to their specific mission?
- A.
Individual.
- B.
Supervisor.
- C.
Flight chief.
- D.
Activity manager.
Correct Answer
B. Supervisor.Explanation
The supervisor determines which tasks in the specialty training standard (STS) apply to their specific mission when developing a master task listing (MTL). The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work of their subordinates and ensuring that they are trained and competent in the necessary tasks for their specific mission. They have the knowledge and authority to assess the requirements of the mission and select the relevant tasks from the STS to include in the MTL.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which is NOT an advantage of developing a Master Training Plan (MTP)?
- A.
Listing all task requirements in one place.
- B.
The task requirements have to be memorized.
- C.
Promotes program continuity by allowing everyone to know what the requirements are.
- D.
The master task listing (MTL) can be broken down to show what tasks and skill levels are required for specific duty positions.
Correct Answer
B. The task requirements have to be memorized.Explanation
Developing a Master Training Plan (MTP) offers several advantages such as listing all task requirements in one place, promoting program continuity by informing everyone about the requirements, and breaking down the master task listing (MTL) to show specific duty positions and their required tasks and skill levels. However, the statement "The task requirements have to be memorized" is not an advantage of developing an MTP. This implies that the task requirements are not documented or easily accessible, which can lead to confusion and inefficiency in training.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What are the two types of manpower requirements?
- A.
Military and civilian.
- B.
Funded and unfunded.
- C.
Department of Defense (DOD) and contractor.
- D.
Appropriated fund (APF) and nonappropriated fund (NAF).
Correct Answer
B. Funded and unfunded.Explanation
The correct answer is "Funded and unfunded." This is because manpower requirements can be categorized based on whether they are financially supported or not. Funded manpower requirements refer to positions that are financially supported by the organization, typically through appropriated funds. On the other hand, unfunded manpower requirements are positions that do not have financial support and may rely on alternative funding sources or be filled on a voluntary basis.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What shows the number of people and the rank structure required for each work center to complete their mission?
- A.
Alpha roster.
- B.
Manpower authorization.
- C.
Unit manpower document (UMD).
- D.
Unit personnel management roster (UPMR).
Correct Answer
C. Unit manpower document (UMD).Explanation
The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) shows the number of people and the rank structure required for each work center to complete their mission. It provides a comprehensive overview of the manpower needs and organizational structure of the unit, allowing for effective planning and allocation of resources. The UMD ensures that the unit has the necessary personnel to fulfill its operational requirements and maintain readiness.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What do positions termed military essential on our unit manpower document (UMD) indicate?
- A.
Must be filled by military members.
- B.
Can be filled by in-service civilians.
- C.
Required by the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).
- D.
A position that is vital to the success of the Department of Defense (DOD).
Correct Answer
A. Must be filled by military members.Explanation
Positions termed military essential on the unit manpower document (UMD) indicate that they must be filled by military members. This means that these positions are specifically designated for individuals who are part of the military and cannot be filled by civilians or individuals who are not in the military. These positions are crucial for the functioning and operational effectiveness of the military unit.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What does “double billeted” refer to?
- A.
A unit manpower document (UMD) term that will cause a permanent change of station (PCS) move.
- B.
A conditions that usually causes a shortage.
- C.
Two people assigned to the same UMD position.
- D.
Someone promoted to SMSgt or Chief, and their unit does not have an authorization for that grade.
Correct Answer
C. Two people assigned to the same UMD position.Explanation
"Double billeted" refers to the situation where two people are assigned to the same unit manpower document (UMD) position. This means that both individuals are responsible for carrying out the duties and responsibilities of that particular position. It could be due to a temporary shortage of personnel or a specific organizational need that requires two individuals to work together in the same role.Rate this question:
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- 24.
After how many days will major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases be prepared to expand their operations to keep essential activities operational?
- A.
The first 30.
- B.
The first 60.
- C.
The first 90.
- D.
The first 120.
Correct Answer
A. The first 30.Explanation
After 30 days, major commands (MAJCOM) and individual bases will be prepared to expand their operations to keep essential activities operational. This suggests that within the first month, the necessary preparations will be completed to ensure the smooth functioning of essential activities.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which organization is responsible for determining strategic mission support requirements for the Air Reserve Component (ARC) installations?
- A.
Unit.
- B.
Squadron.
- C.
Base.
- D.
Major command (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer
D. Major command (MAJCOM).Explanation
Major command (MAJCOM) is responsible for determining strategic mission support requirements for the Air Reserve Component (ARC) installations. MAJCOMs provide guidance and support to the units, squadrons, and bases under their command, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and capabilities to fulfill their missions. They coordinate with various organizations and stakeholders to assess and prioritize the support requirements of ARC installations, taking into account factors such as operational needs, budget constraints, and overall strategic objectives.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which agency, other than the field operating agency (FOA), determines the total wartime manpower resources needed to support wartime requirements?
- A.
Installation command section.
- B.
Air reserve component (ARC).
- C.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- D.
Unit command section.
Correct Answer
C. Major command (MAJCOM).Explanation
The Major Command (MAJCOM) is responsible for determining the total wartime manpower resources needed to support wartime requirements. This means that they are in charge of assessing and calculating the number of personnel needed during times of war. The MAJCOM plays a critical role in coordinating and managing the manpower resources within their command to ensure readiness and effectiveness in wartime operations.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Who determines fair or reasonable pricing for an entertainment contract?
- A.
Nonappropriated funds (NAF) accounting officer (AO).
- B.
Contracting officer.
- C.
Force support squadron commander.
- D.
Installation commander.
Correct Answer
B. Contracting officer.Explanation
The contracting officer is responsible for determining fair or reasonable pricing for an entertainment contract. They have the authority to negotiate and establish the terms and conditions of the contract, including the pricing. The contracting officer's expertise in procurement and knowledge of market rates allows them to assess the fairness and reasonableness of the pricing proposed by the entertainment provider. They ensure that the government is receiving value for money and that the pricing aligns with industry standards and regulations.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What kind of contract is awarded to an individual for his or her unique skill, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for a nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI)?
- A.
Group.
- B.
Individual.
- C.
Performance.
- D.
Entertainment.
Correct Answer
B. Individual.Explanation
An individual is awarded a contract for his or her unique skill, experience, or knowledge in performing a service for a nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI). This means that the contract is specifically tailored to the individual's abilities and expertise, rather than being awarded to a group or for entertainment purposes.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Who is authorized to terminate orders or contracts?
- A.
Nonappropriated fund (NAF) accounting officer (AO).
- B.
Installation commander.
- C.
Force support squadron commander.
- D.
Contracting officer.
Correct Answer
D. Contracting officer.Explanation
The correct answer is the contracting officer. The contracting officer is the individual who has the authority to terminate orders or contracts. This individual is responsible for managing and overseeing the procurement process, including the initiation, negotiation, and termination of contracts. They have the necessary knowledge and expertise to make informed decisions regarding the termination of orders or contracts based on contractual terms and conditions, legal requirements, and organizational policies and procedures.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Who approves a nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA)?
- A.
NAF accounting officer (AO).
- B.
Installation commander.
- C.
Force support squadron commander.
- D.
Contracting officer.
Correct Answer
B. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander is responsible for approving a nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI) memorandum of agreement (MOA). The installation commander has the authority to review and authorize agreements related to NAFIs, which are organizations that generate revenue to support morale, welfare, and recreation programs for military personnel and their families. The NAF accounting officer (AO), force support squadron commander, and contracting officer do not have the authority to approve MOAs for NAFIs.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Strategic sourcing (SS) memorandums of agreement (MOA) allow continued in-house operation of activities despite the
- A.
Loss in appropriated funds (APF) manpower.
- B.
Loss in non-appropriated funds (NAF) manpower.
- C.
Increase in APF manpower costs.
- D.
Increase in NAF manpower costs.
Correct Answer
A. Loss in appropriated funds (APF) manpower.Explanation
The correct answer is "loss in appropriated funds (APF) manpower." This means that even if there is a decrease in the amount of funding available for a particular activity, the in-house operation of that activity can still continue. The term "appropriated funds" refers to funds that are allocated by a government or organization for specific purposes. Therefore, if there is a loss in APF manpower, it means that there is a decrease in the number of employees or resources available due to a reduction in funding, but the activity can still be carried out using the remaining resources.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What is the primary purpose of a temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA)?
- A.
Sustainment.
- B.
Dollar savings.
- C.
Increase services.
- D.
Increase hours of operation.
Correct Answer
A. Sustainment.Explanation
A temporary memorandum of agreement (T-MOA) is primarily used to ensure the continuation or sustainment of an agreement or partnership for a limited period of time. It is a formal document that outlines the terms and conditions of cooperation between two or more parties. The purpose of a T-MOA is to maintain the existing level of support or services provided, without any significant changes or increases. It is not related to dollar savings, increasing services, or increasing hours of operation.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which organization allocates appropriated money?
- A.
Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES).
- B.
Nonappropriated funds instrumentalities (NAFI) office.
- C.
Commissary.
- D.
Congress.
Correct Answer
D. Congress.Explanation
The correct answer is Congress. Congress is responsible for allocating appropriated money in the United States. As the legislative branch of the government, Congress has the power to pass laws and approve the federal budget, which includes the allocation of funds to various government agencies and programs. This process involves deliberation, negotiation, and decision-making by members of Congress to determine how taxpayer money should be spent.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Operations and maintenance (O&M) funds are used to
- A.
Renovate facilities.
- B.
Conduct day-to-day operations.
- C.
Purchase equipment costing $50,000 or more.
- D.
Perform only essential operations as determined by Services personnel.
Correct Answer
B. Conduct day-to-day operations.Explanation
The correct answer is "conduct day-to-day operations." O&M funds are typically allocated for the ongoing maintenance, repair, and management of facilities and infrastructure. These funds cover expenses such as utilities, janitorial services, routine maintenance, and other operational costs necessary to keep the facilities running smoothly on a daily basis. Renovations, purchasing expensive equipment, or performing essential operations as determined by Services personnel would require separate funding sources.Rate this question:
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- 35.
At what organizational level are procurement funds controlled?
- A.
Flight.
- B.
Squadron.
- C.
Base.
- D.
Major command (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer
D. Major command (MAJCOM).Explanation
Procurement funds are controlled at the Major command (MAJCOM) level. This means that the authority and responsibility for managing and allocating procurement funds lies with the MAJCOM, which is a higher-level organizational unit within the military or government structure. The MAJCOM oversees multiple squadrons, bases, and flights, and has the power to make decisions regarding the allocation and use of procurement funds across these subordinate units.Rate this question:
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- 36.
By when must fallout funds be spent?
- A.
End of the fiscal year.
- B.
End of the calendar year.
- C.
January 31 of current fiscal year.
- D.
January 31 of current calendar year.
Correct Answer
A. End of the fiscal year.Explanation
Fallout funds must be spent by the end of the fiscal year. This means that any funds allocated for fallout must be utilized and accounted for before the fiscal year ends. The fiscal year is the accounting period used by governments and organizations for financial reporting purposes. Therefore, it is crucial to spend the fallout funds before the fiscal year ends to ensure proper financial management and compliance with budgetary regulations.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What is the first step in the budgeting process?
- A.
Verify funds available on hand.
- B.
Identify and understand the unit’s mission.
- C.
Establish and write down the activity’s goal.
- D.
Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established.
Correct Answer
B. Identify and understand the unit’s mission.Explanation
The first step in the budgeting process is to identify and understand the unit's mission. This is important because it sets the overall direction and goals of the organization, which will then guide the budgeting decisions. By understanding the mission, the budget can be aligned with the organization's strategic objectives and priorities. This step helps to ensure that the budgeting process is purposeful and focused on achieving the unit's mission effectively and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What is the second step in the budgeting process?
- A.
Verify funds available on hand.
- B.
Identify and understand the unit’s mission.
- C.
Establish and write down the activity’s goal.
- D.
Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established.
Correct Answer
C. Establish and write down the activity’s goal.Explanation
The second step in the budgeting process is to establish and write down the activity's goal. This step is important because it helps to clearly define the objective or purpose of the budget. By establishing the goal, it becomes easier to determine the financial resources needed to achieve it. This step also sets the direction and focus for the budgeting process, guiding the allocation of funds and resources towards the desired outcome.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What is the third step in the budgeting process?
- A.
Verify funds available on hand.
- B.
Identify and understand the unit’s mission.
- C.
Establish and write down the activity’s goal.
- D.
Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established.
Correct Answer
D. Establish the requirements your operation will need to attain the goals you have established.Explanation
The third step in the budgeting process is to establish the requirements that your operation will need to attain the goals you have established. This step involves determining the specific resources, such as personnel, equipment, and materials, that are necessary to achieve the desired outcomes. By identifying and documenting these requirements, you can effectively allocate funds and plan for any necessary adjustments or investments to support the goals of the budget.Rate this question:
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- 40.
There are how many levels of budgeting responsibilities?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
3.
- D.
4.
Correct Answer
C. 3.Explanation
The correct answer is 3 because budgeting responsibilities typically involve three levels: top-level management, middle-level management, and lower-level management. Top-level management is responsible for setting overall financial goals and objectives, middle-level management is responsible for creating departmental budgets, and lower-level management is responsible for implementing and monitoring the budgets at the operational level.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which budget do we use to obtain authorized appropriated fund (APF) to support the Force Support squadron requirements?
- A.
Appropriated funds (APF).
- B.
Cash flow.
- C.
Non-appropriated funds (NAF) income and expense.
- D.
APF and NAF funds.
Correct Answer
A. Appropriated funds (APF).Explanation
To obtain authorized appropriated funds (APF) to support the Force Support squadron requirements, we use the budget known as Appropriated funds (APF). This budget is specifically allocated and authorized by the government for specific purposes, such as supporting the needs of the Force Support squadron. It is different from cash flow, which refers to the movement of money in and out of a business, and non-appropriated funds (NAF) income and expense, which are funds generated by the organization itself. Therefore, the correct answer is Appropriated funds (APF).Rate this question:
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- 42.
The nonappropriated funds (NAF) income and expense budget is also known as
- A.
Appropriated funds (APF).
- B.
APF and NAF.
- C.
Cash flow.
- D.
Operating.
Correct Answer
D. Operating.Explanation
The nonappropriated funds (NAF) income and expense budget refers to the budget that deals with the financial activities and operations of an organization. It includes the income generated and expenses incurred by the organization in its day-to-day operations. Therefore, the term "operating" is the most appropriate description for this type of budget, as it focuses on the operational aspects of the organization's finances.Rate this question:
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- 43.
At base level, who is the single custodian for all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets, unless another individual is appointed as directed by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34–201?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Flight chief.
- C.
Resource management flight chief (RMFC).
- D.
Force support squadron commander.
Correct Answer
C. Resource management flight chief (RMFC).Explanation
The correct answer is Resource management flight chief (RMFC). At the base level, the RMFC is responsible for overseeing all nonappropriated fund (NAF) assets, unless another individual is specifically appointed as directed by Air Force Instruction (AFI) 34-201. The RMFC is in charge of managing and controlling the financial resources of the base, including NAF assets, ensuring proper accounting, budgeting, and financial management practices are followed.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Who identifies the assessable units within their command (normally squadrons) and appoints an installation focal point to administer the internal management controls (IMC) program?
- A.
MAJCOM commanders.
- B.
Group commander.
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Combat support flight chief.
Correct Answer
A. MAJCOM commanders.Explanation
MAJCOM commanders are responsible for identifying the assessable units within their command, typically squadrons, and appointing an installation focal point to administer the internal management controls (IMC) program. This means that the MAJCOM commanders have the authority to designate the specific units that will be assessed and ensure that there is a designated person or team responsible for managing the IMC program at the installation level. The other options, such as group commander, squadron commander, and combat support flight chief, do not have the same level of authority or responsibility in this context.Rate this question:
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- 45.
For losses up to and including $50, who conducts an informal review and files the documentation in the activity?
- A.
Resource management flight chief (RMFC).
- B.
Combat support flight chief.
- C.
Activity manager.
- D.
Supervisor.
Correct Answer
C. Activity manager.Explanation
The activity manager conducts an informal review and files the documentation for losses up to and including $50. This suggests that the activity manager is responsible for overseeing and managing the documentation process for small losses within the organization. The other options, such as the resource management flight chief, combat support flight chief, and supervisor, may have different roles and responsibilities within the organization but are not specifically mentioned as being responsible for conducting an informal review and filing documentation for losses up to $50.Rate this question:
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- 46.
For losses over $50 up to and including $250, the activity manager conducts a review and provides a brief written explanation to the
- A.
Resource management flight chief (RMFC).
- B.
Combat support flight chief.
- C.
Force support squadron commander.
- D.
Installation commander.
Correct Answer
A. Resource management flight chief (RMFC).Explanation
For losses over $50 up to and including $250, the activity manager conducts a review and provides a brief written explanation to the Resource management flight chief (RMFC). The RMFC is responsible for overseeing the financial management and resource allocation within the organization. They have the authority to review and address any financial discrepancies or losses within their jurisdiction. Therefore, it is appropriate for the activity manager to report to the RMFC in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 47.
For losses over $250 up to and including $1,000, and for losses of $250 or less which appear to involve negligence or willful misconduct, who appoints an individual to conduct an inquiry?
- A.
Resource management flight chief (RMFC).
- B.
Combat support flight chief.
- C.
Force support squadron commander.
- D.
Installation commander.
Correct Answer
C. Force support squadron commander.Explanation
The Force Support Squadron Commander appoints an individual to conduct an inquiry for losses over $250 up to and including $1,000, and for losses of $250 or less which appear to involve negligence or willful misconduct.Rate this question:
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- 48.
How often do activity managers make deposits to the central cashier or financial institution to keep cash on hand to a minimum?
- A.
Daily.
- B.
Weekly.
- C.
Monthly.
- D.
Quarterly.
Correct Answer
A. Daily.Explanation
Activity managers make daily deposits to the central cashier or financial institution in order to keep cash on hand to a minimum. This frequent deposit schedule helps to reduce the risk of theft or loss of funds and ensures that excess cash is not left unattended. By depositing cash daily, activity managers can maintain tighter control over their financial resources and minimize the amount of cash that needs to be stored on-site.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Who may use imprest funds for a designated purpose with special controls and limitations?
- A.
Activity managers.
- B.
Supervisors.
- C.
Flight chiefs.
- D.
Commanders.
Correct Answer
A. Activity managers.Explanation
Activity managers may use imprest funds for a designated purpose with special controls and limitations. This means that they have been given the authority and responsibility to manage and allocate these funds for specific purposes within their activity. Supervisors, flight chiefs, and commanders may also have certain levels of authority and control over funds, but the question specifically asks about who may use imprest funds with special controls and limitations, and the correct answer is activity managers.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The resource management flight chief (RMFC) uses what Air Force form to maintain change and imprest fund cash accountability at all times?
- A.
1875.
- B.
1876.
- C.
2556.
- D.
2557.
Correct Answer
D. 2557.Explanation
The resource management flight chief (RMFC) uses Air Force form 2557 to maintain change and imprest fund cash accountability at all times.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 12, 2012Quiz Created by
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