3s051b Practice Test Set 2

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  • 1/178 Questions

    When an airman will not be allowed to assume the next higher grade, the commander's written notice must include the reasons for the nonrecommendation, inclusive dates of the nonrecommendation action, and

    • The Airman's acknowledgment.
    • The promotion eligibility status code.
    • The Airman's time in grade and time in service.
    • A statement indicating that the status is withheld.
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About This Quiz

This is the Q & A for the second half of CDCs 3SO51 Vol. 1

CDC Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    In the WAPS what two weighted factors account for 44 percent of the total point value?

    • PFE and EPRS

    • SKT and PFE

    • .PFE and time in grade

    • SKT and decorations.

    Correct Answer
    A. SKT and PFE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SKT and PFE. In the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS), SKT (Specialty Knowledge Test) and PFE (Promotion Fitness Examination) are two weighted factors that account for 44 percent of the total point value. This means that performance in these two areas carries significant weight in determining an airman's promotion eligibility and potential.

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  • 3. 

    When is an A1c considered fully qualified for promotion to SRA?

    • Recommended by the commander only.

    • 20 mo TIG and 24 TIS.

    • 28 months TIG only.

    • 20 mo TIG, 36 mo TIS, and recommended by the commander

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 mo TIG, 36 mo TIS, and recommended by the commander
    Explanation
    An A1c is considered fully qualified for promotion to SRA when they have completed 20 months of Time in Grade (TIG), have 36 months of Time in Service (TIS), and have been recommended by their commander. This combination of TIG, TIS, and commander recommendation is the criteria for promotion to the rank of SRA.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is not considered as a "whole person" factor in the senior NCO promotion process?

    • Education

    • Leadership

    • Marital status

    • Performance

    Correct Answer
    A. Marital status
    Explanation
    Marital status is not considered as a "whole person" factor in the senior NCO promotion process. This means that whether a person is married or single does not affect their chances of promotion. The other factors listed, such as education, leadership, and performance, are all taken into consideration when deciding on promotions. Marital status is not relevant to the evaluation of an individual's qualifications and abilities for a senior NCO position.

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  • 5. 

    Under the STEP program, no Airman may be promoted more than once during any 12-month period under any combination of promotion programs except

    • SrA

    • SSgts

    • TSgts

    • MSgts

    Correct Answer
    A. SrA
    Explanation
    Under the STEP program, which stands for Stripes for Exceptional Performers, Airman can only be promoted once in a 12-month period. However, this rule does not apply to Senior Airmen (SrA). Therefore, Senior Airmen can be promoted more than once within a 12-month period under the STEP program.

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  • 6. 

    What is the EPR conversion factor?

    • 27

    • 18

    • 15

    • 9

    Correct Answer
    A. 27
    Explanation
    The EPR conversion factor is 27. This means that when converting from one unit to another in the EPR system, you would multiply the value by 27. The conversion factor is a constant that helps in converting measurements accurately and efficiently.

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  • 7. 

    What constitutes a significant difference in the scores given to a particular record by a promotion board?

    • Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record.

    • Difference of more than 1 points between all of the scores on a record.

    • Board is unable to resolve differences in scoring a particular record after lengthy discussion.

    • Difference in scoring a particular record is resolved after lengthy discussion and changing of votes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record.
    Explanation
    The answer states that a significant difference in the scores given to a particular record by a promotion board is when there is a difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record. This means that if there is a gap of 1.5 or more points between the highest and lowest score given to a record, it is considered a significant difference.

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  • 8. 

    Which individual may assume the responsibility of the rater if the rater is missing in acion?

    • Unit commander

    • Additional rater

    • First sergeant

    • Senior rater

    Correct Answer
    A. Additional rater
    Explanation
    If the rater is missing in action, the additional rater may assume the responsibility. The additional rater is a designated individual who is responsible for evaluating the performance of the ratee in the absence of the primary rater. They may have firsthand knowledge of the ratee's performance or be familiar with their work through other means. The additional rater steps in to provide an evaluation and ensure that the ratee's performance is properly assessed in the absence of the primary rater.

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  • 9. 

    When disapproving a SSgt's waiver for reenlistment request, the unit commander must then ensure that the SSgt

    • Separates immediately

    • Acknowledges receipt of the disapproval.

    • Annotates the UPRG accordingly.

    • Goes to Customer Service to ensure the MilPDS is updated

    Correct Answer
    A. Acknowledges receipt of the disapproval.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "acknowledges receipt of the disapproval." When disapproving a SSgt's waiver for reenlistment request, the unit commander must ensure that the SSgt acknowledges receipt of the disapproval. This means that the SSgt should confirm that they have received the notification of disapproval. This step is important for documentation purposes and to ensure that the SSgt is aware of the decision made regarding their reenlistment request.

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  • 10. 

    Who is authorized to administer the oath of reenlistment?

    • Navy admiral who resigned his commission

    • Second lieutenant serving in a local Army National Guard unit

    • Captain who was transfered to the ORS

    • Lieutenant colonel who was transferred to the NARS

    Correct Answer
    A. Second lieutenant serving in a local Army National Guard unit
    Explanation
    A second lieutenant serving in a local Army National Guard unit is authorized to administer the oath of reenlistment. This is because as a commissioned officer in the Army National Guard, they have the authority to administer oaths and perform other official duties.

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  • 11. 

    What is the minimum total points a record can be assessed if all three panel members in a central CMSgt promotion evaluation board score the record as 18?

    • 18

    • 24

    • 270

    • 450

    Correct Answer
    A. 270
    Explanation
    The minimum total points a record can be assessed is 270. This is because all three panel members in a central CMSgt promotion evaluation board score the record as 18. Since there are three panel members, the total points would be 18 x 3 = 54. However, the minimum total points that can be assessed is determined by the scoring increments, which is 5 points. Therefore, the minimum total points would be the closest increment above 54, which is 270.

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  • 12. 

    Based on their current grade and date of rank, what are the three promotion zones that active duty officers fall into?

    • Below, in, and above.

    • Under, on, and beyond

    • Advanced, intermediate, and regular

    • Lower level, middle level, and upper level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Below, in, and above.
    Explanation
    Active duty officers fall into three promotion zones based on their current grade and date of rank: below, in, and above. These zones determine the eligibility for promotion and advancement in rank. Officers who are below the promotion zone are not yet eligible for promotion, those in the promotion zone are eligible and may be considered for promotion, and those above the promotion zone have already been promoted. The promotion zones are used to manage the flow of officers through the ranks and ensure a fair and balanced promotion process.

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  • 13. 

    When a promotion board is to convene within 14 days, how does the MPF notify Headquarters AFPC of erroneous data on an OPB?

    • By message

    • By telephone

    • In a memorandum sent via Federal Express.

    • Via a MilPDS update.

    Correct Answer
    A. By message
    Explanation
    The MPF notifies Headquarters AFPC of erroneous data on an OPB by message. This method allows for quick and efficient communication, ensuring that the correct information is received in a timely manner. It also allows for a written record of the notification, which can be referenced if needed.

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  • 14. 

    How does an extension of enlistment compare to a reenlistment?

    • .neither an extension of enlistment nor a reenlistment is ever binding.

    • A reenlistment is never binding because it is generally for a longer period

    • Once the extension has been revoked, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistmen.

    • Once the extension has been entered into, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Once the extension has been entered into, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that once the extension has been entered into, it has the same binding effect as a reenlistment. This means that both an extension of enlistment and a reenlistment are equally binding once they have been agreed upon and entered into.

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  • 15. 

    CMsgt and CMSgt-selects volunteer for requirement listed on the EQUAL-Plus by

    • Updating their request through PC-III

    • Contacting their career field manager at HQ AFPC

    • Updating their request in the assignment management system

    • Contacting their assignment NCO at the Chiefs Group

    Correct Answer
    A. Contacting their assignment NCO at the Chiefs Group
    Explanation
    The correct answer is contacting their assignment NCO at the Chiefs Group. This is because the question is asking for the correct method for CMsgt and CMSgt-selects to volunteer for a requirement listed on the EQUAL-Plus. The assignment NCO at the Chiefs Group would have the most up-to-date information and would be able to assist in the process of volunteering for the requirement.

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  • 16. 

    The Air Force military personnel classification system groups related work requirements on similarity of functions and requirements for all of the following except

    • Education

    • Experience

    • Knowledge

    • Personal desires

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal desires
    Explanation
    The Air Force military personnel classification system groups related work requirements based on similarity of functions and requirements. This system takes into account factors such as education, experience, and knowledge to determine the appropriate classification for personnel. However, personal desires are not considered in this classification system as they are subjective and may not align with the actual job requirements.

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  • 17. 

    Monthhly increment products are produced automatically upon receipt of the monthly promotion increment transactions that flow from AFPC before the promotion effective date and on or about the

    • 1st of the month

    • 5th of the month

    • 10th of the month

    • 15th of the month

    Correct Answer
    A. 15th of the month
    Explanation
    Monthly increment products are produced automatically on the 15th of the month. This is because the monthly promotion increment transactions are received from AFPC before the promotion effective date, and the production of the products is scheduled for the 15th.

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  • 18. 

    Which officers require feedback sessions?

    • Lieutenants only

    • Lieutenants and captains.

    • Lieutenants through majors

    • Lieutenants through colonels

    Correct Answer
    A. Lieutenants through colonels
    Explanation
    This question is asking about which officers require feedback sessions. The correct answer is "Lieutenants through colonels." This means that feedback sessions are required for officers with the rank of lieutenant, captain, major, and colonel.

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  • 19. 

    What are the primary reporting months for an enlited member whose OS cycle schedule determines allocation in October, advertises openings in November, and the member is matched for an assignment in December

    • April/May/June

    • July/August/September

    • January/February/March

    • October/November/December

    Correct Answer
    A. July/August/September
    Explanation
    The primary reporting months for an enlisted member whose OS cycle schedule determines allocation in October, advertises openings in November, and the member is matched for an assignment in December are July/August/September. This is because the member's assignment process starts in July, continues in August, and concludes in September with the member being matched for an assignment.

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  • 20. 

    How long must carerr Airmen wait to reapply for a BOP, after their prior request is disapproved?

    • Three months from the date of disapproval when requesting the same locations

    • Six months from the date of disapproval when requesting different locations

    • They can reapply immediately when requesting different locations

    • They can reapply immediately when requesting the same locations

    Correct Answer
    A. They can reapply immediately when requesting different locations
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that career Airmen can reapply immediately when requesting different locations. This means that if their prior request for a Base of Preference (BOP) was disapproved, they do not have to wait any specific amount of time before submitting a new application for a different location. However, if they want to request the same locations again, they must wait for three months from the date of disapproval before reapplying.

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  • 21. 

    What type of duty does RI 9T000 indicate?

    • An airman in basic military training

    • AFSC of officers entering primary-basic pilot training

    • An Officer in the grade of brigadier general or higher

    • AFSC of a prisoner in confinement who has not been dropped from rolls

    Correct Answer
    A. An airman in basic military training
    Explanation
    RI 9T000 indicates the type of duty for an airman in basic military training.

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  • 22. 

    What is the PES code for an Airman with an Article 15 suspended reduction that prevents the airman from being promoted until the PES code is changed to a date on or after the PES date in the MilPDS?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. The PES code for an Airman with an Article 15 suspended reduction that prevents the airman from being promoted until the PES code is changed to a date on or after the PES date in the MilPDS is A.

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  • 23. 

    A LOD and misconduct determination is required when a member, whether hospitalized or not, has a disease or injury that results in

    • The issuance of a strong prescription

    • The likelihood of permanent disability

    • Death, when there are no surviving family members.

    • The inability to perform military duties for more than 48 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. The likelihood of permanent disability
    Explanation
    When a member has a disease or injury that is likely to result in permanent disability, a LOD (Line of Duty) and misconduct determination is required. This means that an investigation needs to be conducted to determine if the disability is a result of the member's military service or if there was any misconduct involved. This determination is important for determining the member's eligibility for benefits and compensation related to the disability.

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  • 24. 

    After the initial relocations interview, the PRE forwards a security requirement memorandum to the member's unit commander whenever the assignment requires any of the following except

    • A security line badge.

    • Eligibility for special access

    • A higher security clearance than possessed

    • Eligibilty for assignment to a special program

    Correct Answer
    A. A security line badge.
    Explanation
    The PRE (Personnel Reliability Program) forwards a security requirement memorandum to the member's unit commander whenever the assignment requires eligibility for special access, a higher security clearance than possessed, or eligibility for assignment to a special program. However, it does not require a security line badge.

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  • 25. 

    The AF Form 709, Promotion Recommendation Form (PRF), recommendation section covers the entire record of performance and provides key performance factors from the officer's

    • Recent performance

    • Semiannual performance

    • Annual performance.

    • Entire career

    Correct Answer
    A. Entire career
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "entire career." The AF Form 709, Promotion Recommendation Form (PRF), recommendation section covers the entire record of performance and provides key performance factors from the officer's entire career. This means that the form takes into account the officer's performance over the course of their entire career, rather than just recent, semiannual, or annual performance.

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  • 26. 

    What information is included in block 14 of the PCS order to indicate that this is a joint spouse assignment?

    • Spouse's name an grade

    • Spouse's social security number and pay grade.

    • Spouse's name, social security number, and pay grade.

    • Spouse's name, social security number, and control AFSC

    Correct Answer
    A. Spouse's name, social security number, and pay grade.
    Explanation
    Block 14 of the PCS order includes the spouse's name, social security number, and pay grade. This information indicates that it is a joint spouse assignment as it includes the details of both spouses, such as their names and pay grades.

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  • 27. 

    Approved board results for the officer promotion program are confirmed in the system via transactions from

    • Headquarters USAF to AFPC and MAJCOMs

    • Headquarters USAF to MAJCOMs and MPFs

    • AFPC to servicing MPFs and MAJCOMs

    • AFPC to the secretary of the Air Force and MAJCOMs

    Correct Answer
    A. AFPC to servicing MPFs and MAJCOMs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFPC to servicing MPFs and MAJCOMs. This means that the approved board results for the officer promotion program are confirmed in the system by AFPC (Air Force Personnel Center) sending the information to the servicing MPFs (Military Personnel Flights) and MAJCOMs (Major Commands). This ensures that the promotion information is distributed to the appropriate units and personnel who need to be aware of the promotion results.

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  • 28. 

    What activity can reinstate approved CJRS for Airmen rendered ineligible to reenlist due to RE code 4K (medical disqualification)?

    • MPF

    • MAJCOM

    • Headquarters AFPC

    • Headquarters USAF

    Correct Answer
    A. Headquarters AFPC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Headquarters AFPC. AFPC stands for Air Force Personnel Center, which is responsible for managing personnel programs and policies for the Air Force. In this scenario, if Airmen are rendered ineligible to reenlist due to a medical disqualification (RE code 4K), the Headquarters AFPC would be the appropriate authority to reinstate their approved CJRS (Career Job Reservation System). They would have the necessary information and authority to review the case and make a decision on reinstating the CJRS for these Airmen.

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  • 29. 

    Women who have MSO and are otherwise qualified for transfer to the Reserve are discharged if

    • The reason for separation is pregnancy and they request discharge

    • The reason for separation is conscientious objection and they request discharge.

    • They have less than 12 months remaining on their MSOs and they request discharge

    • They have less than 12 months remaining on their MSOs and are not in a combat support

    Correct Answer
    A. The reason for separation is pregnancy and they request discharge
    Explanation
    Women who have MSO (Military Service Obligation) and are otherwise qualified for transfer to the Reserve are discharged if the reason for separation is pregnancy and they request discharge. This means that if a woman in the military becomes pregnant and requests to be discharged, she will be granted the discharge.

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  • 30. 

    The personnel journeyman responsible for ensuring completion of all required relocation preparation actions must do all of the following except

    • Review the Relocation Preparation Folder

    • Arrange transportation for all househould pets.

    • Receipt of memorandum sent to outside agencies

    • Review the AF Form 907, Relocation Preparation Checklist

    Correct Answer
    A. Arrange transportation for all househould pets.
    Explanation
    The personnel journeyman responsible for ensuring completion of all required relocation preparation actions must review the Relocation Preparation Folder, receipt of memorandum sent to outside agencies, and review the AF Form 907, Relocation Preparation Checklist. However, they are not responsible for arranging transportation for all household pets.

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  • 31. 

    A TSgt is eligible for promotion to MSgt after becoming a 7 level,

    • 23 mo TIG and 7 yr TAFMS

    • 23 mo TIG and 8 yr TAFMS

    • 24 mo TIG and 7 yr TAFMS

    • 24 mo TIG and 8 yr TAFMS

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 mo TIG and 8 yr TAFMS
    Explanation
    After becoming a 7 level, a TSgt is eligible for promotion to MSgt after having 24 months of Time in Grade (TIG) and 8 years of Total Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS).

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  • 32. 

    What constitutes a significant difference in the scores given to a particular record by a promotion board?

    • Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record.

    • Difference of more than 1.5 points between all of the scores on a record.

    • Board is unable to resolve differences in scoring a particular record after lengthy discussion.

    • Difference in scoring a particular record is resolved after lengthy discussion and changing of votes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores on a record." This means that if there is a difference of more than 1.5 points between any two scores given to a particular record by a promotion board, it is considered a significant difference. This suggests that the board members have varying opinions or evaluations of the record, leading to a notable divergence in their scores.

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  • 33. 

    Which brief is a one-page, computer-generated extract of selected data from the Headquarters Air Force (HAF) MPF that is used by all officer selection boards?

    • OPB

    • Officer ISB

    • OSB

    • Officer PSB

    Correct Answer
    A. OSB
    Explanation
    The correct answer is OSB. The OSB, or Officer Selection Brief, is a one-page, computer-generated extract of selected data from the Headquarters Air Force (HAF) MPF (Military Personnel Flight) that is used by all officer selection boards. It provides a concise overview of the candidate's qualifications, experience, and performance records, allowing the selection boards to assess the individual's suitability for officer positions.

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  • 34. 

    CJR cancellation procedures apply only to

    • Approved CJRs, not to suspended CJRs.

    • Disapproved CJRs, not rescinded CJRs

    • Past CJRs, not to current CJRs.

    • Members who cannot get a CJR in the AFSC they are currently working in.

    Correct Answer
    A. Approved CJRs, not to suspended CJRs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that CJR cancellation procedures apply only to approved CJRs, not to suspended CJRs. This means that if a CJR has been approved but later suspended, the cancellation procedures do not apply.

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  • 35. 

    When a member visits a particular site in order to perform operational or nagerial activities, the purpose of the TDY is categorized as

    • Site visit

    • Management activity

    • Operational meeting

    • Special missions travel

    Correct Answer
    A. Site visit
    Explanation
    The purpose of the TDY is categorized as a site visit because the member is visiting a particular site to perform operational or managerial activities. This suggests that the member is going to the site for a specific reason related to their job or responsibilities, rather than for a general operational meeting or special missions travel. The term "site visit" implies that the member is physically going to the location to gather information, assess a situation, or carry out tasks that require being present at the site.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following grades is not authorized to sign an AF Form 100?

    • GS-4

    • GS-5

    • SSgt

    • Capt

    Correct Answer
    A. GS-4
    Explanation
    The correct answer is GS-4. This is because the AF Form 100 is a form used in the United States Air Force for performance feedback and evaluation. The grades listed in the question are different ranks or positions within the Air Force. SSgt refers to Staff Sergeant and Capt refers to Captain, both of which are authorized to sign the AF Form 100. GS-4, on the other hand, refers to a General Schedule (GS) pay grade, which is a civilian grade and not authorized to sign the AF Form 100.

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  • 37. 

    Which phase of the promotion process begins when promotion selections are actually made at Headquarters AFPC?

    • Initial

    • Preselect

    • Postselect

    • File build

    Correct Answer
    A. Initial
    Explanation
    The phase of the promotion process that begins when promotion selections are actually made at Headquarters AFPC is the Initial phase. This is the first step after the selections are made and involves initiating the necessary actions and paperwork to officially promote the selected individuals. It includes updating personnel records, issuing promotion orders, and notifying the individuals of their promotion.

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  • 38. 

    A ratee's (officer or Airman) comments to the evaluator named in the referral letter must

    • Contain pertinent attachments

    • Reflect on the character of the evaluator.

    • Not reflect on the integrity of the evaluator unless fully substantiated

    • Be forwarded through the immediate supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Not reflect on the integrity of the evaluator unless fully substantiated
    Explanation
    The ratee's comments should not reflect on the integrity of the evaluator unless fully substantiated. This means that the ratee should not make any accusations or negative comments about the evaluator's integrity without providing sufficient evidence to support those claims. This ensures that any criticism or feedback given by the ratee is fair and based on factual information rather than personal opinions or assumptions.

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  • 39. 

    Who is allowed to execute an extension of enlistment?

    • First-term airman needing 36 months' retainability for an overseas assignment

    • Career airman desiring to extend for 49 months to increase bonus entitlement.

    • First-term airman wanting to extend for 14 months to determine wheter or ot to make the air force a career

    • Career airman who has not previously extended current enlistment and needs 48 months' retainability for an overseas assignment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Career airman who has not previously extended current enlistment and needs 48 months' retainability for an overseas assignment.
    Explanation
    A career airman who has not previously extended their current enlistment and needs 48 months' retainability for an overseas assignment is allowed to execute an extension of enlistment. This individual meets the criteria of being a career airman, needing the required months of retainability, and having not previously extended their enlistment. Therefore, they are eligible to extend their enlistment to meet the requirements for the overseas assignment.

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  • 40. 

    First-term airmen who enlisted for 6 years may apply for a CJR as early as the first duty day of the after he completes how many months on his current enlistment?

    • 35

    • 36

    • 59

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 59
    Explanation
    First-term airmen who enlisted for 6 years may apply for a Career Job Reservation (CJR) as early as the first duty day after they complete 59 months on their current enlistment. This means that after serving for almost 5 years, they are eligible to apply for a CJR, which allows them to secure a specific job or career field for their next enlistment period.

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  • 41. 

    In addition to upgrade training, how is knowledge requirements for award of a skill-level accomplished?.

    • Job qualification training

    • A specialty training course

    • A technical training course

    • CDCs

    Correct Answer
    A. CDCs
    Explanation
    To accomplish the knowledge requirements for award of a skill-level, in addition to upgrade training, CDCs (Career Development Courses) are used. CDCs are self-study courses that provide comprehensive training in a specific job specialty. These courses cover a wide range of topics and are designed to enhance the knowledge and skills of individuals in their respective career fields. By completing CDCs, individuals can demonstrate their proficiency and readiness to be awarded a skill-level in their job.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following factors is not taken into consideration when determining officer and Airmen primary AFSC?

    • Desires and interests of the individual

    • Amount of formal training and education

    • Civic and fraternal membership

    • Complexity of specialty

    Correct Answer
    A. Civic and fraternal membership
    Explanation
    When determining officer and Airmen primary AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code), factors like desires and interests of the individual, amount of formal training and education, and complexity of specialty are taken into consideration. However, civic and fraternal membership is not considered as a factor in determining AFSC.

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  • 43. 

    When career enhancement or the CSS schedules personnel for WAPS testing, they do so by annotating the

    • MPF Selectee Data Verification List.

    • Unit Eligiblee for Promotion Testing Roster.

    • MPF Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster

    • Airman Promotion DVR.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Eligiblee for Promotion Testing Roster.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unit Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster." When career enhancement or the CSS schedules personnel for WAPS testing, they do so by annotating the Unit Eligible for Promotion Testing Roster.

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  • 44. 

    An EPR is not required when the ratee is

    • A SrA or above and has nott had a report for at least 1 year and the period of supervision has been 120 calendar days.

    • An A1C or below, has 20 or more months' TAFMS, has had an initial report, and has not had a report for at least 1 year.

    • An A1C or below,has less than 20 months' TAFMS, and has not had a report for 120 calendar days.

    • A member whose performance is unsatifactory

    Correct Answer
    A. An A1C or below,has less than 20 months' TAFMS, and has not had a report for 120 calendar days.
    Explanation
    An EPR is not required for an A1C or below who has less than 20 months' Time in Active Federal Military Service (TAFMS) and has not had a report for 120 calendar days. This means that if the ratee is a junior enlisted member with less than 20 months of service and has not received a report for 120 calendar days, they do not need an EPR.

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  • 45. 

    The purpose of the commander's review on both the AF Form 910, Enlisted Performance Report and the 911, Senior Enlisted Performance Report is to

    • Make sure the ratee is promoted below the zone.

    • Submit comments on any disciplinary actions the ratee incurs.

    • Make sure the evaluation report does not have exaggerations or unrealistic ratings.

    • Add additional comments on participation in community activities and off-base education programs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Make sure the evaluation report does not have exaggerations or unrealistic ratings.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the commander's review on both the AF Form 910, Enlisted Performance Report and the 911, Senior Enlisted Performance Report is to ensure that the evaluation report does not contain any exaggerations or unrealistic ratings. This review is important to maintain the accuracy and fairness of the evaluation process, ensuring that the ratee's performance is accurately reflected in the report. It helps to prevent any potential bias or misrepresentation that could affect the ratee's career progression.

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  • 46. 

    It is imperative that recommendations for decorations be restricted to the recognition of meritorious service, outstanding achievement, and acts of heroism in order to

    • Preserve the integrity of decorations

    • Prevent the token submissions of decorations in an effort to "do something for people."

    • .prevent recommending personnel for Air Force awards when decorations are warranted.

    • Differentiate criteria for awarding decorations from criteria for awarding Air Force awards.

    Correct Answer
    A. Preserve the integrity of decorations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "preserve the integrity of decorations." This answer aligns with the statement in the question that recommendations for decorations should be restricted to recognizing meritorious service, outstanding achievement, and acts of heroism. By preserving the integrity of decorations, it ensures that they are given for deserving reasons and not just as token submissions or to "do something for people."

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  • 47. 

    A reconsideration for a decoration is contingent upon

    • The fact that the decoration was submitted and acted upon.

    • Administrative processing that the decoration was acted upon.

    • Submission into official channels not within the prescribed limits.

    • The presentation of credible evidence that the recommendation was officially placed in military channels

    Correct Answer
    A. The presentation of credible evidence that the recommendation was officially placed in military channels
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the presentation of credible evidence that the recommendation was officially placed in military channels." This means that in order for a decoration to be reconsidered, there must be evidence that the recommendation for the decoration was officially submitted through the appropriate military channels. Without this evidence, the reconsideration cannot take place.

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  • 48. 

    Until the awarding authority announces it final decision, the fact that a person has been recommended for a decoration is considered

    • Confidential

    • For official use only

    • Sensitive information

    • Privileged information

    Correct Answer
    A. For official use only
    Explanation
    The fact that a person has been recommended for a decoration is considered "for official use only" until the awarding authority announces its final decision. This means that the information is restricted and should only be accessed and used by authorized individuals within the official capacity of their roles. It implies that the information should be kept confidential and not shared with the general public or used for personal purposes.

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  • 49. 

    When is the PRE authorized to publish PCS orders directing a member who is on leave or TDY to depart PCS before he or she returns to the curent duty station?

    • Member's report not later date was changed

    • Member's replacement reported to duty early.

    • Losing commander changed the member's projected departure date.

    • After you confirm that the member would not incur a personal financial loss.

    Correct Answer
    A. After you confirm that the member would not incur a personal financial loss.
    Explanation
    The PRE (Personnel Relocation Element) is authorized to publish PCS (Permanent Change of Station) orders directing a member who is on leave or TDY (Temporary Duty) to depart PCS before returning to the current duty station after confirming that the member would not incur a personal financial loss. This means that if it is determined that the member would not face any financial burden or loss by departing early, the PRE can issue the orders. This ensures that the member's relocation process is smooth and efficient without any negative impact on their finances.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 19, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Vruedy
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