4N051 B Volume 3

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1. Which statement is  not considered one of the patients' legal and ethical rights?

Explanation

The statement "choose the method of administration" is not considered one of the patients' legal and ethical rights. While patients have the right to be informed about a drug's name, purpose, and receive clearly labeled medication containers, they do not have the right to choose the method of administration. This decision is typically made by healthcare professionals based on the patient's condition and medical needs.

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About This Quiz
4N051 B Volume 3 - Quiz

The '4N051 B Volume 3' quiz assesses knowledge in pharmacology and medication administration, focusing on roles in drug prescription, understanding drug names, and legal rights in medication handling. It's designed for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective patient care.

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2. Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except

Explanation

The correct answer is for ensuring A!C Jones is available for work the next day. This is because as a person responsible for administering medication, your primary concern should be the safety and well-being of the patient, not their work schedule. The other options mentioned are all essential responsibilities, such as performing all steps in the modified six medication rights, being knowledgeable about the side effects of the medication, and verifying any possible interactions with current medications.

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3. The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injection a drug into a muscle is 

Explanation

The correct answer is intramuscular (IM). This method of parenteral medication administration involves injecting a drug into a muscle. This route allows for the drug to be absorbed into the bloodstream at a slower rate compared to intravenous administration. It is commonly used for medications that need to be absorbed slowly or for drugs that are not suitable for oral administration.

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4. Which of these is not included in the "five rights" of medication administration?

Explanation

The "five rights" of medication administration include the right patient, right medication, right dose, right route, and right time. Right documentation is not included in the "five rights" as it is not directly related to the actual administration of the medication. However, documentation is still an important aspect of medication administration to ensure accurate record-keeping and to provide a comprehensive history of the patient's medication use.

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5. What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once?

Explanation

A stat medication order indicates that a medication should be administered immediately and only once. This type of order is commonly used in emergency situations or when a medication needs to be administered urgently. It ensures that the medication is given without delay to address the immediate medical need of the patient.

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6. What type of medication would you expect a patient with seasonal allergies to take on a regular basis?

Explanation

A patient with seasonal allergies would be expected to take antihistamines on a regular basis. Antihistamines are medications that help to relieve symptoms of allergies, such as sneezing, itching, and runny nose, by blocking the effects of histamine, a chemical released by the immune system during an allergic reaction. By taking antihistamines regularly, the patient can reduce the severity of their symptoms and improve their quality of life during allergy season.

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7. To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location? 

Explanation

Liquid medications are usually poured at the patient's bedside to prevent contamination and accidental spills. This ensures that the medication is administered directly to the patient without any risk of contamination or spillage during transportation from the pharmacy or work station to the patient's location. Pouring the medication at the patient's bedside also allows for accurate dosage measurement and immediate administration, providing timely and efficient healthcare to the patient.

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8. Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer?

Explanation

The trade name is given by the manufacturer. This is the name under which a specific medication is marketed and sold. It is usually a brand name that is easily recognizable and may be protected by trademark. The trade name helps to differentiate the medication from other similar products in the market.

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9. Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration

Explanation

The correct answer states that technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician. This means that technicians are allowed to give medications to patients, but they must do so under the direct supervision of a nurse or physician. This ensures that there is proper oversight and accountability in the medication administration process. It also ensures that technicians are following the correct protocols and providing safe and effective care to patients.

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10. Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?

Explanation

The Physician Desk Reference is a common reference source for drugs. It is a comprehensive guide that provides detailed information about prescription drugs, including their uses, dosages, side effects, and interactions. Healthcare professionals, such as physicians, rely on the Physician Desk Reference to make informed decisions about prescribing medications to their patients. It is considered a trusted and reliable source of drug information in the medical field.

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11. What type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregular heart action?

Explanation

Antiarrhythmics are a type of medication used to prevent or correct irregular heart action. These medications work by regulating the electrical signals in the heart, helping to restore a normal heart rhythm. They are commonly prescribed for individuals with conditions such as atrial fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, or other arrhythmias. Antiemetics are medications used to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting, cathartics are used to promote bowel movements, and antacids are used to relieve symptoms of heartburn or acid reflux.

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12. Drug administration is controlled primarily by 

Explanation

Drug administration is controlled primarily by federal law because the regulation and oversight of drugs, including their approval, manufacturing, labeling, and distribution, is primarily governed by federal agencies such as the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in the United States. Federal laws establish the framework for drug regulation and ensure consistency and uniformity across states. State laws may also play a role in drug administration, but they generally operate within the boundaries set by federal law.

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13. Which of the following vaccines should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products? 

Explanation

Influenza vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products because most influenza vaccines are produced using eggs. The virus used to make the vaccine is grown inside eggs, and traces of egg protein may be present in the final product. This can potentially trigger an allergic reaction in individuals with egg allergies.

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14. Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit?

Explanation

Mosquitoes transmit yellow fever, which is a viral disease. Yellow fever is caused by the yellow fever virus and is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The virus is then spread to humans when the infected mosquito bites them. Symptoms of yellow fever include fever, headache, muscle and joint aches, and in severe cases, it can lead to liver damage and bleeding. Vaccination is available to prevent yellow fever.

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15. Which one of these statements is true regarding subcutaneous injections?

Explanation

Subcutaneous injections involve administering small amounts of a drug. This is because subcutaneous injections are given just below the skin, into the fatty tissue. The fatty tissue has a limited capacity to absorb the drug, so only small amounts can be administered effectively. This route of administration is commonly used for medications such as insulin.

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16. What method of administration delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Oral. Oral administration is a method of delivering medication directly into a patient's digestive system by taking it through the mouth. This can be in the form of tablets, capsules, or liquids that are swallowed and then absorbed into the bloodstream through the gastrointestinal tract. Buccal administration involves placing the medication between the cheek and gum, inhalation administration involves inhaling the medication into the lungs, and sublingual administration involves placing the medication under the tongue. However, these methods do not deliver the medication directly into the digestive system as the oral method does.

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17. Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as 

Explanation

Narcotics such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines have a high potential for abuse but also have acceptable medical uses. These substances are classified as schedule II drugs. This classification indicates that they have a high potential for abuse, can lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, and have a currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions. Schedule II drugs are considered to be less dangerous than schedule I drugs but still carry a significant risk for abuse and addiction.

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18. What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?

Explanation

The Controlled Substance Act is the correct answer because it is a federal law that requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances. This law was enacted to regulate the manufacturing, distribution, and dispensing of drugs that have the potential for abuse and dependence. The periodic inventory helps to ensure that these substances are properly accounted for and not being diverted or misused.

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19. The purpose of most drug therapy is to 

Explanation

The purpose of most drug therapy is to maintain a constant level of drug in the body. This is important because a constant level of drug ensures that it remains effective in treating the condition it is prescribed for. If the drug level is too low, it may not have the desired therapeutic effect. On the other hand, if the drug level is too high, it can lead to toxicity and adverse side effects. Therefore, maintaining a constant level of drug in the body helps to achieve optimal therapeutic outcomes while minimizing potential harm.

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20. Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?

Explanation

Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action because heat causes blood vessels to dilate, allowing for increased blood flow. This increased circulation leads to a faster delivery of the drug to the target site, enhancing its action.

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21. What publication contains a list of medications available form the MTF's pharmacy, recommended dispensing instructions, and administrative guidelines?

Explanation

A local facility formulary is a publication that contains a list of medications available from the MTF's pharmacy, recommended dispensing instructions, and administrative guidelines. This formulary is specific to the local facility and provides healthcare professionals with information on which medications are stocked, how they should be dispensed, and any guidelines or protocols that need to be followed when prescribing or administering these medications. It serves as a valuable resource for healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective medication management within the MTF.

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22. To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you gently pull the earlobe

Explanation

To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, gently pulling the earlobe down helps to straighten the canal. This allows for easier access to the ear canal and facilitates the proper administration of the ear drops. By straightening the canal, the drops can reach the affected area more effectively, ensuring that the medication is delivered properly and increasing its efficacy.

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23. Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?

Explanation

Penicillin is a type of antibiotic that is commonly used to treat bacterial infections. Antibiotics are designed to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria, thus helping to cure the infection. Therefore, penicillin administered to treat an infection falls under the category of curative drugs, as it directly targets the cause of the illness and aims to eliminate it.

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24. Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the Air Force?

Explanation

Upon entering the Air Force, all recruits receive a booster for Tetanus vaccine. Tetanus is a bacterial infection that can cause severe muscle stiffness and spasms. It is commonly found in soil, dust, and manure, and can enter the body through cuts or wounds. The Tetanus vaccine helps to prevent the infection by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies against the Tetanus toxin. Since recruits may be exposed to various environments and situations during their service, receiving a Tetanus booster upon entering the Air Force ensures that they are protected against this potentially dangerous infection.

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25. An oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medicaiton preparation called a 

Explanation

A liniment is an oily liquid that is applied topically to the skin for medicinal purposes. It is commonly used to relieve pain or inflammation in muscles and joints. Liniments typically contain ingredients such as alcohol, oil, or other solvents, along with various herbs or chemicals that provide therapeutic effects. They are known for their ability to penetrate the skin quickly and provide localized relief. Liniments are often used in sports medicine or for treating conditions such as arthritis or sprains.

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26. Mr.Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment post surgically to prevent

Explanation

Mr. Johnson is receiving heparin treatment post surgically to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Deep vein thrombosis is a condition where blood clots form in the deep veins, usually in the legs. After a hip replacement surgery, patients are at an increased risk of developing deep vein thrombosis due to reduced mobility and blood flow in the legs. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent the formation of blood clots, reducing the risk of deep vein thrombosis. Therefore, Mr. Johnson is receiving heparin treatment to prevent this condition.

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27. Where are the sub-cutaneous injections commonly administered?

Explanation

Sub-cutaneous injections are commonly administered in the upper arms because this area has a good blood supply and a layer of subcutaneous fat that allows for the absorption of medication. Additionally, the upper arms are easily accessible and provide a large enough area for injection. The ventral surface of the forearm, lateral hip area, and posterior hand may not be ideal sites for sub-cutaneous injections due to various reasons such as limited blood supply or discomfort during injection.

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28. How many pounds are equal to 65kg?

Explanation

The correct answer is 143. To convert kilograms to pounds, you need to multiply the weight in kilograms by 2.2046. Therefore, to convert 65 kilograms to pounds, you would multiply 65 by 2.2046, which equals approximately 143 pounds.

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29. Which of these statements is a disadvantage of inhalation medication?

Explanation

Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult is a disadvantage of inhalation medication because it can be challenging to accurately measure the exact dosage of medication that is being delivered to the patient's lungs. Unlike other forms of medication where the dosage can be easily measured and controlled, inhalation medication can be more variable and less precise. This can lead to potential under or over-dosing, which may not provide the desired therapeutic effect or could result in adverse effects.

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30. A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a 

Explanation

A clinical pharmacist is the best definition for a specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs. This is because a clinical pharmacist has specialized knowledge and training in medication therapy management and can provide guidance to healthcare providers on the appropriate use of medications for individual patients. They work closely with healthcare teams to optimize medication regimens, ensure patient safety, and improve patient outcomes.

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31. A provider can initiate a drug order in how many ways?

Explanation

A provider can initiate a drug order in two ways. This suggests that there are two different methods or processes through which a provider can request or initiate the ordering of a drug.

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32. Which of the following central nervous system stimulants obtained over the counter, is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?

Explanation

Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant that is commonly obtained over the counter. It is frequently taken in prolonged high doses, which can lead to habituation and psychological dependence. Caffeine is found in various beverages and foods, such as coffee, tea, energy drinks, and chocolate. It stimulates the central nervous system, increasing alertness and reducing fatigue. However, excessive and prolonged use of caffeine can result in tolerance, where higher doses are needed to achieve the same effects, and psychological dependence, where individuals feel the need to consume caffeine regularly to function normally.

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33. Which statement is proper procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract of a patient. 

Explanation

The proper procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract of a patient is to assess the patient's vital signs before, during, and after therapy. This is important to monitor the patient's response to the therapy and ensure their safety. By assessing vital signs, healthcare providers can identify any potential complications or adverse reactions and take appropriate actions. It allows for timely intervention and ensures the patient's well-being throughout the therapy.

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34. When a patient has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing, what patient education would be appropriate?

Explanation

The patient education that would be appropriate when taking Tessalon perles to help stop coughing is to not chew the capsule. This is important because Tessalon perles are designed to be swallowed whole and not chewed. Chewing the capsule can lead to an unpleasant taste and may reduce the effectiveness of the medication. It is important for the patient to understand the proper way to take the medication to ensure its efficacy.

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35. Which of the following medications' primary action is pain relief?

Explanation

The primary action of analgesics is pain relief. Sedatives and hypnotics are medications that promote relaxation and induce sleep. Therefore, all three medications listed in the answer (analgesics, sedatives, and hypnotics) have pain relief as their primary action.

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36. What classification of drugs is not acceptable for medical use?

Explanation

Schedule I drugs are classified as substances with a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use. These drugs are considered the most dangerous and harmful, with a high risk of addiction and severe physical and psychological effects. They are strictly regulated and illegal to possess or distribute, even for medical purposes. Examples of Schedule I drugs include heroin, LSD, and marijuana (in some jurisdictions). Due to their potential for abuse and lack of medical benefits, Schedule I drugs are not acceptable for medical use.

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37. Some of the symptoms associates with type II diabetes are all of the following except 

Explanation

Excessive weight loss is not typically associated with type II diabetes. In fact, one of the common symptoms of type II diabetes is weight gain or difficulty losing weight. Other symptoms such as polydipsia (excessive thirst), slow healing, and vision problems are commonly seen in individuals with type II diabetes. However, excessive weight loss may be a symptom of other conditions such as hyperthyroidism or certain types of cancer.

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38. Which of these elements is not required on a medication order?

Explanation

The patient's age is not required on a medication order. The other elements listed (patient's name, specified time, provider's signature) are all necessary for a medication order. The patient's name is needed to identify who the medication is for, the specified time is necessary to indicate when the medication should be taken, and the provider's signature is required to validate the order. However, the patient's age is not typically relevant or necessary for a medication order.

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39. Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg The medicaiton Ancef is supplied in vials of 50mg/mL. How many mL's of Ancef will be given for each dose?

Explanation

To calculate the number of mL of Ancef that will be given for each dose, we need to find the total amount of Ancef required for each dose. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg, and the dosage is 5mg/kg. So, the total amount of Ancef required for each dose is 5mg/kg * 65kg = 325mg. The medication is supplied in vials of 50mg/mL. To find the number of mL, we divide the total amount required by the concentration of the medication: 325mg / 50mg/mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, 6.5 mL of Ancef will be given for each dose.

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40. When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag

Explanation

When administering a vaginal douche, the bag should be hung 12 to 18 inches above the patient's vagina. This height allows for a gentle flow of the solution into the vagina without causing discomfort or excessive pressure. Hanging the bag too low may result in a slow or insufficient flow, while hanging it too high may cause discomfort or even injury to the patient. Therefore, the recommended height range of 12 to 18 inches ensures a safe and effective administration of the vaginal douche.

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41. How many doses are given in a series of hepatitis b vaccine regiment

Explanation

The correct answer is 3 because a series of hepatitis B vaccine regimen typically consists of three doses. These doses are given at specific intervals to ensure optimal protection against the hepatitis B virus.

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42. Into what body cavity are otic medications administered?

Explanation

Otic medications are administered into the external auditory canal. The external auditory canal is the tube-like structure that connects the outer ear to the middle ear. It is the pathway through which sound waves travel to reach the eardrum. By administering otic medications directly into the external auditory canal, they can easily reach the affected area of the ear and provide targeted treatment.

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43. Opioids are contraindicated with

Explanation

Opioids are contraindicated with head injury treatment because they can mask the symptoms of a head injury and make it difficult to accurately assess the patient's condition. Head injuries can be serious and potentially life-threatening, so it is important to closely monitor the patient's neurological status and any changes in their level of consciousness. Opioids can also depress the respiratory system, which can be dangerous for someone with a head injury. Therefore, it is best to avoid using opioids in the treatment of head injuries.

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44. Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with

Explanation

Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with preventing the formation of prostaglandins. Prostaglandins are hormone-like substances that play a role in inflammation, pain, and fever. By inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, anti-inflammatory medications can help reduce inflammation and pain. This can be beneficial in treating conditions such as arthritis, where excessive inflammation is present. By preventing the formation of prostaglandins, anti-inflammatory actions can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing.

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45. Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of which of the following?

Explanation

Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate commonly cause constipation as a side effect. These substances can slow down the movement of the digestive system, leading to difficulty in passing stools. This can result in infrequent bowel movements and discomfort.

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46. Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?

Explanation

Oral medications that are taken before meals are generally faster acting because there is lower digestive system content. When taken before meals, the stomach is relatively empty, allowing the medication to be quickly absorbed into the bloodstream. This results in faster onset of action compared to taking the medication after a meal, when the stomach is full and the medication may take longer to be absorbed and metabolized.

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47. The influenza vaccine is manufactured 

Explanation

The correct answer is "with an inactive virus." The influenza vaccine is manufactured using an inactive virus. This means that the virus used in the vaccine is not capable of causing the flu. By using an inactive virus, the vaccine stimulates the immune system to produce a response and build immunity against the flu strain for the year.

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48. The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is 

Explanation

Thrombolytic therapy involves the administration of medications to dissolve blood clots. The most serious complication of this therapy is bleeding. Thrombolytic medications work by breaking down blood clots, which can increase the risk of bleeding. This can manifest as internal bleeding, such as in the brain or gastrointestinal tract, or external bleeding from wounds or sites of invasive procedures. Bleeding can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully monitor patients undergoing thrombolytic therapy for any signs of bleeding and adjust the treatment accordingly.

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49. Antianxiety medications are prescribed for 

Explanation

Antianxiety medications are prescribed for the treatment of insomnia. These medications help to reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, which can aid in falling asleep and staying asleep. Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, or both. It can be caused by various factors, including anxiety and stress. Antianxiety medications can help to alleviate these symptoms and improve sleep quality for individuals suffering from insomnia.

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50. Antipsychotic medications are categorized as 

Explanation

Antipsychotic medications are categorized as major tranquilizers because they are primarily used to treat severe mental disorders such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. These medications work by blocking certain neurotransmitters in the brain, helping to reduce hallucinations, delusions, and other psychotic symptoms. The term "major tranquilizers" is often used to describe these medications due to their calming effect on individuals experiencing psychosis.

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51. Which medication potentiates the effects of analgesics when combined with antipsychotics?

Explanation

Phenergan is the correct answer because it is a medication that belongs to the class of antihistamines and has sedative properties. When combined with antipsychotics, Phenergan can enhance the analgesic effects of the pain medications. This combination is often used to manage pain in patients who are also receiving antipsychotic treatment. Tylenol, Haldol, and Zoloft do not have the same potentiating effect on analgesics when combined with antipsychotics.

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52. What type of medication has cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content

Explanation

Cathartics are a type of medication that have a cleansing action on the intestines, causing watery evacuation of intestinal content. They are commonly used to treat constipation or to prepare the bowel for medical procedures. Antiarrhythmics are used to treat irregular heart rhythms, antiemetics are used to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting, and antacids are used to neutralize stomach acid.

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53. Dr. Young has ordered Mrs.Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50mg/mL. How many milligrams of medication will be given twice a day?

Explanation

Mrs. Green weighs 65kg and needs to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. This means she needs a total of 65kg * 5mg/kg = 325mg of Ancef per day. Since she needs to receive this medication twice a day, the total amount of medication given will be 325mg * 2 = 650mg. Therefore, the correct answer is 325.

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54. Which of the following medications are used primarily for analgesic actions in the treatment of arthritis?

Explanation

Acetaminophen is primarily used for analgesic actions in the treatment of arthritis. It is a commonly used medication for pain relief and fever reduction. Although it is not a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) like salicylates, it can help alleviate pain associated with arthritis. Potassium is not used as a medication for arthritis, and while tramadol can be used for pain relief, it is not typically the first-line choice for arthritis treatment.

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55. All of the following are contraindications of central nervous system stimulants except

Explanation

Central nervous system (CNS) stimulants are typically used to treat conditions such as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy. They work by increasing alertness and attention. Contraindications are factors that make the use of a particular medication or treatment unsafe or inadvisable. Alcoholism, drug dependency, and eating disorders are all contraindications of CNS stimulants because these conditions can worsen with the use of stimulant medications. However, irritability is not typically considered a contraindication for CNS stimulants. In fact, CNS stimulants may help improve irritability by increasing focus and attention.

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56. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the reabsorption of which chemical neurotransmitter?

Explanation

SSRIs selectively block the reabsorption of serotonin. Serotonin is a chemical neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in regulating mood, emotions, and sleep. By blocking the reabsorption of serotonin, SSRIs increase the levels of serotonin in the brain, which can help alleviate symptoms of depression and anxiety. This selective action on serotonin sets SSRIs apart from other neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, adrenaline, and dopamine, which are not directly affected by SSRIs.

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57. Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taking concomitantly with

Explanation

Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. When taken together with alcohol or salicylates, the hypoglycemic effect of insulin may be enhanced. This means that the combination of insulin and either alcohol or salicylates can further lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). It is important for individuals taking insulin to be cautious when consuming alcohol or using medications containing salicylates, as it may increase the risk of experiencing low blood sugar episodes.

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58. Before the administration of digitalis, which of the following pulse points is it important to check?

Explanation

Before the administration of digitalis, it is important to check the apical pulse point. The apical pulse is measured by listening to the heart sounds using a stethoscope placed over the apex of the heart. This is because digitalis is a medication that affects the heart's rhythm and contractility. By checking the apical pulse, healthcare professionals can assess the heart rate and rhythm before administering digitalis to ensure it is safe and appropriate for the patient.

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59. Which one do you like?

Explanation

The given question asks for a preference. Since no additional context or criteria is provided, it is impossible to determine the reason for choosing Option 1 as the correct answer.

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60. Which of the following medications is a laxative?

Explanation

Mineral oil is a laxative because it is a lubricant that helps soften and lubricate the stool, making it easier to pass through the digestive system. It forms a slippery barrier on the surface of the stool, preventing water from being absorbed and keeping the stool soft and easy to pass. Kaopectate is an antidiarrheal medication that helps to control diarrhea by slowing down the movement of the intestines. Imodium is also an antidiarrheal medication that works by slowing down the movement of the intestines. Lactinex is a probiotic medication that contains live bacteria to help restore the natural balance of bacteria in the digestive system.

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61. Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of 

Explanation

Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of contaminated food or water. This means that the virus can be spread when a person consumes food or water that has been contaminated with the hepatitis A virus. This can occur when food or water is prepared or handled by someone who is infected with the virus and has not properly washed their hands. It can also happen when sewage or other waste contaminates a water source. Therefore, it is important to practice good hygiene and ensure that food and water sources are clean and safe to prevent the spread of hepatitis A.

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62. Acute adrenal insufficiency, shock and possibly death can result from 

Explanation

Abrupt withdrawal of adrenal corticosteroid therapy can lead to acute adrenal insufficiency, shock, and possibly death. Adrenal corticosteroids are hormones produced by the adrenal glands that are essential for maintaining normal bodily functions, including regulating blood pressure and responding to stress. When these medications are abruptly stopped, the body is no longer receiving the necessary amount of corticosteroids, which can result in a sudden drop in blood pressure, electrolyte imbalances, and inadequate response to stress. This can lead to a life-threatening condition known as adrenal crisis. Therefore, it is important to gradually taper off corticosteroid therapy under medical supervision to avoid these complications.

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63. The effects of cardiac glycosides to 

Explanation

Cardiac glycosides are a class of medications that are known to strengthen the heartbeat. They work by inhibiting the sodium-potassium pump, which leads to an increase in intracellular calcium levels. This increase in calcium enhances the contractility of the heart muscle, resulting in a stronger and more efficient heartbeat. The other options mentioned in the question, such as slowing vasodilation, increasing respirations, and lowering blood pressure, are not effects typically associated with cardiac glycosides.

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64. Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except

Explanation

Digitalis is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions. It works by increasing the strength and efficiency of the heart's contractions. However, it can also have toxic side effects. Vertigo and diplopia (double vision) are known side effects of digitalis toxicity. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is also a potential side effect, as digitalis can slow down the heart's electrical impulses. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is not a side effect of digitalis toxicity. Tachycardia refers to a rapid heart rate, which is the opposite of what digitalis typically causes.

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65. When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or  vasodilators, what affect is produced?

Explanation

When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, they can have a synergistic effect on lowering blood pressure. This means that the combination of these medications can enhance the hypotensive (blood pressure lowering) effect, leading to a more significant decrease in blood pressure than if each medication was taken alone. Therefore, the correct answer is "Potentiate hypotension."

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66. Among the endocrine medications, what drug action category do adrenal cortiocosteroids fall within?

Explanation

Adrenal corticosteroids fall within the supportive drug action category because they provide support to the adrenal glands by supplementing or replacing the natural hormones they produce. These medications help regulate various physiological processes in the body, such as inflammation, immune response, and metabolism, when the adrenal glands are not functioning properly. They do not cure the underlying condition causing adrenal insufficiency but instead provide support to manage the symptoms and maintain a balance of hormones in the body.

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67. The antidote for bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy is to administer

Explanation

Vitamin K is the antidote for bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy. Coumarin, such as Coumadin, is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, if bleeding complications occur, administering vitamin K can help restore the levels of these clotting factors and promote blood clotting, effectively reversing the effects of the anticoagulant. Protamine sulfate is used as an antidote for heparin, another type of anticoagulant. Vitamin B12 is not directly involved in clotting, and heparin is not the antidote for coumarin therapy.

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68. LtCol McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscular to A1C jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mL's would you administer?

Explanation

The Phenergan is supplied in 50mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. To administer a single dose of 12.5 mg, we need to calculate the corresponding volume. Using the ratio of 50mg/2mL, we can set up a proportion to find the volume needed: 50mg/2mL = 12.5mg/x mL. Cross-multiplying and solving for x, we get x = (12.5mg * 2mL) / 50mg = 0.5 mL. Therefore, you would administer 0.50 mL of Phenergan.

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69. Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection?

Explanation

Corticosteroids are used to prevent organ transplant rejection because they have immunosuppressive properties. These drugs work by suppressing the immune system, which helps to prevent the body from attacking and rejecting the transplanted organ. Corticosteroids reduce inflammation and inhibit the immune response, making them effective in preventing rejection in organ transplant recipients. Insulin, tapazole, and thyroid agents are not used for this purpose and do not have immunosuppressive effects.

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70. Which statement is not true of the non-streroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?

Explanation

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to alleviate pain and inflammation in conditions like arthritis. However, the statement that NSAIDs raise prostaglandin levels is not true. In fact, NSAIDs work by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX), which is responsible for the production of prostaglandins. By blocking this enzyme, NSAIDs reduce the production of prostaglandins, resulting in decreased pain and inflammation. Therefore, the correct answer is that NSAIDs do not raise prostaglandin levels.

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71. Quinidine is used primarily as prophlactic therapy to 

Explanation

Quinidine is a medication primarily used to maintain a normal rhythm after cardioversion. Cardioversion is a procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in individuals with certain types of abnormal heart rhythms. Quinidine helps to stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent the recurrence of abnormal rhythms after cardioversion. It does this by blocking certain channels in the heart muscle cells, which helps to regulate the electrical signals and maintain a normal rhythm.

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72. Contraindications of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs include all of the following except

Explanation

The contraindications of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) include patients with asthma, patients taking anticoagulants, and patients undergoing elective surgery. However, there is no contraindication specifically related to taking NSAIDs with dairy products.

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73. The most common side effect of antihypertensives is 

Explanation

Postural hypotension refers to a sudden drop in blood pressure when a person changes their position from lying down or sitting to standing up. This is a common side effect of antihypertensive medications, which are used to lower blood pressure. When the blood pressure drops rapidly, it can cause symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. Therefore, postural hypotension is the most common side effect of antihypertensives.

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74. Angiotensin-conversing enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by

Explanation

ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by decreasing vasoconstriction. Vasoconstriction is the narrowing of blood vessels, which increases blood pressure. ACE inhibitors work by blocking the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a hormone that causes vasoconstriction. By inhibiting this enzyme, ACE inhibitors prevent the narrowing of blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure.

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75. Contraindications for procainamide include persons with known 

Explanation

Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic medication commonly used to treat various cardiac arrhythmias. However, it is contraindicated in individuals with congestive heart failure due to its potential to worsen the condition. Congestive heart failure is characterized by the heart's inability to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs and other parts of the body. Procainamide can further impair the heart's function and exacerbate fluid retention, potentially causing respiratory distress and worsening symptoms of heart failure. Therefore, individuals with known congestive heart failure should avoid using procainamide.

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76. Which one do you like?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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77. Calcium channel blockers suppress the action of calcium during contraction of the heart by

Explanation

Calcium channel blockers reduce the cardiac excitability and dilation of the main coronary arteries. This means that they decrease the ability of the heart to be stimulated and contract, as well as reduce the widening of the main coronary arteries. By doing so, calcium channel blockers help to lower blood pressure and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. This can be beneficial in conditions such as hypertension and angina.

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78. Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are combined with 

Explanation

Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are often combined with diuretics because diuretics help to reduce fluid accumulation in the body by increasing urine production. This can be beneficial in conditions such as hypertension, where excess fluid can contribute to increased blood pressure. By combining central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors with diuretics, the medications can work together to lower blood pressure more effectively. Additionally, diuretics can help to counteract any fluid retention that may be caused by the central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors.

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79. Side effects of tricyclics include all of the following except 

Explanation

Tricyclic antidepressants are known to cause various side effects, including urinary retention, cardiac arrhythmias, and postural hypotension. However, pupil constriction is not typically associated with the use of tricyclics. Pupil constriction, also known as miosis, is more commonly seen as a side effect of opioids or certain other medications. Therefore, the correct answer is pupil constriction.

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80. Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with

Explanation

Adrenergic blockers are medications that block the effects of adrenaline on certain receptors in the body. In low doses, they can be used to treat patients with lung conditions that cause bronchospasm. Bronchospasm is a condition where the muscles around the airways in the lungs tighten, making it difficult to breathe. By blocking the effects of adrenaline, adrenergic blockers can help relax the muscles and alleviate bronchospasm. Therefore, using adrenergic blockers in low doses is a suitable treatment option for patients with lung conditions that cause bronchospasm.

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81. What type of laxative is sorbitol?

Explanation

Sorbitol is classified as a hyperosmotic laxative. Hyperosmotic laxatives work by drawing water into the intestines, softening the stool and promoting bowel movements. Sorbitol is a sugar alcohol that is not easily absorbed by the body, so it remains in the intestines and pulls water into the colon, increasing the volume of stool and stimulating bowel movements.

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82. Which of the following medications can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest?

Explanation

Theophylline is a medication that can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest. Quinolones are a class of antibiotics that can cause changes in heart rhythm, and when combined with theophylline, which is a medication used to treat respiratory conditions, the risk of cardiac arrest is increased. Therefore, it is important to be cautious when prescribing or taking both medications together to avoid this potentially dangerous interaction.

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83. Match the following
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Match the following
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