NCCT Practice Test Questions! Quiz
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Are you ready for the NCCT exam, and would you be able to pass this quiz? The NCCT exam contains 150 questions on various medical assistant job functions. This exam includes patient care, medical office pharmacology, infection control, exposure control, patient care, phlebotomy, and ECG. There are so many opportunities for someone willing to do the work. If you want to complete a practice quiz for the NCCT exam, this is the quiz for you.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Right and wrong conduct is known as
- A.
Ethics
- B.
Empathy
- C.
Criminal law
- D.
Licensure
Correct Answer
A. EthicsExplanation
Ethics refers to the principles and values that guide individuals or groups in determining what is right or wrong in their behavior. It involves making moral judgments and decisions based on fairness, honesty, respect, and responsibility. Ethics provides a framework for evaluating and choosing between different courses of action, ensuring that individuals or organizations act in an ethical and responsible manner. It is a fundamental concept in various fields, such as business, medicine, and law, as it helps establish standards for professional conduct and promotes integrity and accountability.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The most common type of medical tort liability is
- A.
Fraud and deceit
- B.
Negligence
- C.
Breach of contract
- D.
Breach of confiidence
Correct Answer
B. NegligenceExplanation
Negligence is the most common type of medical tort liability. Medical professionals have a duty of care towards their patients, and negligence occurs when they breach this duty by failing to provide the standard of care that a reasonable medical professional would have provided in similar circumstances. This breach of duty can result in harm or injury to the patient. Fraud and deceit, breach of contract, and breach of confidence are not as commonly associated with medical tort liability as negligence.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A person being sued is called the
- A.
Plaintiff
- B.
Tort
- C.
Defendant
- D.
Criminal law
Correct Answer
C. DefendantExplanation
A person being sued is called the defendant. In a legal case, the defendant is the individual or entity that is being accused or held responsible for a wrongdoing or violation. They are the party against whom a claim or lawsuit is filed, and they must defend themselves in court against the allegations made by the plaintiff. The defendant is given the opportunity to present their side of the story and provide evidence or arguments to counter the claims made against them.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The withdrawal of a physician from the care of a patient without reasonable notice of such discharge from the case by the patient is
- A.
Contract
- B.
Reasonable care
- C.
Negligence
- D.
Abandonment
Correct Answer
D. AbandonmentExplanation
Abandonment refers to the withdrawal of a physician from a patient's care without providing reasonable notice or without the patient's consent. This act is considered unethical and can have negative consequences for the patient's health. It implies a breach of the physician's duty to provide appropriate care and can be seen as negligence. Therefore, abandonment is the correct answer in this context.Rate this question:
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- 5.
unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another is
- A.
Litigation
- B.
Assault
- C.
Crime
- D.
Libel
Correct Answer
C. CrimeExplanation
The correct answer is "crime." A crime refers to an unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another. It is a broad term that encompasses various illegal activities that are punishable by law. Litigation refers to the process of taking legal action, assault refers to the act of physically attacking someone, and libel refers to the act of making false statements about someone in written form. Therefore, out of the given options, only "crime" accurately describes the concept of an unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Negligence by a professional person is called
- A.
Invasion of privacy
- B.
Slander
- C.
Malpractice
- D.
Tort
Correct Answer
C. MalpracticeExplanation
Negligence by a professional person is referred to as malpractice. Malpractice typically occurs when a professional fails to provide the expected standard of care, resulting in harm or injury to a client or patient. This term is commonly used in the context of medical, legal, and other professional fields where individuals are expected to adhere to certain standards and ethics in their practice.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The ability to see things from another persons point of view is
- A.
Consent
- B.
Respondeat superior
- C.
Empathy
- D.
Ethics
Correct Answer
C. EmpathyExplanation
Empathy refers to the ability to understand and share the feelings of another person. It involves putting oneself in someone else's shoes and seeing things from their perspective. This ability allows individuals to connect with others on a deeper level, understand their emotions, and respond with compassion and understanding. Empathy is an important quality in building and maintaining relationships, resolving conflicts, and promoting understanding and cooperation among people.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The time established for filing law suits is
- A.
Civil law
- B.
Statute of limitations
- C.
Contract
- D.
No correct answer
Correct Answer
B. Statute of limitationsExplanation
The correct answer is "statute of limitations." In civil law, the statute of limitations refers to the time period within which a lawsuit must be filed. It sets a deadline for individuals to bring legal action against someone for a civil matter. Once the statute of limitations has expired, the individual loses their right to file a lawsuit. This time limit varies depending on the jurisdiction and the type of civil case involved.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding and to give testimony is a(n)
- A.
Habeas corpus
- B.
Tort of appearance
- C.
Subpoena
- D.
Tort et a travers
Correct Answer
C. SubpoenaExplanation
A subpoena is a writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding and to give testimony. It is a legal document issued by a court that requires a person to testify as a witness or provide evidence. This is different from a habeas corpus, which is a writ used to bring a person who has been detained or imprisoned before a court to determine if their detention is lawful. The other options, tort of appearance and tort et a travers, are not relevant to the context of the question.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A major crime for which greater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is
- A.
Licensure
- B.
Civil law
- C.
Tort
- D.
Felony
Correct Answer
D. FelonyExplanation
A major crime for which greater punishment is imposed other than a misdemeanor is a felony. Felonies are serious offenses that typically involve violence or significant harm to individuals or property. They are more severe than misdemeanors and carry higher penalties, such as imprisonment for more than a year or even the death penalty in some cases. Examples of felonies include murder, robbery, and rape.Rate this question:
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- 11.
One who institutes a lawsuit is
- A.
Defendant
- B.
Plaintiff
- C.
Litigation
- D.
Respondeat superior
Correct Answer
B. PlaintiffExplanation
In a legal context, the person who initiates a lawsuit is known as the plaintiff. They are the party who brings the case to court, seeking a legal remedy or resolution for a perceived wrong or harm. The plaintiff is responsible for presenting their case and providing evidence to support their claims. The defendant, on the other hand, is the party against whom the lawsuit is filed and is required to respond to the allegations made by the plaintiff.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A legal statement of how an indivduals property is to be distributed after death is
- A.
Contract
- B.
Tort
- C.
Will
- D.
Judgment
Correct Answer
C. WillExplanation
A will is a legal statement that outlines how an individual's property is to be distributed after their death. It is a document that allows a person to specify their wishes regarding the division of their assets among their beneficiaries. A will can also appoint an executor to carry out these instructions and may include other provisions such as guardianship of minor children.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Failure to do something that a reasonable person would do under ordinary circumstances that ends up causing harm to anther persons property is
- A.
Malpractice
- B.
Negligence
- C.
Slander
- D.
Defamation
Correct Answer
B. NegligenceExplanation
Negligence refers to the failure to fulfill a reasonable duty of care that results in harm to someone else's property. It involves the omission of an action that a reasonable person would have taken in ordinary circumstances. Negligence is different from malpractice, which specifically applies to professional misconduct, and from slander and defamation, which involve false statements that harm someone's reputation.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Responsibility of an employer for the acts of an employee is
- A.
Libel
- B.
Malpractice
- C.
Respondeat superior
- D.
Civil law
Correct Answer
C. Respondeat superiorExplanation
Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine that holds employers responsible for the actions of their employees. Under this doctrine, an employer can be held liable for the wrongful acts or negligence committed by an employee while performing their job duties. This principle is based on the idea that employers have control and authority over their employees and should bear the responsibility for any harm caused by their actions. Therefore, respondeat superior is the correct answer as it accurately describes the legal concept of an employer's responsibility for the acts of an employee.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A latin term signifying that a person is not of sound mind is
- A.
Res gestae
- B.
Non compos mentis
- C.
Res judicata
- D.
Tecum
Correct Answer
B. Non compos mentisExplanation
The Latin term "non compos mentis" refers to a person who is not of sound mind. This term is often used in legal contexts to describe someone who lacks the mental capacity to understand their actions or make informed decisions. It is typically used as a defense in cases where the person's mental state is called into question, such as in criminal trials or when determining someone's ability to manage their own affairs.Rate this question:
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- 16.
.a person who is no longer under the care custody or supervision of a parent is called a(n)
- A.
Emancipated minor
- B.
Plaintiff
- C.
Defendant
- D.
Tort
Correct Answer
A. Emancipated minorExplanation
An emancipated minor refers to a person who is no longer under the care, custody, or supervision of a parent. This typically occurs when a minor is granted legal independence and is considered an adult in terms of certain rights and responsibilities. Emancipation allows the minor to make decisions and take actions that would normally require parental consent, such as signing contracts, getting married, or living independently. Therefore, an emancipated minor is the correct term for a person who is no longer under parental care.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Conduct,courtesy,and manners that are customarily used in a medical office by medical professionals are known as
- A.
Ethics
- B.
Moral therapy
- C.
Precocity
- D.
Medical etiquette
Correct Answer
D. Medical etiquetteExplanation
Medical etiquette refers to the conduct, courtesy, and manners that are customarily used in a medical office by medical professionals. It encompasses the ethical principles and moral values that guide their behavior and interactions with patients, colleagues, and other healthcare professionals. It includes aspects such as respect for patient autonomy, confidentiality, professionalism, empathy, and effective communication. Adhering to medical etiquette helps create a positive and respectful environment in the medical office, ensuring the provision of high-quality and compassionate care to patients.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Latin for things decided that is ,matter already decided by juicial authority is called
- A.
Res judicata
- B.
Respondeat superior
- C.
Locum tenems
- D.
No correct answer
Correct Answer
A. Res judicataExplanation
Res judicata is the correct answer because it refers to a Latin term that means "a matter already decided by judicial authority." It is a legal principle that states that once a final decision has been made by a court, it is binding and cannot be re-litigated. This principle helps to ensure the finality and stability of legal judgments.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The presumption or inference of negligence when an accident is otherwise unable to be explanined in terms of ordinary and known experience is called
- A.
Res judicata
- B.
Res ipsa loquitur
- C.
Locum lenems
- D.
Res gestae
Correct Answer
B. Res ipsa loquiturExplanation
Res ipsa loquitur is a legal doctrine that allows the presumption of negligence when an accident cannot be explained by ordinary and known experience. This means that the mere occurrence of an accident implies negligence on the part of the defendant. The Latin phrase "res ipsa loquitur" translates to "the thing speaks for itself," indicating that the circumstances surrounding the accident provide sufficient evidence of negligence without further explanation. This doctrine is often used in cases where the plaintiff lacks direct evidence of negligence but can show that the accident would not have occurred without negligence.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What license must a physician have to dispense prescribe or administer controlled substances
- A.
Lawyers
- B.
Narcotic
- C.
Business
- D.
Occupational
Correct Answer
B. NarcoticExplanation
A physician must have a narcotic license in order to dispense, prescribe, or administer controlled substances. This license is required to ensure that the physician is knowledgeable and qualified to handle and distribute narcotics safely and responsibly. It is a legal requirement to possess this license to prevent misuse or illegal distribution of controlled substances, and to protect the health and safety of patients.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Under the peer review improvement act of 1982,peer review organizations are responsible for rhe review for appropriateness and necessity of patient into hospital by a process known as--------- review
- A.
Procedure
- B.
Admissions
- C.
Cost
- D.
Quality
Correct Answer
B. AdmissionsExplanation
Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, peer review organizations are responsible for reviewing the appropriateness and necessity of patient admissions into hospitals. This means that they assess whether a patient's admission to a hospital is necessary and appropriate based on their medical condition and the available resources. Therefore, the correct answer is "admissions" as it accurately reflects the process of reviewing patient admissions.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A fraudulent signature is called____________
- A.
Endorsement
- B.
Forgery
- C.
Fraud
- D.
Forbearance
Correct Answer
B. ForgeryExplanation
Forgery refers to the act of creating or imitating a signature, document, or object with the intention to deceive or defraud others. It involves the unauthorized replication or alteration of someone's signature for fraudulent purposes. Therefore, a fraudulent signature is called forgery.Rate this question:
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- 23.
An incoming called should be answerd by the___________ ring
- A.
Third
- B.
First
- C.
Second
- D.
Fourth
Correct Answer
A. ThirdExplanation
The correct answer is "third" because when an incoming call is received, it should be answered after three rings. This allows the recipient enough time to answer the call without it ringing indefinitely or being missed if answered too quickly.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Prior to answring an incoming called the medical assistant should
- A.
Finish up with previous call
- B.
Smile
- C.
Screen the call with caller id
- D.
Release any anger
Correct Answer
B. SmileExplanation
The correct answer is "smile" because as a medical assistant, it is important to maintain a positive and friendly demeanor when answering incoming calls. Smiling can help create a welcoming and comforting atmosphere for the caller, which is especially important in a medical setting where patients may be anxious or worried. By smiling, the medical assistant can effectively communicate empathy and professionalism, making the caller feel more at ease and confident in the assistance they will receive.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A person who represents either party of an insurance claim is the____________
- A.
Doctor
- B.
Adjuster
- C.
Provider
- D.
Subscriber
Correct Answer
B. AdjusterExplanation
An adjuster is a person who represents either party of an insurance claim. They are responsible for investigating and evaluating the claim, determining the extent of the insurance coverage, and negotiating settlements. The adjuster acts as a mediator between the insurance company and the claimant, ensuring that the claim is handled fairly and accurately. They assess the damages, analyze policy terms, and make recommendations for payment. Therefore, the correct answer is adjuster.Rate this question:
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- 26.
To prevent the insured fram receiving a duplicate payment for losses under more thanone insurance policy is called__________
- A.
Fee for service
- B.
Hospital benefits
- C.
Coordination of benefits
- D.
Non duplication benefits
Correct Answer
C. Coordination of benefitsExplanation
Coordination of benefits refers to the process of preventing the insured from receiving duplicate payments for losses under multiple insurance policies. This is done to ensure that the insured does not receive more than the actual amount of the loss. By coordinating benefits, the insurance companies involved can determine which policy is primary and which is secondary, and then coordinate the payments accordingly. This helps to avoid overpayment and ensures that the insured is not financially advantaged by having multiple insurance policies covering the same loss.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Insurance that is meant to offset medical expenses resulting from a catastrophic illness is called-_____________
- A.
Primary insurance
- B.
Major medical
- C.
Whole life policy
- D.
In percent policy
Correct Answer
B. Major medicalExplanation
Major medical insurance is designed to provide coverage for significant and unexpected medical expenses, particularly those resulting from catastrophic illnesses or injuries. This type of insurance typically offers a higher level of coverage and may include benefits such as hospital stays, surgeries, and specialized treatments. It is meant to protect individuals from the financial burden of extensive medical costs that can arise from serious health conditions.Rate this question:
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- 28.
To correct a hand written error in a pstient s chart, it is only acceptable to
- A.
White it out neatly and insert the correct information
- B.
Write over the error
- C.
Scratch through the error so it cannot be read
- D.
Draw a line through the error,insert the correct information, date and initial it
Correct Answer
D. Draw a line through the error,insert the correct information, date and initial itExplanation
To correct a hand written error in a patient's chart, it is only acceptable to draw a line through the error, insert the correct information, date and initial it. This method ensures that the original error is still visible but crossed out, allowing anyone reviewing the chart to see the correction made. Additionally, dating and initialing the correction provides a clear indication of who made the correction and when it was made, maintaining transparency and accountability in the documentation process.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The reference procedural code book that uses a numbering system developed by the AMA is called
- A.
Reference manual
- B.
Current procedural terminology
- C.
Insurance claim manual
- D.
Manual for current procedures
Correct Answer
B. Current procedural terminologyExplanation
The correct answer is current procedural terminology. Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) is a coding system developed by the American Medical Association (AMA) to describe medical, surgical, and diagnostic services. It is widely used in healthcare settings to ensure accurate reporting and billing of procedures. The reference procedural code book that uses the AMA's numbering system is known as the current procedural terminology.Rate this question:
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- 30.
In insurance coding using an E code designates_______________
- A.
A factor that contributes to a condition or disease
- B.
Classification of environmental events, such as poisoning
- C.
The primary diagnosis
- D.
Cancers
Correct Answer
B. Classification of environmental events, such as poisoningExplanation
In insurance coding, using an E code designates the classification of environmental events, such as poisoning. E codes are used to identify external causes of injury or poisoning in medical records. They provide information about the circumstances surrounding an injury or illness, such as the cause, location, and intent. By using E codes, insurance companies can accurately classify and analyze environmental events, such as poisonings, to determine coverage and assess risk.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The suffix -emia means_____________-
- A.
Blood
- B.
Erudite
- C.
Hematemesis
- D.
Condition of the urine
Correct Answer
A. BloodExplanation
The suffix "-emia" is commonly used in medical terminology to refer to a condition or presence of a substance in the blood. Therefore, the correct answer is "blood."Rate this question:
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- 32.
The medical term for expanding or opening wider is___________
- A.
Dysuria
- B.
Defamation
- C.
Dilate
- D.
Etelectasis
Correct Answer
C. DilateExplanation
The correct answer is "dilate" because it is the medical term used to describe the action of expanding or opening wider. Dysuria refers to painful or difficult urination, defamation refers to damaging someone's reputation, and etelectasis refers to the collapse of a lung or part of a lung.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The medical term for paralysis from the waist down is
- A.
Coma
- B.
Quadriplegia
- C.
Disaster
- D.
Paraplegia
Correct Answer
D. ParaplegiaExplanation
Paraplegia is the correct answer because it refers to the medical condition where there is paralysis from the waist down. It is characterized by the loss of sensation and movement in the lower half of the body, including the legs. Coma is a state of prolonged unconsciousness, quadriplegia refers to paralysis of all four limbs, and disaster is not a medical term related to paralysis.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The medical term for paralysis from the neck down is
- A.
Paraplegia
- B.
Quadriplegia
- C.
Hemiplegia
- D.
Stroke
Correct Answer
B. QuadriplegiaExplanation
Quadriplegia is the correct answer because it refers to the medical condition where a person experiences paralysis from the neck down. This means that all four limbs, as well as the torso, are affected by the paralysis. It is caused by damage to the spinal cord or brain, resulting in the loss of motor and sensory function in the affected areas.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The medical term for paralysis on one side of the body is
- A.
paraplegia
- B.
Coma
- C.
Hemiplegia
- D.
Quadriplegia
Correct Answer
C. HemiplegiaExplanation
Hemiplegia is the correct answer because it refers to the medical term for paralysis on one side of the body. It is derived from the Greek words "hemi" meaning half and "plegia" meaning paralysis. This condition typically occurs due to damage or injury to the opposite side of the brain, resulting in loss of movement and sensation on one side of the body. Paraplegia and quadriplegia, on the other hand, refer to paralysis of the lower limbs and all four limbs respectively, while coma refers to a state of unconsciousness.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The medical term for moving a body part away from the body is
- A.
Rotation
- B.
Abduction
- C.
Dorsiflexion
- D.
Pronation
Correct Answer
B. AbductionExplanation
Abduction is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of a body part away from the body's midline. This movement can occur in various parts of the body, such as the arms or legs, and is commonly used to describe movements like raising the arms out to the sides or spreading the fingers apart. Rotation refers to the movement of a body part around its own axis, dorsiflexion refers to the movement of bending the foot upward, and pronation refers to the rotation of the forearm so that the palm faces downward.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The medical term for turning the palm backward is
- A.
Pronation
- B.
Adduction
- C.
External rotation
- D.
Supination
Correct Answer
A. PronationExplanation
Pronation is the correct answer because it refers to the act of turning the palm backward. It is the movement of rotating the forearm so that the palm faces downwards or posteriorly. This motion is commonly observed when turning the hand to place it in a prone position, such as when lying face down. Adduction, external rotation, and supination do not specifically describe the action of turning the palm backward.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The abbreviation for bedtime or hour of sleep is
- A.
Ht
- B.
B.m. or B.M.
- C.
Hs
- D.
BSC or bsc
Correct Answer
C. HsExplanation
The correct answer is "hs" because it is commonly used as an abbreviation for "hora somni" in medical and healthcare contexts, which means "hour of sleep" or "bedtime" in Latin. It is often used to indicate the time at which a patient should take their medication or go to sleep. The other options provided (ht, b.m., B.M., BSC, bsc) are not commonly used abbreviations for bedtime or hour of sleep.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The abbreviation for electroencephalogram is______________
- A.
EEG
- B.
EKG
- C.
ECG
- D.
E
Correct Answer
A. EEGExplanation
The correct abbreviation for electroencephalogram is EEG.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The common term for a decbitus ulcer .a pressure sore is
- A.
Blister
- B.
Pimple
- C.
Fever blister
- D.
Bedsore
Correct Answer
D. BedsoreExplanation
A decubitus ulcer, commonly known as a bedsore, is a type of pressure sore that occurs when there is prolonged pressure on a specific area of the skin. This pressure restricts blood flow to the area, leading to tissue damage and the formation of an open sore. The term "bedsore" is used to describe this condition because it often develops in individuals who are bedridden or have limited mobility, as they are more prone to prolonged pressure on certain body parts.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The abbreviation for electroencephalogram is______________
- A.
EEG
- B.
EKG
- C.
ECG
- D.
E
Correct Answer
A. EEGExplanation
The correct answer is EEG. EEG stands for electroencephalogram, which is a test that measures and records the electrical activity of the brain. This abbreviation is commonly used in medical and scientific contexts to refer to this specific test.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The abbreviation for toxic shock syndrome is
- A.
TSS
- B.
Tox
- C.
Tsx
- D.
Txs
Correct Answer
A. TSSExplanation
The correct answer is TSS. TSS is the abbreviation for toxic shock syndrome, a rare but serious condition caused by certain types of bacteria. It can cause symptoms such as high fever, rash, low blood pressure, and organ failure. The abbreviation TSS is commonly used in medical literature and discussions to refer to this specific syndrome.Rate this question:
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- 43.
The abbreviation for toxic shock syndrome is
- A.
TSS
- B.
Tox
- C.
Tsx
- D.
Txs
Correct Answer
A. TSSExplanation
The correct answer is TSS. TSS is the abbreviation for toxic shock syndrome.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The abbreviation for chief complaint is
- A.
CC
- B.
Ccom
- C.
Chf
- D.
Ccfd
Correct Answer
A. CCExplanation
The correct answer is CC. CC stands for chief complaint, which refers to the main reason or concern that a patient presents to a healthcare professional seeking medical attention. It is a concise summary of the symptoms, problems, or conditions that the patient is experiencing and wishes to address during their visit.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Physicians with a narcotics license are required to register on june 30 of each year with
- A.
Food and drug administration
- B.
Drug enforcement agency
- C.
American red cross
- D.
American medical association
Correct Answer
B. Drug enforcement agencyExplanation
Physicians with a narcotics license are required to register on June 30 of each year with the Drug Enforcement Agency. This is because the Drug Enforcement Agency is responsible for regulating and enforcing laws related to controlled substances, including narcotics. By registering with the DEA, physicians are ensuring that they are in compliance with the law and are authorized to prescribe and handle narcotics in their medical practice. The registration process helps to track and monitor the distribution and use of narcotics, ensuring their safe and appropriate use for medical purposes.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A drug that causes urination is called a(n)
- A.
Diuretic
- B.
Emetic
- C.
Cirrhotic
- D.
Esculent
Correct Answer
A. DiureticExplanation
A drug that causes urination is called a diuretic. Diuretics work by increasing the production of urine, which helps to remove excess fluid and salt from the body. They are commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure, edema, and kidney disorders. Diuretics can help to reduce fluid retention and lower blood pressure by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Adrug used to relieve a cough is called a(n)
- A.
Antitussive
- B.
Bronchodilator
- C.
Antiseptic
- D.
Antitoxin
Correct Answer
A. AntitussiveExplanation
An antitussive is a drug used to relieve a cough. It works by suppressing the cough reflex and reducing the urge to cough. This type of medication is commonly used to treat dry, non-productive coughs that do not produce mucus. Antitussives can be found in various forms such as syrups, lozenges, or tablets, and they help provide temporary relief from coughing symptoms.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Adurg that increases urinary output is called a (n)
- A.
Miotic
- B.
Diuretic
- C.
Cytotoxin
- D.
Expectorant
Correct Answer
B. DiureticExplanation
A diuretic is a substance that increases urinary output. It helps the body get rid of excess water and salt by increasing the production of urine. This can be beneficial for individuals with conditions such as high blood pressure, edema, or kidney problems. Diuretics work by influencing the kidneys to remove more sodium and water from the bloodstream, which ultimately leads to increased urine production.Rate this question:
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- 49.
A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil,is called a (n)
- A.
Solution
- B.
Emulsion
- C.
Elixir
- D.
Tinctures
Correct Answer
B. EmulsionExplanation
An emulsion is a liquid preparation that consists of fine droplets of one liquid (in this case, oil) dispersed in another liquid (in this case, water). Castor oil, being an oil, does not dissolve in water but can be mixed into small droplets that are suspended in the water, creating an emulsion. Therefore, the correct answer is emulsion.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Hydrortisone is a drug used to suppress
- A.
Inflammation
- B.
Appetite
- C.
Swelling
- D.
Excretion of urine
Correct Answer
A. InflammationExplanation
Hydrocortisone is a drug that is commonly used to suppress inflammation. Inflammation is a natural response of the body to injury or infection, characterized by redness, swelling, and pain. Hydrocortisone works by reducing the production of substances in the body that cause inflammation, thereby alleviating symptoms such as swelling and pain. It is commonly used in the treatment of various inflammatory conditions, such as arthritis, allergies, and skin disorders.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 08, 2011Quiz Created by
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