CDC 6C051B : Ultimate Quiz On Contracting Journeyman! Trivia

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CDC 6C051B : Ultimate Quiz On Contracting Journeyman! Trivia - Quiz

What we have here is the ultimate CDC 6C051B trivia quiz on Contracting Journeyman. It is perfectly designed to help you revise adequately for the upcoming exam while at the same time seeing how you would have scored if this was your actual exam. Be true to yourself and don’t check the answers first — all the best in your revision.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A negotiated contract is

    • A.

      A solicitation awarded from an invitation for bids (IFB).

    • B.

      A contract awarded without discussions.

    • C.

      Any contract awarded without using sealed bidding.

    • D.

      An awarded contract using noncompetitive methods.

    Correct Answer
    C. Any contract awarded without using sealed bidding.
    Explanation
    A negotiated contract refers to any contract that is awarded without using sealed bidding. This means that the contract is not awarded based on a competitive bidding process where sealed bids are submitted. Instead, negotiations take place between the contracting parties to determine the terms and conditions of the contract. This allows for more flexibility and customization in the contract, as compared to contracts awarded through sealed bidding.

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  • 2. 

    What circumstance allows an invitation for bids (IFB) to be converted to a request for proposal (RFP)?

    • A.

      Time allows for reasonable bidding time.

    • B.

      Unreasonable prices or only one bid was received.

    • C.

      The bids were independently arrived at and not collusive.

    • D.

      There is a reasonable expectation of at least two or more responsible bidders.

    Correct Answer
    B. Unreasonable prices or only one bid was received.
    Explanation
    If only one bid is received or if the prices quoted by the bidders are deemed unreasonable, the invitation for bids (IFB) can be converted to a request for proposal (RFP). This allows for a more flexible negotiation process where the organization can seek better pricing or additional proposals from other potential bidders. This conversion is necessary to ensure fair competition and obtain the best value for the organization.

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  • 3. 

    When compared to sealed bidding, the negotiation process is considered more

    • A.

      Rigid

    • B.

      Flexible.

    • C.

      Expeditious.

    • D.

      Competitive.

    Correct Answer
    B. Flexible.
    Explanation
    The negotiation process is considered more flexible when compared to sealed bidding. In sealed bidding, the terms and conditions are predetermined, and there is no room for negotiation or flexibility. On the other hand, in the negotiation process, parties have the opportunity to discuss and negotiate various aspects of the deal, such as price, terms, and conditions. This flexibility allows for a more customized and tailored agreement that meets the needs and preferences of both parties involved.

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  • 4. 

    Once it has been determined that negotiation of a contract is in the best interest of the government, the contracting officer

    • A.

      Must award to the responsible bidder offering the lowest price.

    • B.

      Must award to the responsible bidder offering the lowest price.

    • C.

      Has to accept the contractor’s proposed profit and fee.

    • D.

      Has wide latitude in exercising business judgement.

    Correct Answer
    D. Has wide latitude in exercising business judgement.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "has wide latitude in exercising business judgement." This means that the contracting officer has the freedom and authority to make decisions based on their own professional judgement and expertise. They are not strictly bound to award the contract to the bidder offering the lowest price or accept the contractor's proposed profit and fee. They have the flexibility to consider various factors such as the bidder's responsibility, past performance, technical capabilities, and overall value for the government. This allows the contracting officer to make informed decisions that best serve the interests of the government.

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  • 5. 

    When responding to a solicitation for a negotiated action, contractors submit

    • A.

      A bid.

    • B.

      An offer.

    • C.

      A package.

    • D.

      A proposal.

    Correct Answer
    D. A proposal.
    Explanation
    When responding to a solicitation for a negotiated action, contractors submit a proposal. This is because a proposal is a detailed document that outlines the contractor's approach, methodology, and cost for completing the project or providing the requested goods or services. It includes information on the contractor's qualifications, past experience, and any unique selling points that differentiate them from other potential contractors. A proposal is typically more comprehensive and detailed than a bid, offer, or package, as it aims to convince the soliciting party that the contractor is the best fit for the project.

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  • 6. 

    Exchanging information with industry serves what purpose?

    • A.

      Shortens large bid lists by eliminating contractors.

    • B.

      Allows the government to determine the lowest price a contractor will propose.

    • C.

      Improves the understanding of the government’s requirements and industry capabilities.

    • D.

      Streamlines the acquisition process by reducing the amount of paperwork required.

    Correct Answer
    C. Improves the understanding of the government’s requirements and industry capabilities.
    Explanation
    Exchanging information with industry serves the purpose of improving the understanding of the government's requirements and industry capabilities. This allows the government to have a better understanding of what the industry can offer and helps them align their requirements accordingly. It also enables the government to gain insights into the latest market trends, technologies, and best practices, which can further enhance their procurement process. By exchanging information, the government can make informed decisions and ensure that their requirements are met effectively and efficiently.

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  • 7. 

    Which statement best describes oral presentation?

    • A.

      They may be a substitute for written information

    • B.

      They occur during the final round of negotiations.

    • C.

      They are evaluated quantitatively and scored by the government.

    • D.

      They may contain only the information provided in the offeror’s proposal.

    Correct Answer
    A. They may be a substitute for written information
    Explanation
    Oral presentations can serve as a substitute for written information because they allow individuals to convey their ideas, arguments, and proposals verbally instead of relying solely on written documents. This form of communication can be effective in conveying complex information, engaging the audience, and providing additional context or clarification that may not be easily conveyed through written materials alone. Oral presentations can also allow for immediate feedback and interaction, fostering a more dynamic and interactive exchange of information compared to written communication.

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  • 8. 

    When are contracting officers relieved from complying with portions of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) concerning letter request for proposals (RFPs)?

    • A.

      When supervising foreign procurement.

    • B.

      When an urgency exists and FAR compliance would be restricted.

    • C.

      When permitted under circumstances of other than full-and-open competition.

    • D.

      Using a letter RFP does not eliminate the requirement to comply with other portions of FAR

    Correct Answer
    D. Using a letter RFP does not eliminate the requirement to comply with other portions of FAR
    Explanation
    When using a letter request for proposals (RFP), contracting officers are not relieved from complying with other portions of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR). This means that even if a letter RFP is being used, all other requirements and regulations outlined in the FAR still need to be followed.

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  • 9. 

    If a negotiated procurement is to be awarded based on other-than-price and price-related factors, this information is found in solicitation Section

    • A.

      B, Supplies or services and prices/costs.

    • B.

      C, Description/specifications/work statement.

    • C.

      L, Instructions, conditions, and notices to offerors and respondents

    • D.

      M, Evaluation factors for award

    Correct Answer
    D. M, Evaluation factors for award
    Explanation
    The correct answer is M, Evaluation factors for award. This is because the evaluation factors for award determine how the procurement will be evaluated and which factors, other than price, will be considered in the decision-making process. This section of the solicitation provides information on how the proposals will be evaluated and the weight given to each factor. It helps the contracting officer determine the best value for the government based on the evaluation criteria specified.

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  • 10. 

    Who decides if a preproposal conference is required and makes the necessary arrangements?

    • A.

      Contract specialist.

    • B.

      Contracting officer.

    • C.

      Functional commander.

    • D.

      Quality assurance personnel.

    Correct Answer
    B. Contracting officer.
    Explanation
    The contracting officer is responsible for deciding if a preproposal conference is required and for making the necessary arrangements. This is because the contracting officer is the individual who has the authority to enter into and administer contracts on behalf of the government. They are responsible for ensuring that the procurement process is conducted in a fair and transparent manner, and a preproposal conference may be necessary to provide potential bidders with additional information or clarification about the requirements of the contract.

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  • 11. 

    When amending a request for proposal (RFP), what may be changed?

    • A.

      Quantity, specifications, contract.

    • B.

      Quantity, contract type, specifications

    • C.

      Quantity, specifications, delivery schedules

    • D.

      Defects or ambiguities after the closing date.

    Correct Answer
    C. Quantity, specifications, delivery schedules
    Explanation
    When amending a request for proposal (RFP), changes can be made to the quantity of the requested items, the specifications of the items being requested, and the delivery schedules for the items.

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  • 12. 

    After the closing date, amendments to request for proposals (RFPs) are provided to

    • A.

      All interested parties

    • B.

      Only the top three ranked offerors

    • C.

      All parties on the original bidders mailing list.

    • D.

      All offerors that have not been eliminated from the competitive range.

    Correct Answer
    D. All offerors that have not been eliminated from the competitive range.
    Explanation
    After the closing date of request for proposals (RFPs), amendments are provided to all offerors that have not been eliminated from the competitive range. This means that only the offerors who have not been disqualified or eliminated from consideration will receive the amendments. It is important to provide these amendments to ensure fairness and equal opportunity for all offerors who are still in the running for the project or contract.

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  • 13. 

    Which circumstance would justify canceling a request for proposal (RFP) before closing?

    • A.

      The incumbent contractor did not submit a proposal

    • B.

      Several contractors have combined together into a teaming arrangement.

    • C.

      Changes are so substantial that additional sources likely would have submitted offers.

    • D.

      The civil servants union submitted a complaint about the ongoing competitive sourcing.

    Correct Answer
    C. Changes are so substantial that additional sources likely would have submitted offers.
    Explanation
    If the changes in the circumstances are so significant that it is expected that additional sources would have submitted offers, it would justify canceling the request for proposal (RFP) before closing. This is because the changes may have a significant impact on the requirements or scope of the project, and it would be fair to allow potential vendors to adjust their proposals accordingly. By canceling the RFP, the organization can ensure a fair and competitive bidding process that takes into account the new circumstances.

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  • 14. 

    The best description of a modification to a proposal is

    • A.

      A change made to correct a mistake after award.

    • B.

      A change made after the solicitation’s closing date and time.

    • C.

      A change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.

    • D.

      All changes made after exceeding the maximum number of amendments.

    Correct Answer
    C. A change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.
    Explanation
    A modification to a proposal refers to a change that is made before the solicitation's closing date and time. This means that any adjustments or revisions to the proposal can be made within the given timeframe before the submission deadline. It is important to make these modifications to ensure accuracy and improve the proposal based on any new information or requirements.

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  • 15. 

    The best description of a revision to a proposal is

    • A.

      A revision amends a change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.

    • B.

      A change made after the solicitation closing date at the request of a contracting officer as a result of negotiations.

    • C.

      A revision corrects a change made before the solicitation’s closing date and time.

    • D.

      A change made after the solicitation closing date made during negotiations at the contractor’s request.

    Correct Answer
    B. A change made after the solicitation closing date at the request of a contracting officer as a result of negotiations.
    Explanation
    A revision to a proposal refers to a change made after the solicitation closing date at the request of a contracting officer as a result of negotiations. This means that the proposal undergoes modifications or adjustments based on discussions and negotiations between the contracting officer and the contractor. The change is made after the closing date, indicating that it is a post-submission alteration. This revision allows for potential improvements or adjustments to the proposal based on negotiations between the two parties involved.

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  • 16. 

    Can a proposal be withdrawn at any time before award?

    • A.

      Yes, by written notice at any time before award.

    • B.

      No, the proposal is retained with the contract file.

    • C.

      No, once submitted, the proposal will be opened at closing.

    • D.

      Yes, at any time before award, provided the contracting officer writes a determination and finding (D&F).

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes, by written notice at any time before award.
    Explanation
    A proposal can be withdrawn at any time before award by providing written notice. This means that if the party who submitted the proposal decides they no longer want to proceed with it, they have the option to withdraw it by notifying the relevant authorities in writing. This allows for flexibility and ensures that parties are not bound to a proposal if they change their mind or circumstances change.

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  • 17. 

    When using a tradeoff process, all the evaluation factors that affect award will be disclosed

    • A.

      In the solicitation.

    • B.

      During negotiations.

    • C.

      In presolicitation notices.

    • D.

      In the notice to unsuccessful offerors.

    Correct Answer
    A. In the solicitation.
    Explanation
    When using a tradeoff process, all the evaluation factors that affect award will be disclosed in the solicitation. This means that the factors that will be considered when making a decision on which offer to select will be clearly stated in the solicitation document. This allows all potential offerors to have a clear understanding of what criteria will be used to evaluate their proposals and make an informed decision on whether to submit a bid.

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  • 18. 

    Which statement is true about the lowest price technically acceptable source selection process?

    • A.

      Any tradeoffs are okay and are encouraged.

    • B.

      Exchanges with contractors will not be required or allowed.

    • C.

      Proposals are ranked based on noncost/price factors.

    • D.

      Award is made to the lowest priced proposal that meets or exceeds standards

    Correct Answer
    D. Award is made to the lowest priced proposal that meets or exceeds standards
    Explanation
    In the lowest price technically acceptable source selection process, the award is given to the proposal with the lowest price that meets or exceeds the required standards. This means that any tradeoffs are not allowed or encouraged, and the focus is solely on selecting the proposal that meets the standards at the lowest price. Exchanges with contractors are also not required or allowed in this process. The ranking of proposals is based on noncost/price factors, indicating that other factors such as quality and technical capabilities are considered in the evaluation process.

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  • 19. 

    Performance price tradeoff allows tradeoffs between which two evaluation factors?

    • A.

      Technical merit and price/cost.

    • B.

      Price/cost and past performance.

    • C.

      Past performance and quality.

    • D.

      Quality and technical merit.

    Correct Answer
    B. Price/cost and past performance.
    Explanation
    The performance price tradeoff refers to the balance between the cost of a product or service and its past performance. It allows decision-makers to consider the tradeoffs between these two factors when evaluating options. In this case, the correct answer is "Price/cost and past performance" because it accurately identifies the two evaluation factors involved in the performance price tradeoff.

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  • 20. 

    When using source selection procedures, the source selection organization consists of personnel representing

    • A.

      Government and contractor personnel as needed.

    • B.

      Government personnel, including one technical member and one contracting member.

    • C.

      Contractor personnel representing the various functional disciplines involved.

    • D.

      Government and contractor personnel representing various functional and technical disciplines.

    Correct Answer
    B. Government personnel, including one technical member and one contracting member.
    Explanation
    When using source selection procedures, the source selection organization consists of government personnel, including one technical member and one contracting member. This means that the organization is made up of individuals from the government side, specifically one member with technical expertise and one member with contracting expertise. This ensures that both technical and contracting aspects are considered and represented in the source selection process. Contractor personnel and other functional disciplines may also be involved, but the key requirement is the presence of government personnel with the specified expertise.

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  • 21. 

    Who is normally the source selection authority for procurements?

    • A.

      Contract specialist.

    • B.

      Contracting officer.

    • C.

      Functional commander

    • D.

      Quality assurance personnel.

    Correct Answer
    B. Contracting officer.
    Explanation
    The contracting officer is normally the source selection authority for procurements. This individual is responsible for the overall acquisition process, including conducting market research, soliciting bids or proposals, evaluating offers, and selecting the winning contractor. They have the authority to negotiate and award contracts on behalf of the government. The contract specialist supports the contracting officer by providing expertise in contract administration and assisting with the procurement process. The functional commander and quality assurance personnel may have input or involvement in the procurement process, but the contracting officer ultimately holds the authority to make the final decision.

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  • 22. 

    The source selection authority is responsible for

    • A.

      The contract award portion only.

    • B.

      Selection and contract award only

    • C.

      Selecting the source selection evaluation team only.

    • D.

      Solicitation, evaluation, selection, and contract award.

    Correct Answer
    D. Solicitation, evaluation, selection, and contract award.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "solicitation, evaluation, selection, and contract award." This means that the source selection authority is responsible for the entire process of soliciting bids, evaluating them, selecting a source, and awarding the contract. They have the authority to oversee and make decisions at each stage of the process, ensuring that it is conducted fairly and in accordance with the requirements and criteria set forth in the solicitation.

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  • 23. 

    All are distinct parts that are included in the source selection plan (SSP) except a 

    • A.

      Source selection team.

    • B.

      Presolicitation activities.

    • C.

      Evaluation factors and subfactors.

    • D.

      Source selection approval document.

    Correct Answer
    D. Source selection approval document.
    Explanation
    The source selection plan (SSP) is a comprehensive document that outlines the process and criteria for selecting a source for procurement. It includes various components such as the source selection team, presolicitation activities, and evaluation factors and subfactors. However, the source selection approval document is not a part of the SSP. It is a separate document that is prepared after the evaluation process is complete and is used to officially document the selected source and justify the decision.

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  • 24. 

    Evaluation factors and subfactors establish the level an offeror’s proposal must meet in order to be judged minimally acceptable. Therefore, the factors should

    • A.

      Include every aspect of the solicitation.

    • B.

      Be quantitative, qualitative, or both.

    • C.

      Be tailored to each proposal.

    • D.

      Be quantitative only.

    Correct Answer
    B. Be quantitative, qualitative, or both.
    Explanation
    Evaluation factors and subfactors establish the criteria that an offeror's proposal must meet in order to be considered minimally acceptable. These factors should include every aspect of the solicitation, meaning that they should cover all relevant aspects of the proposal. The factors can be quantitative, qualitative, or both, depending on the nature of the solicitation and the requirements outlined. This allows for a comprehensive evaluation process that takes into account both measurable and subjective aspects of the proposals.

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  • 25. 

    “Can potentially cause some disruption of schedule, increase in cost, or degradation of performance,” is the definition of which proposal risk?

    • A.

      Low

    • B.

      High

    • C.

      Medium

    • D.

      Moderate

    Correct Answer
    D. Moderate
    Explanation
    The definition of moderate proposal risk is that it can potentially cause some disruption of schedule, increase in cost, or degradation of performance. This suggests that the risk is not too high or too low, but falls somewhere in the middle. It indicates that there is a possibility of negative impacts on the project, but they may not be severe or significant.

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  • 26. 

    When determining which offerors to include in the competitive range, the contracting officer

    • A.

      Excludes the bottom 10% of the offerors.

    • B.

      Only includes the top 10% of the offerors.

    • C.

      Includes all of the most highly rated proposals.

    • D.

      Includes all offerors who are technically acceptable.

    Correct Answer
    C. Includes all of the most highly rated proposals.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "includes all of the most highly rated proposals." This means that the contracting officer will consider all proposals that have received the highest ratings during the evaluation process. This ensures that the most qualified offerors are included in the competitive range, increasing the chances of selecting the best proposal for the contract. Excluding the bottom 10% of offerors or only including the top 10% would limit the pool of potential candidates and may result in overlooking highly rated proposals. Including all offerors who are technically acceptable may not necessarily guarantee the inclusion of the most highly rated proposals.

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  • 27. 

    What action is appropriate when the contracting officer decides that a proposal should not be included in the competitive range?

    • A.

      Begin negotiations with offeror.

    • B.

      Request the offeror clarify their proposal.

    • C.

      Allow the offeror one more change to revise their proposal.

    • D.

      Eliminate from award consideration and provide notice to the offeror.

    Correct Answer
    D. Eliminate from award consideration and provide notice to the offeror.
    Explanation
    When the contracting officer decides that a proposal should not be included in the competitive range, the appropriate action is to eliminate it from award consideration and provide notice to the offeror. This means that the proposal will not be further considered for the contract, and the offeror will be informed of this decision. This allows the offeror to focus their efforts on other opportunities and prevents any further negotiations or revisions to the proposal.

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  • 28. 

    What type of exchanges is held after determining the competitive range?

    • A.

      Discussions.

    • B.

      Presentations.

    • C.

      Clarifications.

    • D.

      Communications.

    Correct Answer
    A. Discussions.
    Explanation
    After determining the competitive range, discussions are held. This implies that the parties involved engage in conversations or negotiations to further evaluate and compare the proposals or offers. These discussions are aimed at clarifying any ambiguities, addressing concerns, and potentially improving the proposals. It is an opportunity for the parties to exchange information, ask questions, and negotiate terms before making a final decision. Presentations, clarifications, and communications may also be part of these discussions, but the primary focus is on engaging in meaningful conversations to reach a mutually agreeable outcome.

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  • 29. 

    What comparisons are allowed in a source selection decision document?

    • A.

      No comparisons are allowed.

    • B.

      One contractor’s approach to another.

    • C.

      All of the contractors’ approaches against the SSET’s personal knowledge.

    • D.

      The top three contractors’ approaches against the SSET’s personal knowledge.

    Correct Answer
    B. One contractor’s approach to another.
    Explanation
    In a source selection decision document, the only comparison that is allowed is between one contractor's approach and another. This means that evaluators can assess the different approaches proposed by different contractors and compare them to determine which one is more suitable or advantageous. However, no other types of comparisons, such as comparing contractors' approaches against the SSET's personal knowledge or comparing all contractors' approaches, are permitted in the source selection decision document.

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  • 30. 

    Price analysis is preferred over cost analysis because it

    • A.

      Is less time-consuming.

    • B.

      Normally determines price reasonableness.

    • C.

      Is the process of evaluating separate cost elements.

    • D.

      Requires little or no comparison of proposed prices.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is less time-consuming.
    Explanation
    Price analysis is preferred over cost analysis because it is less time-consuming. This means that conducting a price analysis requires less effort and resources compared to a cost analysis. Price analysis involves evaluating the reasonableness of prices by comparing them to similar products or services in the market, without delving into the individual cost elements. This approach saves time and allows for a quicker assessment of price reasonableness, making it a preferred method in many cases.

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  • 31. 

    What factors are considered in determining whether a cost is allowable?

    • A.

      Cost and pricing data are certified.

    • B.

      Costs are not allocable to the contract.

    • C.

      Rough yardsticks (such as dollars per pound) have been applied.

    • D.

      Standards have been established by Cost Accounting Standard Board.

    Correct Answer
    D. Standards have been established by Cost Accounting Standard Board.
    Explanation
    The factors considered in determining whether a cost is allowable include whether cost and pricing data are certified, whether costs are allocable to the contract, and whether rough yardsticks have been applied. However, the most important factor is whether standards have been established by the Cost Accounting Standard Board. These standards provide guidelines and regulations for determining the allowability of costs in contracts.

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  • 32. 

    A cost is reasonable if

    • A.

      It does not exceed the fair market value paid by the contractor over the last three years.

    • B.

      It does not exceed 110% of the price last paid by the government for the same item.

    • C.

      . the amount is determined fair and reasonable by the contracting officer and its nature is not illegal.

    • D.

      Its nature and amount does not exceed that which would be included by a prudent business person in the conduct of competitive business.

    Correct Answer
    D. Its nature and amount does not exceed that which would be included by a prudent business person in the conduct of competitive business.
    Explanation
    A cost is considered reasonable if it falls within the range that a prudent business person would include in their competitive business practices. This means that the cost should be reasonable and justifiable based on market standards and practices. It should not be excessive or inflated beyond what is commonly accepted in the industry. This criterion ensures that the cost is fair and competitive, and not influenced by illegal or unethical practices.

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  • 33. 

    Which would be identified as a direct cost?

    • A.

      The cost of doors for the building being constructed.

    • B.

      The cost of tools to cut and assemble wood.

    • C.

      The salary of a management official.

    • D.

      The cost of two pounds of nails.

    Correct Answer
    A. The cost of doors for the building being constructed.
    Explanation
    The cost of doors for the building being constructed is considered a direct cost because it can be directly traced to the specific project or activity. It is a cost that is incurred solely for the purpose of constructing the building and is not shared or allocated to any other project or activity. In contrast, the cost of tools, the salary of a management official, and the cost of nails are not directly tied to the construction of the building and may be shared or allocated to other projects or activities.

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  • 34. 

    If a contractor buys a piece of equipment for $1,000, estimates its expected service life at 10 years and projects salvage value of $200, its annual depreciation value under the straight-line method is

    • A.

      $20.

    • B.

      $80

    • C.

      $100

    • D.

      $120

    Correct Answer
    B. $80
    Explanation
    The annual depreciation value under the straight-line method is calculated by subtracting the salvage value from the initial cost and dividing it by the expected service life. In this case, the initial cost is $1,000 and the salvage value is $200. Therefore, the depreciation value would be ($1,000 - $200) / 10 years = $800 / 10 years = $80 per year.

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  • 35. 

    Cost or pricing data is described as

    • A.

      Factual.

    • B.

      Subjective.

    • C.

      Generalized.

    • D.

      Judgmental.

    Correct Answer
    A. Factual.
    Explanation
    Cost or pricing data is described as factual because it is based on actual costs incurred or prices paid for goods, services, or construction. It is objective and verifiable information that is derived from records, documents, or other reliable sources. Factual data provides a solid foundation for making informed decisions and ensuring transparency in cost or pricing negotiations. It is important to rely on factual data to ensure accuracy and fairness in determining costs and prices.

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  • 36. 

    Which is not an exception to obtaining cost and pricing data?

    • A.

      Acquisition of a commercial item.

    • B.

      A modification is made to an existing contract.

    • C.

      Prices agreed upon are based on adequate price competition.

    • D.

      Prices agreed upon are based on prices set by law or regulation.

    Correct Answer
    B. A modification is made to an existing contract.
    Explanation
    A modification made to an existing contract is not an exception to obtaining cost and pricing data because it involves changes or adjustments to an existing agreement, rather than the initial acquisition of goods or services. Obtaining cost and pricing data is necessary when entering into a new contract or when prices are being determined for the first time, but a modification to an existing contract typically does not require the same level of analysis and documentation.

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  • 37. 

    When cost or pricing data is required, the contracting officer requires the contractor to submit

    • A.

      A certificate of current cost or pricing data.

    • B.

      Projections of cost for the first six months of production.

    • C.

      A certificate of authenticity for each vendor quote provided.

    • D.

      Affidavits setting maximum expenditures for material and labor.

    Correct Answer
    A. A certificate of current cost or pricing data.
    Explanation
    When cost or pricing data is required, the contracting officer requires the contractor to submit a certificate of current cost or pricing data. This certificate is necessary to ensure that the contractor provides accurate and up-to-date information regarding the costs and prices associated with the project. It helps the contracting officer in evaluating the reasonableness and fairness of the contractor's proposed costs and prices. By requiring this certificate, the contracting officer can make informed decisions and negotiate a contract that is in the best interest of the government.

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  • 38. 

    If after award, cost and pricing data are found to be inaccurate, incomplete, or noncurrent, what contract price adjustment is the government entitled to?

    • A.

      No adjustment.

    • B.

      Any price increase or decrease that resulted from the faulty data.

    • C.

      Any price increase that resulted from the faulty data plus a 10% penalty charge.

    • D.

      Any significant price increase including profit or fee that resulted from the faulty data.

    Correct Answer
    D. Any significant price increase including profit or fee that resulted from the faulty data.
    Explanation
    If after award, cost and pricing data are found to be inaccurate, incomplete, or noncurrent, the government is entitled to any significant price increase including profit or fee that resulted from the faulty data. This means that if the faulty data led to a significant increase in the contract price, the government can request an adjustment to compensate for the increase, including any additional profit or fee that may have been affected by the faulty data.

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  • 39. 

    A win/win negotiated outcome is preferred in achieving long-term satisfaction because

    • A.

      Each party feels the “victory” was at the other side’s expense

    • B.

      Competition enhancement is not as important as being trusting.

    • C.

      The government is interested in establishing long-lasting relationships.

    • D.

      Government officials are required to get the lowest price yet remain friendly with suppliers.

    Correct Answer
    C. The government is interested in establishing long-lasting relationships.
    Explanation
    A win/win negotiated outcome is preferred in achieving long-term satisfaction because the government is interested in establishing long-lasting relationships. This means that both parties involved in the negotiation feel satisfied with the outcome and believe that their interests have been met. By prioritizing long-lasting relationships, the government aims to foster trust and cooperation, which can lead to future collaborations and mutual benefits. This approach emphasizes the importance of building strong and sustainable partnerships rather than focusing solely on individual gains or competition enhancement.

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  • 40. 

    What helps the contracting officer negotiate a fair and reasonable price?

    • A.

      Audit report.

    • B.

      Field pricing report.

    • C.

      Fact-finding meeting.

    • D.

      Prenegotiation objective.

    Correct Answer
    D. Prenegotiation objective.
    Explanation
    A prenegotiation objective helps the contracting officer negotiate a fair and reasonable price by providing a clear goal and strategy for the negotiation process. It outlines the desired outcome and sets parameters for acceptable pricing. This objective helps the officer gather relevant information, analyze the contractor's proposal, and identify areas for potential negotiation. By having a prenegotiation objective, the contracting officer can approach the negotiation process with a well-defined plan, ensuring that the final price is fair and reasonable for both parties involved.

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  • 41. 

    Due to the importance of unity during the bargaining session, who should be the only the individual designated to speak?

    • A.

      Functional representative.

    • B.

      Senior team member.

    • C.

      Pricing specialist.

    • D.

      Chief negotiator.

    Correct Answer
    D. Chief negotiator.
    Explanation
    During a bargaining session, it is crucial to maintain unity and consistency in communication. The chief negotiator is the individual designated to speak on behalf of the team. This ensures a clear and consistent message is delivered to the other party, minimizing confusion and maximizing the effectiveness of negotiations. The chief negotiator is typically the most experienced and skilled member of the team, capable of representing the team's interests and making strategic decisions during the bargaining process.

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  • 42. 

    How should the physical environment enhance win/win outcomes?

    • A.

      Facilitates your side “buying” a position.

    • B.

      Makes the contractor feel as comfortable as possible.

    • C.

      Gives other side the perception that they are being treated fairly.

    • D.

      Arranging the conference room gives you a psychological advantage.

    Correct Answer
    C. Gives other side the perception that they are being treated fairly.
    Explanation
    The physical environment should enhance win/win outcomes by giving the other side the perception that they are being treated fairly. This means creating a setting that is neutral, comfortable, and conducive to open communication and collaboration. When both parties feel that they are being treated fairly, it fosters trust and goodwill, increasing the likelihood of reaching mutually beneficial agreements.

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  • 43. 

    What is the best sequence for negotiating areas of disagreement?

    • A.

      No one approach is better than another

    • B.

      Start negotiating on secondary issue first.

    • C.

      Start negotiating issues of greatest importance.

    • D.

      Government negotiates the contractor’s demands first.

    Correct Answer
    A. No one approach is better than another
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that there is no one-size-fits-all approach to negotiating areas of disagreement. Different situations may require different strategies, and what works in one case may not work in another. It emphasizes the importance of flexibility and adaptability in negotiation, allowing individuals to tailor their approach based on the specific circumstances and parties involved.

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  • 44. 

    Once both sides have reached general agreement during negotiations, the next step is to

    • A.

      Close the negotiations as soon as possible.

    • B.

      Address specific issues which are still in question.

    • C.

      Take a short break to allow each side to reconsider each point.

    • D.

      Wait while your administrative staff finalizes the agreement for signature.

    Correct Answer
    A. Close the negotiations as soon as possible.
    Explanation
    Once both sides have reached general agreement during negotiations, the next step is to close the negotiations as soon as possible. This is because reaching a general agreement means that the major issues have been resolved and there is consensus between the parties involved. Closing the negotiations allows for the finalization of the agreement and prevents any unnecessary delays or complications that may arise if the negotiations are left open-ended. It also signals the end of the negotiation process and paves the way for the implementation of the agreed-upon terms.

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  • 45. 

    During negotiations, how should you handle weaknesses in your negotiation position?

    • A.

      Do not volunteer weaknesses.

    • B.

      Immediately reveal them as an act of good faith.

    • C.

      Divulge your weaknesses if the contractor does the same

    • D.

      Explain your weaknesses only after agreeing to a final price.

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not volunteer weaknesses.
    Explanation
    During negotiations, it is advisable not to volunteer weaknesses in your negotiation position. This is because revealing weaknesses can weaken your bargaining power and give the other party an advantage. By keeping your weaknesses to yourself, you can maintain a stronger position and negotiate from a position of strength. It is important to focus on highlighting your strengths and emphasizing the value you bring to the negotiation, rather than drawing attention to any potential weaknesses.

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  • 46. 

    Deadlocks in negotiations

    • A.

      Are not always avoidable.

    • B.

      Only occur when parties are unfair

    • C.

      Only occur when parties are unreasonable

    • D.

      Always signify the end of negotiation attempts

    Correct Answer
    A. Are not always avoidable.
    Explanation
    Deadlocks in negotiations are not always avoidable because they can occur due to various reasons such as conflicting interests, lack of trust, or communication breakdown. Sometimes, parties may reach a point where they are unable to find a mutually acceptable solution, resulting in a deadlock. However, skilled negotiators can often find ways to break the deadlock and resume productive negotiations. Therefore, it is incorrect to assume that deadlocks always signify the end of negotiation attempts.

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  • 47. 

    Why must a price negotiation memorandum (PNM) permit the rapid reconstruction of the major consideration in pricing the contract?

    • A.

      So courts can render decisions quicker

    • B.

      In case the contract file is lost or destroyed.

    • C.

      It aids in auditing contract file by inspectors.

    • D.

      Because of the high turnover rate for contracting personnel.

    Correct Answer
    D. Because of the high turnover rate for contracting personnel.
    Explanation
    A price negotiation memorandum (PNM) must permit the rapid reconstruction of the major consideration in pricing the contract because of the high turnover rate for contracting personnel. This means that there is a frequent change of personnel involved in the contract negotiation process. Therefore, having a PNM that allows for the quick reconstruction of pricing details ensures that new personnel can easily understand and analyze the negotiations that took place. It helps in maintaining continuity and efficiency in contract management despite the turnover of personnel.

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  • 48. 

    A price negotiation memorandum (PNM) must contain all of the following except

    • A.

      A description of the acquisition

    • B.

      The basis for profit or fee negotiated.

    • C.

      The duration of the negotiation session

    • D.

      Documentation of fair and reasonable pricing.

    Correct Answer
    C. The duration of the negotiation session
    Explanation
    A price negotiation memorandum (PNM) is a document that summarizes the key details of a negotiation session. It typically includes a description of the acquisition, the basis for profit or fee negotiated, and documentation of fair and reasonable pricing. However, the duration of the negotiation session is not a necessary component of the PNM. While it may be helpful to track the length of the session for record-keeping purposes, it is not essential to include in the memorandum itself.

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  • 49. 

    What contract award form is used for construction, alterations, or repair?

    • A.

      SF 26

    • B.

      SF 33

    • C.

      SF 1442

    • D.

      SF 1447

    Correct Answer
    C. SF 1442
    Explanation
    SF 1442 is the correct answer because it is the contract award form used for construction, alterations, or repair. The SF 1442 form is specifically designed for construction contracts and includes all the necessary information and terms related to the project. It is used to officially award the contract to the selected contractor and outline the terms and conditions of the agreement. This form ensures that all parties involved are aware of their rights and responsibilities, making it the appropriate choice for construction, alterations, or repair contracts.

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  • 50. 

    The contracting officer provides written notice of award to the unsuccessful offerors within

    • A.

      Three days

    • B.

      Four days

    • C.

      Five days

    • D.

      Six days

    Correct Answer
    A. Three days
    Explanation
    The correct answer is three days because it is the timeframe within which the contracting officer is required to inform the unsuccessful offerors about the award. This prompt highlights the importance of prompt communication and transparency in the procurement process. By notifying the unsuccessful offerors within three days, the contracting officer ensures that all parties involved have timely information and can proceed accordingly with their business decisions.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 21, 2012
    Quiz Created by
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