AHS 307 - Hormonal And Reproductive Drugs

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AHS 307 - Hormonal And Reproductive Drugs - Quiz


Covers material from the lecture on hormones and repro. Drugs, as well as material from chapter 10.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Responsible for producing, TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, and GH

    • A.

      Anterior pituitary

    • B.

      Posterior pituitary

    • C.

      Thyroid

    • D.

      Hypothalamus

    Correct Answer
    A. Anterior pituitary
    Explanation
    The anterior pituitary gland is responsible for producing TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone), FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinizing hormone), and GH (growth hormone). These hormones play important roles in regulating various functions in the body, such as thyroid function, adrenal gland function, reproductive processes, and growth. The posterior pituitary gland, on the other hand, mainly stores and releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus. The thyroid is a separate gland that produces hormones involved in metabolism, while the hypothalamus regulates the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.

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  • 2. 

    Endocrine organs excrete hormones into the intestines.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Remember that the the contents of the intestines are considered to be OUT of the body.

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  • 3. 

    Endocrine organs secrete hormones into the _______.

    Correct Answer
    blood
    blood stream
    Explanation
    Endocrine organs secrete hormones into the blood or blood stream. Hormones are chemical messengers that are released by endocrine glands directly into the bloodstream. From there, they are transported throughout the body to target cells or organs, where they exert their specific effects. The bloodstream serves as a distribution system, allowing hormones to reach their target tissues and regulate various physiological processes.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following secretes releasing and inhibiting factors?

    • A.

      Hypothalamus

    • B.

      Pituitary gland

    • C.

      Adrenal glands

    • D.

      Thyroid gland

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypothalamus
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus secretes releasing and inhibiting factors. These factors regulate the secretion of hormones from the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus acts as a control center for the endocrine system, sending signals to the pituitary gland to either stimulate or inhibit hormone production. This interaction between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland is crucial for maintaining hormonal balance in the body. The adrenal glands and thyroid gland are not directly involved in secreting releasing and inhibiting factors.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following occurs more often in the body?

    • A.

      Positive feedback loops

    • B.

      Negative feedback loops

    Correct Answer
    B. Negative feedback loops
    Explanation
    Negative feedback loops occur more often in the body compared to positive feedback loops. Negative feedback loops are regulatory mechanisms that help maintain homeostasis by counteracting any changes in the body's internal environment. They work by sensing deviations from a set point and initiating responses to bring the body back to its optimal state. This ensures stability and balance in various physiological processes. On the other hand, positive feedback loops amplify or enhance a process, leading to a deviation from the normal state. While positive feedback loops have important roles in certain physiological processes, such as blood clotting and childbirth, they are generally less common than negative feedback loops in the body.

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  • 6. 

    An example of a postive feedback loop is the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland during partrution.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    During childbirth, the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland triggers contractions, which in turn stimulate the release of more oxytocin. This creates a positive feedback loop, as the initial release of oxytocin leads to stronger contractions and further oxytocin release. This feedback loop continues until the baby is delivered. Therefore, the statement that the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland during parturition is an example of a positive feedback loop is true.

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  • 7. 

    Also known as "Master Gland"

    • A.

      Pituitary Gland

    • B.

      Parathyroid

    • C.

      Hypothalamus

    • D.

      Thymus

    Correct Answer
    A. Pituitary Gland
    Explanation
    The pituitary gland is often referred to as the "Master Gland" because it plays a crucial role in regulating the functions of other endocrine glands in the body. It produces and secretes hormones that control various bodily processes such as growth, metabolism, reproduction, and stress response. The pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain and is connected to the hypothalamus, which helps regulate its hormone production. Therefore, the pituitary gland's ability to control and coordinate the activities of other endocrine glands makes it deserving of the title "Master Gland."

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  • 8. 

    Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is used to stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete ___________ in diagnosis of adrenal cortex disease.

    Correct Answer
    glucocorticoids
    Explanation
    ACTH is a hormone that stimulates the adrenal cortex, which is responsible for producing glucocorticoids. When testing for adrenal cortex disease, administering ACTH can help determine if the adrenal cortex is functioning properly by measuring the level of glucocorticoids secreted. Therefore, the correct answer is glucocorticoids.

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  • 9. 

    Also known as somatotropin

    • A.

      Growth hormone

    • B.

      Follicle stimulating hormone

    • C.

      Thyroid stimulating hormone

    • D.

      Adrenocorticotropic hormone

    Correct Answer
    A. Growth hormone
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Growth hormone because it is also known as somatotropin. Somatotropin is a hormone that is responsible for stimulating growth and cell reproduction in humans and other animals. It is produced by the pituitary gland and plays a crucial role in regulating growth, metabolism, and body composition.

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  • 10. 

    Used to treat diabetes insipidus

    • A.

      Vasopressin

    • B.

      ADH

    • C.

      Desmopressin

    • D.

      Proinsulin

    • E.

      Thyrotropin

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Vasopressin
    B. ADH
    C. Desmopressin
    Explanation
    Vasopressin, ADH, and Desmopressin are all used to treat diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination. These medications work by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys, reducing urine output, and helping to balance fluid levels in the body. Proinsulin and Thyrotropin are not used to treat diabetes insipidus and are unrelated to its management.

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  • 11. 

    Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability to concentrate urine caused by the posterior pituitary's failure to produce sufficient ADH, or the inability of the kidneys to respond to ADH stimulation.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Diabetes insipidus is a condition in which the body is unable to concentrate urine due to a lack of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production by the posterior pituitary or the kidneys' inability to respond to ADH. This leads to excessive thirst and frequent urination. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 12. 

    Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland

    • A.

      Antidiuretic hormone

    • B.

      Oxytocin

    • C.

      Vasopressin

    • D.

      TSH

    • E.

      ACTH

    • F.

      Lutenizing hormone

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Antidiuretic hormone
    B. Oxytocin
    C. Vasopressin
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes antidiuretic hormone, oxytocin, and vasopressin. These hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. Antidiuretic hormone helps in regulating the body's water balance by reducing urine production. Oxytocin plays a role in childbirth and breastfeeding, as well as in social bonding and trust. Vasopressin helps in regulating blood pressure and water retention in the body. These hormones are important for maintaining proper bodily functions and homeostasis.

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  • 13. 

    Trophic hormones do not act on the target organ, but cause hormone production that incites other endocringe organs to produce or decrease the desired hormone.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement is true. Trophic hormones are hormones that regulate the function and growth of other endocrine organs. They do not directly act on the target organ but instead stimulate the production or decrease of other hormones that then act on the target organ. This indirect mechanism allows for a more coordinated and controlled regulation of hormone production and secretion in the body.

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  • 14. 

    The adenohypophysis is also called the ______ pituitary gland. (anterior or posterior)

    Correct Answer
    anterior
    Explanation
    The adenohypophysis is another name for the anterior pituitary gland. The pituitary gland is divided into two parts, the anterior and posterior pituitary, each with different functions. The adenohypophysis is responsible for producing and secreting several hormones that regulate various bodily functions. Therefore, the correct answer is anterior.

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  • 15. 

    The neurohypophysis is also called the ______ pituitary gland. (anterior or posterior)

    Correct Answer
    posterior
    Explanation
    The neurohypophysis, also known as the posterior pituitary gland, is the back portion of the pituitary gland. It is responsible for storing and releasing hormones produced by the hypothalamus, such as oxytocin and vasopressin. These hormones are transported along nerve fibers from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary, where they are stored and released into the bloodstream when needed.

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  • 16. 

    Oxytocin is produce by the anterior pituitary gland, whereas lutenizing hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The opposite is correct - oxytocin is produced by the posterior pituitary gland, whereas lutenizing hormone is produced by anterior pituitary gland.

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  • 17. 

    The neurohypophysis is NOT glandular.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The neurohypophysis, also known as the posterior pituitary gland, is not glandular because it does not produce hormones itself. Instead, it acts as a storage and release site for hormones produced by the hypothalamus. These hormones are transported through nerve fibers from the hypothalamus to the neurohypophysis, where they are stored and released into the bloodstream when needed. Therefore, the statement "The neurohypophysis is NOT glandular" is true.

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  • 18. 

    When glucose enters a cell, it takes with it what molecule?

    • A.

      K+

    • B.

      Na+

    • C.

      Cl-

    • D.

      H2O

    Correct Answer
    A. K+
    Explanation
    Glucose enters a cell through a process called facilitated diffusion, which requires the assistance of transport proteins. These transport proteins are specific for certain molecules, and in the case of glucose, they are also capable of transporting potassium ions (K+). Therefore, when glucose enters a cell, it takes with it potassium ions (K+).

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  • 19. 

    Enzymes, taken orally, diffuse quickly into the blood stream.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Enzymes, being proteins, rarely make it to the blood stream because they are digested by the stomach.

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  • 20. 

    Clinical signs of diabetes mellitus

    • A.

      PU/PD

    • B.

      Polyphagia

    • C.

      Weight loss

    • D.

      Plantar neuropathy

    • E.

      Cataracts

    • F.

      Ketoacidosis

    • G.

      Weight gain

    • H.

      Cervical flexion

    • I.

      Loss of appetite

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. PU/PD
    B. PolypHagia
    C. Weight loss
    D. Plantar neuropathy
    E. Cataracts
    F. Ketoacidosis
    Explanation
    The clinical signs listed in the question are all associated with diabetes mellitus. PU/PD (polyuria/polydipsia) refers to increased urination and thirst. Polyphagia is increased appetite. Weight loss is a common symptom of uncontrolled diabetes. Plantar neuropathy is nerve damage in the feet, which can occur as a complication of diabetes. Cataracts are clouding of the lens in the eye, which can be caused by diabetes. Ketoacidosis is a life-threatening condition that can occur in people with uncontrolled diabetes. Weight gain and cervical flexion are not typical signs of diabetes. Loss of appetite can occur in some cases of diabetes, but it is not a consistent symptom.

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  • 21. 

    To confirm diabetes in cats, a blood test showing hyperglycemia is sufficient.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Cats can display physiologic hyperglycemia - would need to confirm with a urine sample as well.

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  • 22. 

    Only insulin given IV

    • A.

      Regular Crystalline

    • B.

      Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente

    • C.

      Glargine

    • D.

      Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente

    Correct Answer
    A. Regular Crystalline
    Explanation
    Regular Crystalline insulin is the correct answer because it is the only type of insulin that can be given intravenously (IV). The other types of insulin listed, such as Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente, Glargine, and Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente, are typically administered subcutaneously or through other routes, but not intravenously. Regular Crystalline insulin is used for rapid control of blood sugar levels in emergency situations, such as diabetic ketoacidosis, where IV administration is necessary to quickly lower blood glucose levels.

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  • 23. 

    Short acting

    • A.

      Regular Crystalline

    • B.

      Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente

    • C.

      Glargine

    • D.

      Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente

    Correct Answer
    A. Regular Crystalline
    Explanation
    Regular Crystalline insulin is considered short-acting because it has a relatively fast onset of action and a relatively short duration of action. It is typically taken before meals to control blood sugar levels after eating. Regular Crystalline insulin is a clear solution and is often used in combination with longer-acting insulins to provide both immediate and prolonged blood sugar control.

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  • 24. 

    For treating emergencies like diabetic ketoacidosis

    • A.

      Regular Crystalline

    • B.

      Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente

    • C.

      Glargine

    • D.

      Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente

    Correct Answer
    A. Regular Crystalline
    Explanation
    Regular Crystalline insulin is the correct answer for treating emergencies like diabetic ketoacidosis. This type of insulin is fast-acting and has a shorter duration of action, making it suitable for managing acute situations. It helps lower blood sugar levels quickly and is commonly used in emergency situations where immediate action is required. Other types of insulin mentioned, such as Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente, Glargine, and Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente, may have different onset and duration of action, and therefore may not be as effective in emergency situations.

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  • 25. 

    Not used frequently because of lack of duration reliability

    • A.

      Regular Crystalline

    • B.

      Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente

    • C.

      Glargine

    • D.

      Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente

    Correct Answer
    B. Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente
    Explanation
    Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente insulin is not used frequently because of its lack of duration reliability. This type of insulin is a mixture of intermediate-acting insulin and a protein called protamine. It is typically taken twice a day to provide basal insulin coverage. However, its duration of action can vary from person to person, making it less reliable compared to other types of insulin such as Glargine or Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente. Therefore, healthcare providers may prefer to prescribe other types of insulin that have more consistent and predictable effects.

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  • 26. 

    Long-acting

    • A.

      Regular Crystalline

    • B.

      Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente

    • C.

      Glargine

    • D.

      Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente

    Correct Answer
    D. Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente
    Explanation
    Protamine Zinc Insulin, also known as Ultralente, is a long-acting insulin. It is a suspension of insulin crystals that are combined with protamine and zinc, which slows down the absorption of insulin into the bloodstream. This type of insulin has a longer duration of action compared to other regular crystalline insulins. Therefore, Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 27. 

    Intermediate-acting

    • A.

      Regular Crystalline

    • B.

      Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente

    • C.

      Glargine

    • D.

      Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente

    Correct Answer
    B. Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente
    Explanation
    Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente is the correct answer because it is an intermediate-acting insulin. Intermediate-acting insulins have a slower onset of action and a longer duration of action compared to short-acting insulins. Neutral Protamine Hagedorn (NPH) and Lente are both examples of intermediate-acting insulins that provide a more sustained release of insulin over a longer period of time. They are commonly used to provide basal insulin coverage throughout the day and night. This is in contrast to regular crystalline insulin, glargine, and protamine zinc insulin, which have different durations of action and are not classified as intermediate-acting insulins.

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  • 28. 

    Most commonly used, 6-24 hrs in cats, 6-28 hrs in dogs.

    • A.

      Regular Crystalline

    • B.

      Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente

    • C.

      Glargine

    • D.

      Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente

    Correct Answer
    D. Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente
    Explanation
    Protamine Zinc Insulin, also known as Ultralente, has a longer duration of action compared to other types of insulin. It is commonly used in both cats and dogs, with a duration of 6-24 hours in cats and 6-28 hours in dogs. This type of insulin is a suspension of crystalline zinc insulin combined with protamine, which slows down the absorption and extends the duration of action. It provides a steady and prolonged release of insulin, making it suitable for managing diabetes in animals.

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  • 29. 

    Ultralong-lasting

    • A.

      Regular Crystalline

    • B.

      Neutral Protamine Hagedorn/Lente

    • C.

      Glargine

    • D.

      Protamine Zinc Insulin/Ultralente

    Correct Answer
    C. Glargine
    Explanation
    Glargine is the correct answer because it is classified as an ultralong-lasting insulin. Ultralong-lasting insulins are designed to have a slow and steady release of insulin over a prolonged period of time, providing a stable basal insulin level. Glargine is commonly used in the treatment of diabetes to help control blood sugar levels throughout the day and night.

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  • 30. 

    Oral hypoglycemics agents

    • A.

      Sulfonylureas

    • B.

      Lower BG

    • C.

      Increase BG

    • D.

      Glipizide

    • E.

      Acarbose

    • F.

      Trenbolone acetate

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Sulfonylureas
    B. Lower BG
    D. Glipizide
    E. Acarbose
    Explanation
    Sulfonylureas are a type of oral hypoglycemic agent that helps lower blood glucose levels. Glipizide is a specific sulfonylurea medication that works by stimulating the pancreas to produce more insulin. Acarbose, on the other hand, is not a sulfonylurea but another type of oral hypoglycemic agent called an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor. Acarbose works by slowing down the digestion of carbohydrates, which helps prevent blood glucose levels from spiking after meals. Therefore, the correct answer is Sulfonylureas, Lower BG (blood glucose), Glipizide, Acarbose.

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  • 31. 

    Which drug reduces the rate and amount of glucose absorbed from the GI tract after a meal, thus lowering blood gluclose levels.

    • A.

      Acarbose

    • B.

      Diazoxide

    • C.

      Glipizide

    • D.

      Glyburide

    Correct Answer
    A. Acarbose
    Explanation
    Acarbose is the correct answer because it is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that slows down the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. It works by inhibiting the enzymes that break down complex carbohydrates into simple sugars, thus reducing the rate and amount of glucose absorbed from the GI tract after a meal. This leads to lower blood glucose levels as less glucose is available for absorption into the bloodstream. Diazoxide, Glipizide, and Glyburide are not drugs that specifically target the rate and amount of glucose absorption from the GI tract.

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  • 32. 

    Which drug treats hypoglycemia by directly inhibiting pancreatic insulin secretion?

    • A.

      Acarbose

    • B.

      Diazoxide

    • C.

      Glipizide

    • D.

      Glyburide

    Correct Answer
    B. Diazoxide
    Explanation
    Diazoxide is the correct answer because it directly inhibits pancreatic insulin secretion. Acarbose is used to treat type 2 diabetes by slowing down the digestion of carbohydrates. Glipizide and glyburide are sulfonylurea drugs that stimulate insulin release from the pancreas, rather than inhibiting it.

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  • 33. 

    The dose of L-thryoxin for animals is ______ compared to people.

    • A.

      High

    • B.

      Low

    • C.

      Same

    Correct Answer
    A. High
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "High." This is because animals generally require a higher dose of L-thyroxine compared to humans. Animals have different metabolic rates and body sizes, which can affect the dosage needed to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. It is important to adjust the dosage based on the specific needs and characteristics of each animal to ensure optimal treatment.

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  • 34. 

    Thyroid hormone is the collective term for two active hormones found in the thyroid gland: Iodide and thyroxine

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Thyroxine (T4) and Tri-iodothyronine (T3) are the correct two active hormones. Iodide is trapped by the thyroide and converted to iodine...which eventually forms these hormones.

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  • 35. 

    Hypothyroidism is more common in _______, whereas hyperthyroidism is more common in ______.

    • A.

      Dogs, cats

    • B.

      Cats, dogs

    Correct Answer
    A. Dogs, cats
    Explanation
    Hypothyroidism is more common in dogs, whereas hyperthyroidism is more common in cats. This is because hypothyroidism occurs when the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone, and it is a condition that is more frequently seen in dogs. On the other hand, hyperthyroidism is caused by an overactive thyroid gland, leading to an excessive production of thyroid hormone, and it is more commonly observed in cats.

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  • 36. 

    Synthetic isomer of T4. Drug of choice for treating hypothyroidism in all animals. Inexpensive.

    • A.

      Levothyroxine sodium

    • B.

      Liothyronine sodium

    • C.

      Methimazole

    • D.

      Carbimazole

    Correct Answer
    A. Levothyroxine sodium
    Explanation
    Levothyroxine sodium is the correct answer because it is a synthetic isomer of T4, which means it has the same chemical structure but a different spatial arrangement. It is the drug of choice for treating hypothyroidism in all animals and is also inexpensive. This makes it an effective and affordable option for managing the condition.

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  • 37. 

    Synthetic form of T3. Used less commonly to treat hypothyroidism. Side effects are rare.

    • A.

      Levothyroxine sodium

    • B.

      Liothyronine sodium

    • C.

      Methimazole

    • D.

      Carbimazole

    Correct Answer
    B. Liothyronine sodium
    Explanation
    Liothyronine sodium is a synthetic form of T3, which is used less commonly to treat hypothyroidism. It is the correct answer because it matches the given description. Liothyronine sodium is known to have rare side effects, making it a relatively safe option for patients.

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  • 38. 

    Drug of choice for treating hyperthyroidism. Side effects include voiting, anorexia, lethargy.

    • A.

      Levothyroxine sodium

    • B.

      Liothyronine sodium

    • C.

      Methimazole

    • D.

      Carbimazole

    Correct Answer
    C. Methimazole
    Explanation
    Methimazole is the drug of choice for treating hyperthyroidism. It works by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. The side effects of methimazole include vomiting, anorexia, and lethargy. Levothyroxine sodium and liothyronine sodium are used for hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Carbimazole is converted to methimazole in the body and is also used for treating hyperthyroidism, but it is not the drug of choice.

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  • 39. 

    Antithyroid drug used in Europe.

    • A.

      Levothyroxine sodium

    • B.

      Liothyronine sodium

    • C.

      Methimazole

    • D.

      Carbimazole

    Correct Answer
    D. Carbimazole
    Explanation
    Carbimazole is the antithyroid drug used in Europe. It is commonly prescribed for the treatment of hyperthyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland produces an excessive amount of thyroid hormones. Carbimazole works by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones, thus helping to normalize their levels in the body. It is considered an effective and well-tolerated medication for managing hyperthyroidism. Levothyroxine sodium and liothyronine sodium, on the other hand, are thyroid hormones used to treat hypothyroidism, while methimazole is another antithyroid drug used mainly in the United States.

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  • 40. 

    When must the ACTH stim test  be started by?

    • A.

      7-7:30 AM

    • B.

      8-8:30 AM

    • C.

      9-9:30 AM

    • D.

      10-10:30 AM

    Correct Answer
    B. 8-8:30 AM
    Explanation
    The ACTH stim test is a diagnostic test used to evaluate the function of the adrenal glands. It involves administering a synthetic form of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and measuring the levels of cortisol in the blood before and after the administration. The test must be started between 8-8:30 AM because this is the time when the body naturally produces the highest levels of cortisol. Starting the test at this time ensures that the results accurately reflect the adrenal gland's response to the synthetic ACTH and provides the most reliable information for diagnosing adrenal insufficiency or other adrenal disorders.

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  • 41. 

    The LDDS test differentiates between Addison's and Cushing's disease.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Differentiates between adrenal and pituitary dependent Cushing's.

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  • 42. 

    All hormones produced by the adrenal cortex are __________.

    Correct Answer
    steroids
    Explanation
    All hormones produced by the adrenal cortex are steroids. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing several hormones, including cortisol, aldosterone, and sex hormones such as testosterone and estrogen. These hormones are all classified as steroids because they are derived from cholesterol and have a similar chemical structure. Steroids are known for their role in regulating metabolism, inflammation, and electrolyte balance in the body. Therefore, it is accurate to say that all hormones produced by the adrenal cortex are steroids.

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  • 43. 

    When stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system, the adrenal medulla produces ________ and ________. (separate answers with one space)

    Correct Answer
    norepinephrine epinephrine
    epinephrine norepinephrine
    Explanation
    When the sympathetic nervous system is activated, the adrenal medulla releases norepinephrine and epinephrine. These hormones are part of the body's stress response and help to prepare the body for a fight or flight situation. Norepinephrine increases heart rate and blood pressure, while epinephrine increases blood flow to the muscles and raises blood sugar levels. Both hormones work together to increase alertness and physical readiness in response to stress or danger.

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  • 44. 

    Mineralcorticoids, produced by the adrenal cortex, regulate blood volume and electrolyte concentration in the blood. What is the primary mineralcorticoid?

    Correct Answer
    Aldosterone
    aldosterone
    Explanation
    Aldosterone is the primary mineralocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in regulating blood volume and electrolyte concentration in the blood. By acting on the kidneys, aldosterone promotes the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium, helping to maintain the balance of these electrolytes in the body. This hormone also indirectly affects blood pressure by controlling the water balance in the body. Therefore, aldosterone is essential for maintaining proper fluid and electrolyte balance in the blood.

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  • 45. 

    Aldosterone conserves ______ ions and water in the body.

    Correct Answer
    Sodium
    sodium
    Explanation
    Aldosterone is a hormone that regulates the balance of ions and water in the body. It specifically conserves sodium ions and water, helping to maintain the body's fluid and electrolyte balance. Sodium is an essential electrolyte that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including nerve and muscle function, fluid balance, and blood pressure regulation. Therefore, aldosterone acts to retain sodium ions and water in the body, ensuring proper physiological functioning.

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  • 46. 

    What hormone  from the anterior pituitary gland stimulates glucocorticoid secretion?

    • A.

      ACTH

    • B.

      TSH

    • C.

      GH

    • D.

      ADH

    Correct Answer
    A. ACTH
    Explanation
    ACTH, or adrenocorticotropic hormone, is the hormone from the anterior pituitary gland that stimulates glucocorticoid secretion. Glucocorticoids are a type of steroid hormone that are involved in regulating metabolism, immune function, and the body's response to stress. ACTH binds to receptors on the adrenal cortex, which then triggers the release of glucocorticoids, such as cortisol. These hormones help to regulate various physiological processes in the body, including blood sugar levels, inflammation, and the immune response.

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  • 47. 

    Adrenocortical insufficiency is also known as _________ disease.

    Correct Answer
    Addison's
    Explanation
    Adrenocortical insufficiency is commonly referred to as Addison's disease. This condition occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones, particularly cortisol and aldosterone. Named after the physician Thomas Addison, who first described the disease in 1855, Addison's disease can cause a range of symptoms including fatigue, weight loss, low blood pressure, and darkening of the skin. Treatment typically involves hormone replacement therapy to restore the hormonal balance in the body.

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  • 48. 

    Adrenocortical insufficiency is diagnosed by what test?

    • A.

      ACTH stim test

    • B.

      TSH test

    • C.

      TRH test

    • D.

      Thyroid stim test

    • E.

      LDDS test

    Correct Answer
    A. ACTH stim test
    Explanation
    Adrenocortical insufficiency is diagnosed by the ACTH stim test. This test measures the response of the adrenal glands to adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). In individuals with normal adrenal function, ACTH stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal glands. However, in individuals with adrenocortical insufficiency, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol in response to ACTH stimulation. Therefore, the ACTH stim test is used to assess the adrenal gland's ability to produce cortisol and diagnose adrenocortical insufficiency.

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  • 49. 

    Treatment for Addison's disease

    • A.

      Desoxycorticosterone + Prednisone

    • B.

      Fludrocortisone acetate

    • C.

      Mitotane

    • D.

      Ketoconazole

    • E.

      Trilostane

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Desoxycorticosterone + Prednisone
    B. Fludrocortisone acetate
    Explanation
    The correct answer for the treatment of Addison's disease is a combination of Desoxycorticosterone and Prednisone, along with Fludrocortisone acetate. Addison's disease is a condition where the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone. Desoxycorticosterone and Prednisone are synthetic forms of cortisol that help to replace the deficient cortisol levels. Fludrocortisone acetate is a synthetic form of aldosterone that helps to replace the deficient aldosterone levels. This combination of medications helps to manage the symptoms and maintain the balance of hormones in individuals with Addison's disease.

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  • 50. 

    Hyperadrenocorticism is also known as ______ disease.

    Correct Answer(s)
    Cushing's
    Explanation
    Hyperadrenocorticism is a medical condition characterized by excessive production of cortisol hormone by the adrenal glands. This condition is commonly referred to as Cushing's disease. It is named after Harvey Cushing, the neurosurgeon who first described this condition. The excessive cortisol production can lead to various symptoms such as weight gain, high blood pressure, and muscle weakness. Treatment options for Cushing's disease include medication, surgery, or radiation therapy, depending on the underlying cause.

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  • Current Version
  • Jun 30, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
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    Notabean
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