1.
After completing the inspection used for the aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) what must be done.
Correct Answer
C. Document the inspection
Explanation
After completing the inspection for the aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT), it is necessary to document the inspection. This means that a record or report should be created, detailing the findings of the inspection, any issues or concerns identified, and any actions taken or recommendations made. This documentation is important for record-keeping purposes, as well as for future reference and to ensure compliance with regulations and safety standards.
2.
How should the equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) be marked?
Correct Answer
C. For training use only
Explanation
The equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) should be marked with "For training use only" to clearly indicate that it is intended for training purposes and not for actual flight operations. This marking helps prevent confusion and ensures that the equipment is not mistakenly used in real-life situations where it may not meet the necessary safety standards or requirements.
3.
In what case may operational aircrew flight equipment (AFE) assets be used for training?
Correct Answer
C. In critical cases such as night vision goggles and survival radios
Explanation
Operational aircrew flight equipment (AFE) assets may be used for training in critical cases such as night vision goggles and survival radios. This suggests that in situations where the training requires the use of specialized equipment that is critical for the safety and effectiveness of the aircrew, AFE assets can be utilized. However, it is important to note that this should only be done in exceptional circumstances and not as a regular practice.
4.
What should be your number one concern when instructing aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) courses?
Correct Answer
D. Safety
Explanation
When instructing aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) courses, safety should be the number one concern. This is because AFECT courses involve training aircrew on the proper use and maintenance of flight equipment, which directly impacts their safety during flights. By prioritizing safety, instructors can ensure that aircrew are equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to operate the equipment safely, minimizing the risk of accidents or injuries during flight operations.
5.
Who must document compliance with and operational risk management program has been conducted within your training program?
Correct Answer
B. The aircrew flight equipment superintendent (AFES) or aircrew flight equipment officer (AFEO)
Explanation
The correct answer is the aircrew flight equipment superintendent (AFES) or aircrew flight equipment officer (AFEO). This is because they are responsible for overseeing the compliance with and operational risk management program within the training program. They have the authority and knowledge to document and ensure that the necessary procedures and protocols are followed to maintain compliance and manage operational risks effectively.
6.
Who is responsible to publish an emergency action plan (EAP) for use during a training event?
Correct Answer
A. Superintendent
Explanation
The superintendent is responsible for publishing an emergency action plan (EAP) for use during a training event. This implies that the superintendent holds a position of authority and has the necessary knowledge and expertise to develop and distribute an effective EAP. The superintendent's role in ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals during training events is crucial, making them the appropriate person to take responsibility for the publication of the EAP.
7.
When may consumables such as halocarbon be placed in composite tool kits (CTK)?
Correct Answer
A. If they are indentified on the master inventory list (MIL)as consumables.
Explanation
If consumables such as halocarbon are identified on the master inventory list (MIL) as consumables, they may be placed in composite tool kits (CTK). This indicates that they have been approved and designated for use in CTKs.
8.
When if ever are common harware items such as helmet studs, nuts, and (or) locking washers authorized to be in the composite tool kit (CTK)?
Correct Answer
C. When required as tools
Explanation
Common hardware items such as helmet studs, nuts, and locking washers are authorized to be in the composite tool kit (CTK) when they are required as tools. This means that if these items are necessary for performing a specific task or repair, they can be included in the CTK. It is important to have these items readily available in the kit to ensure that the necessary tools are accessible when needed.
9.
When are mission need statments required?
Correct Answer
C. When solutions require new developments and procurments, or an upgrade of existing systems.
Explanation
Mission need statements are required when solutions require new developments and procurements, or an upgrade of existing systems. This means that whenever there is a need for the development of new technologies or the improvement of existing systems, a mission need statement is necessary. It helps to outline the specific requirements and objectives of the project, ensuring that the solutions align with the goals and needs of the organization. Additionally, it ensures that any procurements or upgrades are justified and meet the necessary criteria.
10.
What agency develops the operational requirements document (ORD)?
Correct Answer
C. Lead operating command
Explanation
The lead operating command develops the operational requirements document (ORD). This document outlines the specific requirements and criteria that need to be met in order for a particular operation to be successful. It is the responsibility of the lead operating command to gather input from various stakeholders and develop a comprehensive ORD that addresses all necessary aspects of the operation. This ensures that all parties involved have a clear understanding of what is expected and can work towards achieving the desired outcome.
11.
The code 412A id defined as a?
Correct Answer
B. Buget program activity code (BPAC)
Explanation
The code 412A is defined as a Budget Program Activity Code (BPAC). This code is used to categorize and track budgetary activities within a program. It helps in identifying the specific program activity and allocating funds accordingly.
12.
Into which subsystem would a survival radio be placed?
Correct Answer
C. Survival and recovery
Explanation
A survival radio would be placed in the survival and recovery subsystem. This is because a survival radio is specifically designed to be used in emergency situations where survival and recovery are necessary. It is meant to aid individuals in calling for help and communicating with rescue teams during survival situations, such as being stranded or lost in a remote location. Therefore, it is logical to place a survival radio in the subsystem that is dedicated to handling such survival and recovery operations.
13.
Who is responsible for the aircrew flight equipment (AFE) special programs office (SPO)?
Correct Answer
A. Human system group (HSG)
Explanation
The Human System Group (HSG) is responsible for the aircrew flight equipment (AFE) special programs office (SPO). This group is in charge of managing and overseeing the special programs related to AFE, which includes the development, testing, and evaluation of aircrew flight equipment. They ensure that the equipment meets the necessary standards and requirements for aircrew safety and effectiveness. The HSG plays a crucial role in maintaining and improving the quality and functionality of AFE for aircrew members.
14.
What is conducted throughout a system's life cycle to ensure the AIR Force acquires and maintains operationally effective and sutable systems tha meet users needs?
Correct Answer
A. Developmental test and evaluation (DT&E)
Explanation
Developmental test and evaluation (DT&E) is conducted throughout a system's life cycle to ensure that the AIR Force acquires and maintains operationally effective and suitable systems that meet users' needs. This process involves testing and evaluating the system during its development phase to identify any deficiencies or issues that need to be addressed before it is deployed. DT&E helps to ensure that the system meets the required performance standards and can effectively fulfill its intended purpose. Operational test and evaluation (OT&E) is also important but focuses on testing the system in real-world operational conditions. Deficiency reporting is a separate process that involves documenting and addressing any identified deficiencies or issues in the system.
15.
What provides an assessment of the vulnerability or lithality of a weapon system as it progresses through its development and prior to the full-rate production decision?
Correct Answer
C. Live fire test and evatuation (LFT&E)
Explanation
Live fire test and evaluation (LFT&E) provides an assessment of the vulnerability or lethality of a weapon system during its development phase and before the full-rate production decision is made. This testing involves actual firing of the weapon system under realistic conditions to evaluate its performance, effectiveness, and survivability. LFT&E helps identify any weaknesses or vulnerabilities in the system that need to be addressed before it is deployed in operational scenarios. It is an essential step in ensuring that the weapon system meets the required standards and is reliable and effective in combat situations.
16.
What is conducted in an enviornment as realistic as possible to determine the systems effectiveness and suitability, and to ensure requirements are met?
Correct Answer
C. Operational test and evaluation (OT&E)
Explanation
Operational test and evaluation (OT&E) is conducted in an environment as realistic as possible to determine the system's effectiveness and suitability, ensuring that requirements are met. This process involves testing the system under realistic operational conditions to assess its performance, identify any issues or discrepancies, and evaluate its overall effectiveness. OT&E provides valuable insights into the system's capabilities, limitations, and potential improvements, helping to inform decision-making and ensure that the system is ready for operational use.
17.
What is conducted to determine the operational effectiveness and suitability of systems undergoing research and development (R&D) efforts?
Correct Answer
C. Initial opertaion and test and evauation (IOT&E)
Explanation
Initial Operation and Test and Evaluation (IOT&E) is conducted to determine the operational effectiveness and suitability of systems undergoing research and development (R&D) efforts. This phase involves testing the system in realistic operational conditions to assess its performance, reliability, and overall effectiveness. It helps identify any issues or deficiencies that need to be addressed before the system can be fully deployed and used in operational settings.
18.
How many part are there to the typical objective statement?
Correct Answer
C. 3
Explanation
The typical objective statement consists of three parts. These parts usually include the position or job title the candidate is applying for, the skills or qualifications they possess, and their career goals or what they hope to achieve in the position.
19.
Who will establish the specific requirements for establishing and cretifying an aircrew flight equipment continuation training instructor (AFECTI)
Correct Answer
C. Major commands (MAJCOM)
Explanation
Major commands (MAJCOM) will establish the specific requirements for establishing and certifying an aircrew flight equipment continuation training instructor (AFECTI). MAJCOMs are responsible for overseeing and managing specific areas of the military, including training and personnel. They have the authority to set standards and guidelines for various positions and qualifications within their command. In the case of the AFECTI, it is the MAJCOM that will determine the specific requirements and qualifications needed to become certified in this role.
20.
Who is responsible for aircrew flight equipment initial and continuation training (AFETC)?
Correct Answer
B. Aircrew member
Explanation
The aircrew member is responsible for aircrew flight equipment initial and continuation training (AFETC). This means that it is the responsibility of the individual aircrew member to undergo training and ensure their proficiency in using and maintaining the flight equipment. The aircrew member is expected to take the initiative to attend and complete the necessary training programs to fulfill this responsibility.
21.
Which aircrew continuation class is used for the non-ejection egress class?
Correct Answer
C. LL03
Explanation
The correct answer is LL03. This aircrew continuation class is used for the non-ejection egress class.
22.
Which aircrew continuation class is used for members prior to their first flight?
Correct Answer
A. LL01
Explanation
LL01 is the correct answer because it is the aircrew continuation class that is used for members prior to their first flight. This class is designed to provide essential training and knowledge to aircrew members before they start their actual flight duties. It covers topics such as safety procedures, emergency protocols, aircraft systems, and communication protocols. By completing this class, members can ensure that they are well-prepared and equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their duties safely and effectively during their first flight.
23.
Prior to assigning individual work duties, you should first?
Correct Answer
B. Evaluate the individuals (OJT) records
Explanation
Before assigning individual work duties, it is important to evaluate the individuals' on-the-job training (OJT) records. This evaluation helps in assessing the skills, knowledge, and experience of the individuals. By reviewing their OJT records, you can determine their strengths and weaknesses and make informed decisions about assigning appropriate work duties. Training the individual on the task may be necessary, but it should come after evaluating their OJT records to ensure that the assigned tasks align with their capabilities. Erasing all tasks in the individual's OJT records is not necessary or relevant to the process of assigning work duties.
24.
Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is designed to indicate a unit's?
Correct Answer
A. Ability to undertake its full mission
Explanation
SORTS is designed to assess a unit's ability to undertake its full mission. It provides a comprehensive evaluation of a unit's readiness by analyzing various factors such as personnel, equipment, training, and logistics. By measuring these elements, SORTS determines whether a unit has the necessary resources and training to effectively execute its assigned mission. The assessment helps commanders identify any gaps or deficiencies in the unit's readiness and take appropriate actions to address them.
25.
What is the primary form we use to record the quiality control (QC) inspection?
Correct Answer
B. AF FORM 2420
Explanation
The primary form used to record the quality control (QC) inspection is AF FORM 2420.
26.
What form is used to change an Air Force publication except for technical order (TO)?
Correct Answer
A. AF FORM 847
Explanation
The correct answer is AF FORM 847. This form is used to change an Air Force publication, excluding technical orders (TOs). It is a document used for requesting changes, updates, or revisions to existing publications within the Air Force. The AF FORM 847 is used to initiate, coordinate, and track proposed changes to publications, ensuring that accurate and up-to-date information is maintained.
27.
Where is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) information on an Air Force publication?
Correct Answer
D. Cover page of the pubication
Explanation
The office of primary responsibility (OPR) information on an Air Force publication is typically found on the cover page of the publication. This information is important as it identifies the office or individual responsible for the content and maintenance of the publication. By locating the OPR information on the cover page, readers can easily contact the appropriate office or individual if they have any questions or need further information regarding the publication.
28.
Who should be the final reviewer of all DD Form 1144, Support Agreements?
Correct Answer
C. Staff Judge Avocate (SJA)
Explanation
The Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) should be the final reviewer of all DD Form 1144, Support Agreements. The SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the command, and their role includes reviewing and ensuring the legality and compliance of various documents, including support agreements. As such, they have the expertise and authority to review and approve these agreements before they are finalized. The other options, such as the Wing Commander, Flight Equipment Officer, and Squadron Commander, may have their own roles and responsibilities within the organization, but they do not have the specific legal expertise required for reviewing support agreements.
29.
The master inventory list (MIL) remains valid until?
Correct Answer
D. The contents change
Explanation
The master inventory list (MIL) remains valid until the contents change. This means that the list is accurate and up to date as long as there are no changes in the items or products it includes. Once there is a change in the contents, such as adding or removing items, the MIL needs to be updated to reflect the new inventory. This ensures that the list remains accurate and useful for tracking and managing inventory.
30.
The Air Force Occupational Measurement Squadron (AFOMS) provides two products, they are an occupational survey report (OSR) and a?
Correct Answer
A. Training extract
Explanation
The Air Force Occupational Measurement Squadron (AFOMS) provides two products: an occupational survey report (OSR) and a training extract. The training extract is likely a document or summary that contains information about the specific training requirements and standards for different occupational specialties within the Air Force. This extract would be a valuable resource for individuals seeking to understand the necessary training and qualifications for different roles within the Air Force.
31.
Prior to a utailization and training workshop (U&TW) what does the technical school send to major command (MAJCOM) personnel for their review?
Correct Answer
C. Strawman specialty taining standard (STS)
Explanation
Prior to a utilization and training workshop (U&TW), the technical school sends the Strawman Specialty Training Standard (STS) to major command (MAJCOM) personnel for their review. The Strawman STS serves as a draft or initial version of the training standard for a particular specialty. It outlines the required knowledge, skills, and tasks that individuals in that specialty should possess. MAJCOM personnel review the Strawman STS to provide feedback and make any necessary revisions before finalizing the training standard. This ensures that the training provided aligns with the needs and requirements of the MAJCOM.
32.
If there is a disagreement on a specialty training standard (STS)item during a utilization and training workshop (U&TW) how is it solved?
Correct Answer
D. Each major command (MAJCOM) (except AETC) has one vote for or against
Explanation
During a utilization and training workshop (U&TW), if there is a disagreement on a specialty training standard (STS) item, it is resolved by allowing each major command (MAJCOM) (except AETC) to have one vote for or against the item. This means that each MAJCOM has an equal say in the decision-making process, ensuring that all perspectives are considered and a fair consensus is reached. The decision is not solely in the hands of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) or the Air Force career field manager (AFCFM), but rather a collective decision made by the MAJCOMs.
33.
Which column of the specialty training standard (STS) list all the task and knowledge items common to an Air Force specialty (AFS)?
Correct Answer
A. 1
Explanation
The correct answer is 1. In the specialty training standard (STS), column 1 lists all the task and knowledge items that are common to an Air Force specialty (AFS). This column provides a comprehensive overview of the skills and knowledge that individuals in a particular specialty need to possess. It serves as a reference guide for training and development purposes, ensuring that all individuals in the specialty are equipped with the necessary competencies to perform their duties effectively.
34.
Which column of the specialty training standard (STS) defines the "contact with the technical school?"
Correct Answer
D. 4
Explanation
Column 4 of the specialty training standard (STS) defines the "contact with the technical school."
35.
Which standard is a comprehensive task list prepared by Air Force specialty career (AFSC) field managers to describe a particular job type or duty position?
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Job Quailification Standard (AFJQS)
Explanation
The Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS) is a comprehensive task list prepared by Air Force specialty career (AFSC) field managers to describe a particular job type or duty position. This standard outlines the specific tasks and qualifications required for individuals in that job or position. It serves as a guide for training and evaluating personnel in their respective roles within the Air Force.
36.
The list of tasks on an AF Form 797 pertain only to?
Correct Answer
B. One particular base or work center
Explanation
The tasks listed on an AF Form 797 pertain only to one particular base or work center. This form is used for documenting and tracking tasks that need to be completed within a specific location or department. It helps to ensure that all necessary tasks are identified and assigned to the appropriate personnel within that particular base or work center.
37.
When developing an AF Form 797, you do not list?
Correct Answer
A. All task developers
Explanation
When developing an AF Form 797, you do not list all task developers. The form is used for documenting the sub tasks required, the task itself and its title, as well as the technical or training references. However, it does not require listing all task developers.
38.
An occupational survey report (OSR) is completed on each Air force specialty (AFS) every three years or when requested by?
Correct Answer
B. The air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
Explanation
An occupational survey report (OSR) is completed on each Air Force specialty (AFS) every three years or when requested by the Air Force career field manager (AFCFM). The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field, so it makes sense that they would request an OSR to gather information about the specialty. The OSR helps to assess the current state of the AFS and identify any necessary changes or improvements. Therefore, the AFCFM plays a crucial role in determining when an OSR should be completed.
39.
Major Command (MAJCOM) and Air Education and Training Command (AETC) subject matter experts (SME) in conjunction with occupational survey report (OSR) data, helps develop the?
Correct Answer
C. Speciality training standard (STS)
Explanation
The given passage states that Major Command (MAJCOM) and Air Education and Training Command (AETC) subject matter experts (SME) use occupational survey report (OSR) data to develop something. The term "speciality training standard (STS)" refers to a set of guidelines and requirements for training in a specific specialty or field. Therefore, it can be inferred that the development being referred to in the passage is the creation of a speciality training standard (STS) based on the input from the subject matter experts and the OSR data.
40.
If you want to automate your enlisted specialty training (EST) standards, your authority will normallybe from?
Correct Answer
B. The career field education and training plan(CFETP),Part2, section A
Explanation
The correct answer is the career field education and training plan (CFETP), Part 2, section A. This is because the CFETP provides standardized training requirements and guidance for enlisted specialty training. It outlines the knowledge and skills necessary for each specialty and serves as a reference for both trainees and trainers. Therefore, if you want to automate your enlisted specialty training standards, you would follow the guidelines and authority provided in the CFETP.
41.
You can best evaluate the effectiveness of training received by technical school garduates by using the?
Correct Answer
C. Specialty training standard (STS)
Explanation
The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of training received by technical school graduates is by using the Specialty Training Standard (STS). This standard outlines the specific skills and knowledge that graduates should have acquired during their training. By comparing the actual performance of graduates to the requirements set in the STS, it is possible to assess the effectiveness of the training program. The Command Job Qualification Standard and Air Force Job Qualification Standard may be useful for evaluating job performance, but they do not specifically focus on training effectiveness. AF Form 797 is a medical evaluation form and is not relevant to evaluating training effectiveness.
42.
When you decertify a newly assigned person on a task they are not qualified to do, you must then place that person in?
Correct Answer
C. Qualification training
Explanation
When a newly assigned person is decertified on a task they are not qualified to do, the appropriate course of action is to provide them with qualification training. This training will help them gain the necessary skills and knowledge to become qualified in performing the task. By undergoing qualification training, the person will be able to develop the required competencies and meet the standards necessary for performing the task effectively and safely.
43.
Training waivers provide?
Correct Answer
D. A means for saving training resources without affecting career progression.
Explanation
Training waivers provide a means for saving training resources without affecting career progression. This means that individuals can be exempted from certain training requirements without it negatively impacting their career advancement. By granting waivers, organizations can allocate their training resources more efficiently and allow individuals to focus on areas where they need the most development. This can lead to a more targeted and effective training program overall.
44.
Information about career progression in a Air Force specialty can be found in the career field education and training plan (CFETP) PART?
Correct Answer
A. 1
Explanation
The career field education and training plan (CFETP) provides information about career progression in a specific Air Force specialty. It outlines the required education and training for each level of the specialty, as well as the potential career paths and opportunities for advancement. By referring to the CFETP, individuals can gain a better understanding of the skills and qualifications needed to progress in their chosen specialty within the Air Force.
45.
Which of the following in not found in Part 2 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?
Correct Answer
B. Transitional tarining guide
Explanation
The correct answer is "Transitional training guide." This is not found in Part 2 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP). The CFETP typically includes a specialty training standard (STS), a training course index, and a course objective list. However, a transitional training guide is not typically included in Part 2 of the CFETP.
46.
Prior to using the career field education and tarining plan (CFETP), you must ensure it is?
Correct Answer
A. The latest Edition
Explanation
The correct answer is to ensure that the CFETP is the latest edition. This is important because career field education and training plans are regularly updated to reflect changes in job requirements, technology, and best practices. Using an outdated version of the CFETP may result in outdated training and education, which could lead to inefficiencies or inaccuracies in job performance. Therefore, it is crucial to use the latest edition of the CFETP to ensure that the training and education provided align with current standards and expectations.
47.
Which major command (MAJCOM) is responsible for development and/or revision or formal resident (3-level), nonresident (5 and /or 7-level CDC), field and exportable training based on requirements established by th emajor command functional managers (MFM)?
Correct Answer
B. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
Explanation
Air Education and Training Command (AETC) is responsible for the development and/or revision of formal resident (3-level), nonresident (5 and/or 7-level CDC), field, and exportable training based on requirements established by the major command functional managers (MFM). This means that AETC is in charge of creating and updating training programs for various levels of education and training within the Air Force.
48.
What is your most important trait when it comes to training?
Correct Answer
A. Attitude
Explanation
Attitude is the most important trait when it comes to training because it determines one's willingness to learn, adapt, and persevere. A positive attitude enables individuals to approach training with enthusiasm, open-mindedness, and a growth mindset. It allows them to overcome challenges, stay motivated, and continuously improve their skills. Experience, knowledge, and performance are undoubtedly valuable, but without the right attitude, they may not be effectively utilized or developed. Attitude sets the foundation for success in training by shaping one's mindset and approach towards learning and development.
49.
An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) awarding course is what type of training?
Correct Answer
A. Resident
Explanation
A resident training refers to a type of training where individuals are required to physically attend a specific location, such as a school or training center, to receive instruction. In the context of the given question, an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) awarding course being classified as "resident" means that it involves in-person attendance at a specific training facility to earn the AFSC.
50.
Responsiblity for determining the overall direction of training within an Air Force specialty (AFS) rest with the?
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
Explanation
The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for determining the overall direction of training within an Air Force specialty (AFS). They oversee the training and development of personnel within their specific career field, ensuring that the training aligns with the needs and goals of the Air Force. This role involves making strategic decisions regarding training programs, curriculum, and resources to ensure that the AFS is properly trained and prepared to fulfill its mission. The AFCFM works closely with other stakeholders, such as the Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) and Air Education and Training Command (AETC) manager, to coordinate and implement training initiatives.