Anatomy Exam 2 - Part 1

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    1/77 Questions

  • Which of the following cranium bones are paired

    • Frontal
    • Maxilla
    • Mandible
    • Vomer
    • None of the above
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About This Quiz


Review quiz based of anatomy lectures for head, neck, and thorax

Anatomy Exam 2 - Part 1 - Quiz
Questions and Answers
  • 2. 

    Pt presents with injury to viscerocranium, which bone is least likely to be damaged

    • Ethmoid

    • Frontal

    • Vomer

    • Mandible

    Correct Answer
    A. Frontal
    Explanation
    The frontal bone is least likely to be damaged in an injury to the viscerocranium. The ethmoid bone, vomer, and mandible are all located in the lower part of the viscerocranium and are more susceptible to injury due to their positioning. The frontal bone is located at the front of the skull and forms the forehead and upper part of the eye sockets, making it less likely to be directly affected in an injury to the viscerocranium.

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  • 3. 

    Pt. presents with trauma to the prominence of his cheeks (face), which bone is most likely to be involved

    • Mandible

    • Frontal

    • Maxilla

    • Zygomatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Zygomatic
    Explanation
    The zygomatic bone is most likely to be involved in trauma to the prominence of the cheeks. This bone is commonly referred to as the cheekbone and is located on the lateral aspect of the face. It forms the prominence of the cheeks and contributes to the structure of the eye socket. Trauma to this area can result in fractures or other injuries to the zygomatic bone.

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  • 4. 

    Which landmark can be found on the anterior fossa of the cranial base

    • Temporal lobe of brain

    • Cribiform plate

    • Sella turcica

    • A & C

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Cribiform plate
    Explanation
    temporal lobe and sella turcica are found in the middle fossa

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is not found in the posterior fossa of the cranial base

    • Cerebellum

    • Medulla oblongata

    • Sella turcica

    • Pons

    • Internal acoustic meatus

    Correct Answer
    A. Sella turcica
    Explanation
    The sella turcica is not found in the posterior fossa of the cranial base. The posterior fossa is the space at the back of the skull and it contains structures such as the cerebellum, medulla oblongata, pons, and internal acoustic meatus. The sella turcica, on the other hand, is a bony structure located in the middle cranial fossa, which is a different compartment of the cranial base. It houses the pituitary gland and is not part of the posterior fossa.

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  • 6. 

    Where is CSF formed

    • Subarachnoid space

    • Pia mater

    • Dura mater

    • Choroid plexus

    Correct Answer
    A. Choroid plexus
    Explanation
    The choroid plexus is responsible for the formation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Located in the ventricles of the brain, the choroid plexus consists of specialized cells that produce CSF by filtering blood plasma and secreting it into the ventricles. CSF then circulates throughout the brain and spinal cord, providing cushioning and nutrients to the nervous system. Therefore, the choroid plexus is the site where CSF is formed.

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  • 7. 

    The falx cerebri

    • Seperates the cerebellum and cerebrum

    • Is a deformity

    • Seperates lobes of the cerebrum

    • Seperates cerebral hemispheres

    Correct Answer
    A. Seperates cerebral hemispheres
    Explanation
    The falx cerebri is a fold of dura mater, a tough membrane, that extends vertically in the midline of the skull. It separates the two cerebral hemispheres of the brain, helping to provide structural support and prevent excessive movement between them. This division allows for specialization and coordination of different functions in each hemisphere.

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  • 8. 

    MRI shows pt has a tumor pushing against the pons, which of the following cranial nerves are most likely to be affected

    • CN III

    • CN V

    • CN IV

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. CN V
    Explanation
    pons associated with CN V, midbrain associated with CN III and IV

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  • 9. 

    The cerebellar tentorium separates the

    • Medulla and cerebellum

    • Cerebrum and cerebellum

    • Lobes of the cerebellum

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Cerebrum and cerebellum
    Explanation
    The cerebellar tentorium is a structure in the brain that separates the cerebrum and cerebellum. It is a fold of the dura mater, the outermost layer of the meninges, and it helps to provide support and protection to the brain. The cerebrum is responsible for higher cognitive functions, such as thinking, reasoning, and memory, while the cerebellum is involved in coordination, balance, and motor control. Therefore, the correct answer is cerebrum and cerebellum.

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  • 10. 

    After passing through the interventricular foramen of Monro, CSF  initially drains into the

    • choroid plexus

    • Subarachnoid space

    • Third ventricle

    • Cerebral aqueduct

    • Fourth ventricle

    Correct Answer
    A. Third ventricle
    Explanation
    After passing through the interventricular foramen of Monro, CSF initially drains into the third ventricle. The interventricular foramen of Monro connects the lateral ventricles with the third ventricle. CSF flows from the lateral ventricles into the third ventricle through this pathway. Therefore, the correct answer is the third ventricle.

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  • 11. 

    A pt presents with an ischemic stroke in the middle cerebral artery, which of the following vessels did the clot travel through most recently

    • Subclavian arteries

    • Common carotid arteries

    • Vertebral arteries

    • Basilar artery

    Correct Answer
    A. Common carotid arteries
    Explanation
    common carotid branches into middle and anterior cerebral arteries

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  • 12. 

    The circle of willis

    • Is an anastamosis between the subclavian vessels

    • Connects the common carotid and vertebral veins

    • Directs blood through one central path to the brain

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    the circle of willis is an anastamosis between the four arteries (2 carotids and 2 vertebrals), it connects arteries not veins

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  • 13. 

    Blood flow out of the cerebrum is facilliated by

    • The dural venous sinuses

    • The great vein of galen

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Blood flow out of the cerebrum is facilitated by the dural venous sinuses and the great vein of Galen. The dural venous sinuses are a network of veins located between the two layers of the dura mater, the outermost membrane covering the brain. These sinuses collect deoxygenated blood from the brain and drain it into the internal jugular veins, which eventually carry the blood back to the heart. The great vein of Galen is a large vein located deep within the brain that also helps drain blood from the cerebrum. Therefore, both the dural venous sinuses and the great vein of Galen play a role in facilitating blood flow out of the cerebrum.

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  • 14. 

    Injury to the obicularis oculi may result in

    • Decreased ability to smile

    • Decreased flow of tears

    • Inability to move lips

    • Increased blinking

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased flow of tears
    Explanation
    Injury to the obicularis oculi, the muscle responsible for closing the eyelids, can affect the normal functioning of tear production and drainage. The obicularis oculi muscle plays a crucial role in the lacrimal pump mechanism, which helps in the flow of tears. If this muscle is injured, it can lead to a decreased ability to close the eyelids properly, resulting in decreased flow of tears.

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  • 15. 

    Patient presents with numbness in the face and inability to chew which of the following is a potential cause

    • Tumor on CN VII

    • Damage to CN V

    • Trauma to CN III and CN IV

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Damage to CN V
    Explanation
    Trigeminal nerve (CN V ) is responsible for sensory innervation of the face and is the motor nerve for muscles of mastication

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  • 16. 

    Patient with lacrimal gland problems may present with tenderness in the ____________part of each orbit

    • Medial

    • Superolateral

    • Inferiolateral

    • Superomedial

    Correct Answer
    A. Superolateral
    Explanation
    Patients with lacrimal gland problems may present with tenderness in the superolateral part of each orbit. The lacrimal gland is located in the superolateral part of the orbit, near the outer corner of the eye. If there is inflammation or infection in the lacrimal gland, it can cause tenderness in this area.

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  • 17. 

    The vascular layer of the eye contains all of the following except

    • Choroid

    • Retina

    • Ciliary body

    • Iris

    Correct Answer
    A. Retina
    Explanation
    The vascular layer of the eye, also known as the uvea, is responsible for supplying blood to the various structures of the eye. It consists of three main parts: the choroid, ciliary body, and iris. The choroid provides nourishment to the retina, which is the innermost layer of the eye responsible for sensing light and transmitting visual information to the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is retina, as it is not a part of the vascular layer of the eye.

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  • 18. 

    Which is true about the teeth

    • There are 32 deciduous teeth

    • Has enamel covered by dentin

    • Has dentin covered by a crown

    • Has dentin covered by enamel

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Has dentin covered by enamel
    Explanation
    there are 20 deciduous teeth, and 32 permanent,

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  • 19. 

    The philtrum and vermillion border are found

    • Where conjunctiva meed the epithelium of the eyelid

    • Between the cerberum and cerebellum

    • Between epithelium of lips and mucosa of the mouth

    • Found in the inner ear canal

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Between epithelium of lips and mucosa of the mouth
    Explanation
    The philtrum is the vertical groove located between the base of the nose and the upper lip, while the vermillion border is the distinct boundary between the red-colored portion of the lips and the surrounding skin. Both the philtrum and vermillion border are found between the epithelium of the lips and the mucosa of the mouth.

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  • 20. 

    Pt c/o problems to external ear, which of the following is involved

    • Vestibulocochlear organ

    • Endolymph

    • Tympanic plexus of nerves

    • Malleus, incus, stapes

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "none of the above." This is because the question is asking about the involvement of certain structures in problems related to the external ear, and none of the options listed (vestibulocochlear organ, endolymph, tympanic plexus of nerves, malleus, incus, stapes) are directly associated with the external ear. The vestibulocochlear organ is responsible for hearing and balance, the endolymph is a fluid found in the inner ear, the tympanic plexus of nerves is associated with the middle ear, and the malleus, incus, and stapes are the three small bones in the middle ear. Therefore, none of these options are involved in problems related to the external ear.

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  • 21. 

    The platysma is

    • Found in the thorax

    • Cranial nerve IV

    • Important muscle for facial expression

    • An extinct amphibian

    Correct Answer
    A. Important muscle for facial expression
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "important muscle for facial expression" because the platysma is a thin, broad muscle that covers the front of the neck and extends into the lower face. It is responsible for various facial expressions, such as pulling down the corners of the mouth and tightening the skin of the neck. It is not found in the thorax or related to cranial nerve IV, nor is it an extinct amphibian.

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  • 22. 

    The retropharyngeal space

    • Is found anterior to the trachea

    • A common site for objects to get lodge while passing through the esophagus

    • Is a primary pathway for the spread of infection

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Is a primary pathway for the spread of infection
    Explanation
    The retropharyngeal space is a potential space located behind the pharynx and in front of the cervical vertebrae. It is a primary pathway for the spread of infection because it is in close proximity to the pharynx, which is a common site for infections such as tonsillitis or pharyngitis. Infections can easily spread from the pharynx to the retropharyngeal space, leading to complications such as abscess formation.

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  • 23. 

    The lateral cervical region is bordered by the SCM and the border of the trapezius a patient with pain in this region may have

    • Increased scapular mobility

    • Impaired function of CN XI

    • A hoarse voice

    • A & B

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Impaired function of CN XI
    Explanation
    A patient with pain in the lateral cervical region may have impaired function of CN XI. The question mentions that the lateral cervical region is bordered by the SCM (sternocleidomastoid muscle) and the border of the trapezius. CN XI, also known as the accessory nerve, innervates both of these muscles. Therefore, if there is pain in this region, it could potentially affect the function of CN XI and lead to impaired movement of the SCM and trapezius muscles.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following triangles of the  anterior cervical region are unpaired

    • Submandibular triangle

    • Carotid triangle

    • Muscular triangle

    • Submental triangle

    Correct Answer
    A. Submental triangle
    Explanation
    The submental triangle is the only unpaired triangle in the anterior cervical region. The submandibular triangle, carotid triangle, and muscular triangle are all paired structures. The submental triangle is located below the chin and is bounded by the anterior belly of the digastric muscle and the two hyoid muscles.

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  • 25. 

    Patient presents with injury to the floor of the mouth and decreased mobility of the tongue. Which of the following muscles is least likely to be involved

    • Stylohyoid

    • Digastric

    • Geniohyoid

    • Omohyoid

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Omohyoid
    Explanation
    all of these muscles except the omohyoid make up the suprahyoid, which forms the floor of the mouth

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following arteries are not found in the neck

    • Occipital

    • Posterior auricular

    • Lingual

    • Facial

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The answer "none of the above" is correct because all of the listed arteries (occipital, posterior auricular, lingual, and facial) are indeed found in the neck.

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  • 27. 

    Which nerve passes deep to the digastric muscle and enters the submandibular region

    • Phrenic nerve

    • Hypoglossal (CN XII)

    • Trigeminal ( CN V)

    • None of the abvoe

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoglossal (CN XII)
    Explanation
    The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) passes deep to the digastric muscle and enters the submandibular region. This nerve is responsible for controlling the movements of the tongue, including swallowing and speech. It also provides sensory information from the tongue. The phrenic nerve is not relevant to the submandibular region, as it innervates the diaphragm. The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is responsible for sensory information from the face, but it does not pass deep to the digastric muscle. Therefore, the correct answer is hypoglossal (CN XII).

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  • 28. 

    The prevertebral muscles are found ____to the vertebrae

    • Posterior

    • Lateral and posterior

    • Lateral only

    • Lateral and anterior

    Correct Answer
    A. Lateral and anterior
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "lateral and anterior". The prevertebral muscles are located on the sides (lateral) and towards the front (anterior) of the vertebrae. These muscles are responsible for supporting and stabilizing the neck and spine.

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  • 29. 

    After surgery of the neck, pt. develops a hoarse voice, which is the most likely cause

    • Injury of the Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

    • Trauma of the vagus nerve

    • Damage to reccurent laryngeal nerve

    • Impairment of the phrenic nerve

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Damage to reccurent laryngeal nerve
    Explanation
    Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve is the most likely cause of a hoarse voice after surgery of the neck. The recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates the muscles responsible for vocal cord movement. Injury to this nerve can result in vocal cord paralysis or dysfunction, leading to hoarseness. The other options, such as injury of the hypoglossal nerve, trauma of the vagus nerve, or impairment of the phrenic nerve, do not directly affect the vocal cords and are less likely to cause hoarseness.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following does not describe the larynx

    • Located at C3-C6

    • Has thyroid cartilage

    • Protects upper airways

    • Connects to the hyoid bone via thyrohyoid membrane

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Connects to the hyoid bone via thyrohyoid membrane
    Explanation
    connects to hyoid via cricohyoid membrane

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following does not describe the vestibular folds

    • Extend between the thyroid and arytenoid cartilages

    • Control sound production

    • Found in neck

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Control sound production
    Explanation
    the vocal found control sound, the vestibular folds play little or no part in sound production

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following describes the trachea

    • Splits below the sternal angle

    • Has complete cartilage rings

    • Is found posterior to the esophagus

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    the trachea splits at the sternal angle, and has incomplete rings posteriorly and is anterior to the esophagus

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  • 33. 

    Pt presents with infection localized to the nasopharynx, upon physical examination which of the following findings are most likely to be noted

    • Inflamation of the palantine tonsils

    • Impaired deglutition

    • Inflammation of the pharyngeal tonsils

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation of the pharyngeal tonsils
    Explanation
    pharyngeal tonsils are in the nasopharynx and the palantine tonsils are in the oropharynx

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  • 34. 

    The nasopharynx has purely respiratory function

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    there are digestive and respiratory functions

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  • 35. 

    Pt presents with trauma to Zone III of the neck, which of the following findings are the most compatible to this injury

    • Damage to cervical pleura

    • Damage to oropharynx

    • Damage to thyroid

    • Damage to cartilages of the neck

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Damage to oropharynx
    Explanation
    Damage to the oropharynx is the most compatible finding with trauma to Zone III of the neck. Zone III is located between the cricoid cartilage and the angle of the mandible, and it includes the oropharynx. Trauma to this zone can result in damage to the oropharynx, such as lacerations or perforations. This can be caused by penetrating injuries or blunt force trauma to the neck. Damage to the other structures listed (cervical pleura, thyroid, and cartilages of the neck) would not be expected in Zone III trauma.

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  • 36. 

    The apices of the lung may be damaged by

    • Knife wound to Zone III

    • Blunt trauma to Zone I

    • Bullet wound to Zone II

    • Bullet wound to Zone I

    Correct Answer
    A. Bullet wound to Zone I
    Explanation
    The apices of the lung may be damaged by a bullet wound to Zone I. Zone I refers to the area above the clavicles, which is in close proximity to the apices of the lungs. A bullet wound in this area can potentially penetrate the lung tissue and cause damage to the apices. Knife wounds to Zone III, blunt trauma to Zone I, and bullet wounds to Zone II would not directly affect the apices of the lung.

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  • 37. 

    Ribs  10 - 12 are  all considered

    • True ribs

    • False ribs

    • Typical ribs

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    10-12 are considered atypical ribs, 10 is also a false rib, 11 and 12 are also floating

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  • 38. 

    Pt presents with trauma to the superior Atypical rib. The patient is at greatest risk for which of the following

    • Renal damage

    • Damage to subclavian vessels

    • Rupture of pleural sleeve

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Damage to subclavian vessels
    Explanation
    the superior atypical ribs are 1 and 2 , the closest structure would be the subclavian vessels which run along the superior surface of the 1st rib

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  • 39. 

    The sternal angle of louis is

    • Found at T3-T4

    • On the inferior end of the sternum

    • On the Body of sternum

    • Lateral to the superior sternal notch

    Correct Answer
    A. Found at T3-T4
    Explanation
    formed by joining of manubrium and body

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  • 40. 

    Pt with an injury to the xiphoid process way also have

    • Damage to superior atypical ribs

    • Puncture of the liver

    • Disconnection of inferior ribs

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Puncture of the liver
    Explanation
    xiphoid process is at inferior end of heart, superior end of liver, no ribs attach to it

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  • 41. 

    Which is not true about the thoracic apertures

    • Superior aperture slopes anterioinferiorly

    • Inferior aperture is bounded by the diaphragm

    • The aorta passes through the diaphragm at the inferior aperture

    • The esophagus passes through the inferior and superior apertures

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. The aorta passes through the diaphragm at the inferior aperture
    Explanation
    the aorta passes posterior to the diaphragm but the esophagus and IVC pass through it

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  • 42. 

    Female breasts enlarge during puberty because of

    • Glandular development

    • Fat deposition

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    During puberty, female breasts enlarge due to glandular development and fat deposition. Glandular development refers to the growth and development of the milk-producing glands in the breasts, which is stimulated by hormonal changes. At the same time, fat deposition occurs in the breasts, leading to an increase in size. Both processes contribute to the enlargement of female breasts during puberty, making the answer "all of the above" correct.

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  • 43. 

    The suspensory ligament of cooper is responsible for

    • Holding the kidneys in place

    • Connecting the breast to the skin

    • Stability and is found at the lung root

    • Holding the eyeballs in their orbits

    Correct Answer
    A. Connecting the breast to the skin
    Explanation
    The suspensory ligament of Cooper is responsible for connecting the breast to the skin. This ligament provides support and helps maintain the shape and position of the breast. It attaches the breast tissue to the overlying skin, preventing excessive movement and sagging. This ligament is particularly important in providing stability and maintaining the overall appearance of the breast.

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  • 44. 

    Physical examination of the accessory muscles of respiration would include all of the following except

    • Pectoralis major/minor

    • Seratus anterior

    • Scalenes

    • Latissimus dorsi

    Correct Answer
    A. Latissimus dorsi
    Explanation
    latissimus is not an accessory muscle of respiration

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  • 45. 

    Visceral pleura cannot be dissected from the lungs

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the visceral pleura is a thin membrane that covers the surface of the lungs and is tightly adhered to it. It cannot be easily separated or dissected from the lungs without causing damage. The visceral pleura and the lungs are closely connected and function together to protect and support the lungs during breathing.

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  • 46. 

    The pleural sleeve

    • Is found at the costodiaphragmatic recess

    • Is found at the root of the lung

    • Is found at the lung apices

    • Changes location with inspiration and expiration

    • Forms pleural ligament to diaphragm

    Correct Answer
    A. Is found at the root of the lung
    Explanation
    forms pleural ligament to mediastinum; costodiaphragmatic recess is from the pleura being incompletely filled during exhalation

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  • 47. 

    Which describes the lung

    • Has only horizontal fissures

    • Left has 3 lobes the right has 2 lobes

    • Margin of left lung has cardiac notch ending in lingula

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Margin of left lung has cardiac notch ending in lingula
    Explanation
    right has 3 left has 2

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  • 48. 

    The right main bronchi is a common site of obstruction in the lung while the left main bronchi is a site of obstruction in the esophagus

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the right main bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. This anatomical difference makes the right main bronchus more prone to obstruction by foreign objects or mucus, leading to conditions like aspiration pneumonia. On the other hand, the left main bronchus is narrower and more horizontal, making it less likely to be obstructed. However, it is important to note that both main bronchi can be sites of obstruction, but the right main bronchus is more commonly affected.

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  • 49. 

    The main bronchi diverge immediately into

    • Lobar bronchi

    • Segmental bronchi

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Lobar bronchi
    Explanation
    The main bronchi, also known as primary bronchi, are the first branches of the trachea that enter the lungs. They further divide into smaller bronchi called lobar bronchi. Lobar bronchi are responsible for supplying air to each lobe of the lungs. On the other hand, segmental bronchi are the smaller branches that arise from the lobar bronchi and supply air to specific segments within each lobe. Therefore, the correct answer is lobar bronchi.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 26, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 07, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Chinedua

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