Medical Aspects Of Chemical, Biological, And Radiological Warfare Assignment 7
“Medical Aspects of Chemical, Biological, and Radiological Warfare,” chapter 8, pages 8-1 to 8-18; "Diet and Nutrition," chapter 9, pages 9-1 to 9-11; "Emergency Dental Care and Preventive Medicine," chapter 10, pages 10-1 to 10-6.
- 1.
Who, if anyone, is responsible for maintaining adequate supplies for the decontamination and treatment of CBR casualties?
- A.
Medical officer
- B.
Damage control officer
- C.
Supply officer
- D.
No one
Correct Answer
A. Medical officerExplanation
The medical officer is responsible for maintaining adequate supplies for the decontamination and treatment of CBR (Chemical, Biological, Radiological) casualties. This is because the medical officer is trained and equipped to handle medical emergencies and has the knowledge and expertise to determine the necessary supplies needed for decontamination and treatment. The medical officer plays a critical role in ensuring that the necessary resources are available to effectively respond to CBR incidents and provide appropriate medical care to casualties.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Nerve agents produce their effect by interfacing with normal transmission of nerve impulses.
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
Correct Answer
A. TRUEExplanation
Nerve agents are highly toxic substances that interfere with the normal transmission of nerve impulses in the body. They inhibit the activity of an enzyme called acetylcholinesterase, which is responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. By inhibiting this enzyme, nerve agents cause an excessive accumulation of acetylcholine in the synapses, leading to overstimulation of the nervous system. This disruption in nerve impulse transmission can result in a wide range of symptoms, including paralysis, convulsions, respiratory failure, and even death. Therefore, the statement that nerve agents produce their effect by interfacing with normal transmission of nerve impulses is true.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
The tendency of a chemical agent to remain effective in a contaminated area is known as
- A.
Lethality
- B.
Persistency
- C.
Volatility
- D.
Permeability
Correct Answer
B. PersistencyExplanation
Persistency refers to the ability of a chemical agent to remain effective in a contaminated area. It indicates the longevity of the agent's effectiveness and its ability to remain active over time. This characteristic is important in various contexts, such as warfare or pest control, where the agent needs to have a lasting impact on the target. Lethality refers to the ability to cause death, volatility refers to the tendency to evaporate or vaporize quickly, and permeability refers to the ability to pass through or penetrate a substance.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Inhalation of nerve gas characteristically results in which of the symptoms listed below?
- A.
Local muscular twitching
- B.
Dry mouth
- C.
Pinpoint pupils
- D.
Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer
C. Pinpoint pupilsExplanation
Inhalation of nerve gas can cause pinpoint pupils as one of the symptoms. This is because nerve gases, such as sarin or VX, can affect the autonomic nervous system and disrupt the normal functioning of the pupils. Pinpoint pupils, also known as miosis, occur when the muscles in the iris constrict, causing the pupil to become very small. This symptom is a result of the nerve gas interfering with the neurotransmitters that regulate pupil size, leading to a constricted or pinpoint appearance.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
In a definitive care facility, the indicated treatment of a nerve agent victim includes which of the following therapies?
- A.
2 mg atropine and 600 mg 2-PAM chloride every 15 minutes until recovery
- B.
2 mg atropine every 15 minutes until the victim has a dry mouth and mild tachycardia
- C.
600 mg 2-PAM chloride every 15 minutes until the victim is conscious
- D.
Respiratory support only
Correct Answer
B. 2 mg atropine every 15 minutes until the victim has a dry mouth and mild tachycardiaExplanation
The indicated treatment for a nerve agent victim in a definitive care facility is to administer 2 mg of atropine every 15 minutes until the victim has a dry mouth and mild tachycardia. Atropine is used to counteract the effects of the nerve agent on the body, specifically to treat the symptoms of excessive salivation and increased heart rate. Administering atropine in this manner helps to manage these symptoms and provide relief to the victim.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
What part of the body is most sensitive to the effects of mustard gases?
- A.
Eyes
- B.
Lungs
- C.
Liver
- D.
Skin
Correct Answer
A. EyesExplanation
Mustard gases are known to cause severe damage to the eyes, making them the most sensitive part of the body to the effects of these gases. Exposure to mustard gases can lead to eye irritation, pain, redness, and even blindness. The corrosive nature of these gases can cause long-lasting damage to the delicate tissues of the eyes, making them particularly vulnerable to their effects.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Specific antidotal therapy is available for which, if any, of the following vesicants?
- A.
Mustard (HD)
- B.
Nitrogen mustard (HN)
- C.
Lewisite (L)
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. None of the aboveExplanation
There is no specific antidotal therapy available for mustard (HD), nitrogen mustard (HN), or lewisite (L). These vesicants, also known as blister agents, can cause severe skin burns and respiratory damage. Treatment for exposure to these agents typically involves supportive care, such as decontamination, wound care, and respiratory support. However, there is no specific antidote that can reverse the effects of these vesicants. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the above."Rate this question:
-
- 8.
First aid treatment for blood agents is amyl nitrite ampules followed by which of the compounds listed below?
- A.
Oral potassium chloride
- B.
Oral sodium thiosulfate
- C.
Intravenous potassium chloride
- D.
Intravenous sodium thiosulfate
Correct Answer
D. Intravenous sodium thiosulfateExplanation
The correct answer is intravenous sodium thiosulfate. Blood agents are toxic substances that interfere with the body's ability to use oxygen, such as cyanide. Amyl nitrite ampules are used as a first aid treatment to help counteract the effects of blood agents. However, amyl nitrite alone is not sufficient, and it needs to be followed by the administration of intravenous sodium thiosulfate. Sodium thiosulfate helps to detoxify cyanide by converting it into a less toxic form that can be eliminated from the body. Oral potassium chloride and oral sodium thiosulfate are not as effective as intravenous administration in treating blood agents.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
The symbol for phosgene gas is
- A.
C1
- B.
CN
- C.
CG
- D.
CK
Correct Answer
C. CGExplanation
Phosgene gas is represented by the symbol CG. The other options, C1, CN, and CK, do not represent phosgene gas.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Which of the following odors is an early indication of exposure to phosgene gas in casualty-producing amounts?
- A.
Bitter almonds
- B.
A freshly mown lawn
- C.
Geraniums
- D.
None of the above. Phosgene is undetectable
Correct Answer
B. A freshly mown lawnExplanation
The correct answer is "A freshly mown lawn." Phosgene gas, which is highly toxic and can cause severe respiratory distress, has a smell similar to freshly mown grass or hay. This odor is an early indication of exposure to phosgene gas in dangerous amounts. Bitter almonds and geraniums do not have any association with phosgene gas exposure, and the statement that phosgene is undetectable is incorrect.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Exposure to fresh air and allowing wind to blow across wide open eyes is generally sufficient treatment for which of the following agents?
- A.
Psychochemicals
- B.
Lacrimators
- C.
Vomiting agents
- D.
Glycolates
Correct Answer
B. LacrimatorsExplanation
Exposure to fresh air and allowing wind to blow across wide open eyes is generally sufficient treatment for lacrimators. Lacrimators are substances that cause tears and eye irritation. By allowing fresh air and wind to blow across the eyes, it helps to dilute and remove the lacrimators, providing relief from the irritation.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
With exposure to Adamsite, which, if any, of the following actions must be taken to minimize or inhibit the symptoms of exposure?
- A.
Don a protective mask and continue duties as vigorously as possible
- B.
Give an intramuscular injection of physostigmine
- C.
Give an intravenous infusion of sodium thiosulfate
- D.
Do none of the above
Correct Answer
A. Don a protective mask and continue duties as vigorously as possibleExplanation
Donning a protective mask and continuing duties as vigorously as possible is the correct answer because Adamsite is a chemical warfare agent that can cause respiratory irritation and other symptoms. Wearing a protective mask can help minimize inhalation of the agent and reduce the severity of symptoms. Continuing duties as vigorously as possible can also help minimize exposure by reducing the time spent in the contaminated area. The other options, such as giving an intramuscular injection of physostigmine or an intravenous infusion of sodium thiosulfate, are not appropriate actions for minimizing or inhibiting the symptoms of Adamsite exposure.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
What is the proper treatment for burning white phosphorus particles embedded in the skin?
- A.
Surgical removal followed by a copper sulfate wet dressing
- B.
A copper sulfate rinse then surgical removal
- C.
A copper sulfate rinse only
- D.
Allowing them to burn out
Correct Answer
B. A copper sulfate rinse then surgical removalExplanation
The proper treatment for burning white phosphorus particles embedded in the skin is to first rinse the affected area with copper sulfate solution to neutralize the phosphorus. This helps to prevent further burning and potential absorption into the body. After rinsing, surgical removal of the particles should be performed to ensure complete removal and prevent any potential complications or infection.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
By what means can biological agents can be detected?
- A.
Physical senses
- B.
Chemical detectors
- C.
Laboratory examination
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Biological agents can be detected through physical senses, such as sight, smell, and touch, which can help identify certain signs or symptoms of infection or contamination. Chemical detectors can also be used to identify the presence of specific biological agents by detecting their unique chemical signatures. Additionally, laboratory examination involves analyzing samples, such as blood or tissue, using various techniques and tests to detect and identify biological agents. Therefore, all of these means can be used to detect biological agents.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
When entering an area known to be contaminated with biological agents, which of the following actions should be taken?
- A.
Put on gloves, if available
- B.
Button up clothing
- C.
Put on a protective mask
- D.
Do all of the above
Correct Answer
D. Do all of the above -
- 16.
What is the appropriate procedure to follow when biological agents are known to have been placed in your drinking water?
- A.
Double the amount of chlorine in the water
- B.
Double the time the water is exposed to the chlorine
- C.
Boil the water before you drink any of it
- D.
Refrain from drinking the water
Correct Answer
C. Boil the water before you drink any of it -
- 17.
Presenting a serious internal radiation hazard, alpha particles can enter the body through which of the following?
- A.
The digestive system
- B.
The respiratory system
- C.
Open wounds
- D.
Any of the above
Correct Answer
C. Open wounds -
- 18.
Of the following, which type of radiation has the greatest penetrating power?
- A.
Alpha
- B.
Beta
- C.
Gamma
- D.
Neutron
Correct Answer
C. Gamma -
- 19.
In the event of a nuclear detonation, what is the best position to assume?
- A.
Sitting, with the knees drawn up to the chest, facing away from the blast
- B.
Face down, with your face covered
- C.
On your side, in a fetal position facing away from the blast
- D.
Supine, with your face covered
Correct Answer
B. Face down, with your face covered -
- 20.
The treatment of thermal burns from a nuclear detonation differs from more conventional burn wounds in which, if any, of the following ways?
- A.
Conventional burn wounds are generally less serious
- B.
Conventional burn wounds are more likely to become infected
- C.
Burns resulting from a nuclear detonation are more painful
- D.
There is no difference
Correct Answer
D. There is no difference -
- 21.
When using antibiotics for victims of radiation injuries, what is the recommended dosage?
- A.
One-half of the normal dosage
- B.
The normal dosage
- C.
Two times the normal dosage
- D.
Three times the normal dosage
Correct Answer
D. Three times the normal dosageExplanation
In cases of radiation injuries, the recommended dosage of antibiotics is three times the normal dosage. This increased dosage is necessary to combat the potential infections that can occur as a result of the weakened immune system caused by radiation exposure. By prescribing a higher dosage, healthcare professionals aim to ensure that the antibiotics are effective in preventing and treating any infections that may arise in these patients.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
Approximately what number of calories must be burned or consumed for the average individual to lose or gain one pound?
- A.
1,500
- B.
2,000
- C.
3,500
- D.
5,000
Correct Answer
C. 3,500Explanation
The correct answer is 3,500. This is because it is generally accepted that in order to lose or gain one pound of weight, an individual must create a calorie deficit or surplus of 3,500 calories. This means that in order to lose one pound, a person would need to burn 3,500 more calories than they consume, while to gain one pound, they would need to consume 3,500 more calories than they burn.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
What happens to protein consumed that is in excess of body requirements?
- A.
Used to supply energy only
- B.
Changed into fat only
- C.
Both 1 and 2
- D.
Excreted from the body through elimination
Correct Answer
C. Both 1 and 2 -
- 24.
What total number of amino acids are obtained solely from the food we eat?
- A.
3
- B.
7
- C.
9
- D.
11
Correct Answer
C. 9 -
- 25.
What amount of protein should a nonpregnant person consume on a daily basis?
- A.
0.8 g/kg
- B.
1.2 g/kg
- C.
2.2 lbs
- D.
There is no specific recommended amount
Correct Answer
A. 0.8 g/kg -
- 26.
Protein deficiency can result in which of the following conditions?
- A.
Nutritional edema
- B.
Secondary anemia
- C.
Restricted growth
- D.
Each of the above
Correct Answer
D. Each of the above -
- 27.
The number of calories generated by each gram of protein, fat, and carbohydrate, respectively is
- A.
3, 6, 4
- B.
4, 9, 4
- C.
6, 3, 9
- D.
9, 4, 6
Correct Answer
B. 4, 9, 4 -
- 28.
The serum cholesterol level of adults over the age of 30 should be less than
- A.
100 mg/dl
- B.
150 mg/dl
- C.
200 mg/dl
- D.
300 mg/dl
Correct Answer
C. 200 mg/dl -
- 29.
Of the following, which is NOT a source of dietary fat?
- A.
Rice
- B.
Whole milk
- C.
Avocados
- D.
Egg yolks
Correct Answer
A. RiceExplanation
Rice is not a source of dietary fat because it is a carbohydrate-rich food. It primarily provides carbohydrates for energy and does not contain a significant amount of fat. On the other hand, whole milk, avocados, and egg yolks are all sources of dietary fat. Whole milk contains both saturated and unsaturated fats, avocados are rich in monounsaturated fats, and egg yolks contain a combination of saturated and unsaturated fats.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Refined and processed sugars should make up no more than what percent of an individual’s total caloric intake?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
B. 10Explanation
Refined and processed sugars should make up no more than 10% of an individual's total caloric intake. This recommendation is based on the fact that excessive sugar consumption can lead to various health issues such as obesity, diabetes, and heart disease. By limiting the intake of refined and processed sugars to 10% or less, individuals can maintain a healthier diet and reduce the risk of these health problems.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
Fish.
- A.
Complex carbohydrates
- B.
Simple carbohydrates
- C.
Proteins
- D.
Fats
Correct Answer
C. ProteinsExplanation
Proteins are a type of macronutrient that is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in the body. They are made up of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Fish is a good source of protein, as it contains all the essential amino acids that the body needs. Therefore, the correct answer is proteins.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
Honey.
- A.
Complex carbohydrates
- B.
Simple carbohydrates
- C.
Proteins
- D.
Fats
Correct Answer
B. Simple carbohydratesExplanation
Simple carbohydrates are the correct answer because honey is primarily composed of simple sugars such as glucose and fructose. Simple carbohydrates are easily broken down by the body and provide quick energy. Honey is a natural sweetener that is often used as a source of quick energy, making it a good example of a simple carbohydrate.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Butter.
- A.
Complex carbohydrates
- B.
Simple carbohydrates
- C.
Proteins
- D.
Fats
Correct Answer
D. FatsExplanation
Fats are a type of nutrient that provides a concentrated source of energy for the body. They are essential for various bodily functions, including hormone production, insulation, and cushioning of organs. While carbohydrates also provide energy, they are not as concentrated as fats. Proteins are primarily responsible for building and repairing tissues, while complex carbohydrates are a type of carbohydrate that takes longer to digest and provides sustained energy. Simple carbohydrates, on the other hand, are quickly digested and provide a rapid source of energy. Therefore, the correct answer is fats.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Eggs.
- A.
Complex carbohydrates
- B.
Simple carbohydrates
- C.
Proteins
- D.
Fats
Correct Answer
C. ProteinsExplanation
Proteins are essential macronutrients that play a crucial role in the growth, repair, and maintenance of body tissues. They are made up of amino acids, which are the building blocks of life. Unlike carbohydrates and fats, proteins contain nitrogen, which is required for the synthesis of DNA, enzymes, and hormones. Additionally, proteins are involved in various bodily functions such as muscle contraction, immune response, and transportation of molecules. Therefore, proteins are the correct answer as they have unique properties and functions compared to other macronutrients.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Corn.
- A.
Complex carbohydrates
- B.
Simple carbohydrates
- C.
Proteins
- D.
Fats
Correct Answer
A. Complex carbohydratesExplanation
Complex carbohydrates, such as corn, are made up of long chains of sugar molecules. These molecules take longer to break down in the body, providing a slow and steady release of energy. This makes complex carbohydrates a healthier choice compared to simple carbohydrates, which are quickly broken down and can cause blood sugar spikes. Proteins and fats are not carbohydrates and do not fall into the same category as corn.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
An otherwise normal, healthy diet is always sufficient to provide an individual with adequate levels of minerals.
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
Correct Answer
A. TRUE -
- 37.
Consumption of excessive amounts of certain vitamins can, in some circumstances, be fatal.
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
Correct Answer
B. FALSE -
- 38.
Which of the following is sometimes referred to as "the forgotten nutrient"?
- A.
Selenium
- B.
Phosphorus
- C.
Water
- D.
Fructose
Correct Answer
C. Water -
- 39.
According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, upon which of the following dietary elements should a nutritional diet be based?
- A.
Fruits and vegetables
- B.
Complex carbohydrates
- C.
Fats
- D.
Dairy
Correct Answer
B. Complex carbohydrates -
- 40.
Fried foods, as long as they are not too crisp, may be included in a soft diet.
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
Correct Answer
B. FALSEExplanation
Fried foods are generally not recommended for a soft diet. Soft diets are typically prescribed for individuals with difficulty chewing or swallowing, and fried foods can be hard and crunchy, making them difficult to consume. Additionally, fried foods are often high in fat and can be harder to digest, which may not be suitable for individuals on a soft diet. Therefore, the statement that fried foods may be included in a soft diet is false.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
When a liquid diet has been ordered by the attending physician or dietician, the feedings should be ____ ounces and administered every ____ hours.
- A.
4-6, 3-4
- B.
6-8, 2-3
- C.
8-10, 6-8
- D.
10-12, 2-3
Correct Answer
B. 6-8, 2-3Explanation
When a liquid diet has been ordered, the feedings should be 6-8 ounces and administered every 2-3 hours. This ensures that the patient receives an adequate amount of nutrition throughout the day without overwhelming their digestive system. The 6-8 ounce serving size allows for a sufficient amount of calories and nutrients, while the 2-3 hour interval allows for proper digestion and absorption of the nutrients before the next feeding.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
A high-calorie diet may be effected by modifying the regular diet in which of the following ways?
- A.
Adding snacks
- B.
Increasing portions
- C.
Providing commercial supplements
- D.
Each of the above
Correct Answer
D. Each of the aboveExplanation
A high-calorie diet can be achieved by modifying the regular diet in each of the mentioned ways. Adding snacks can increase the overall calorie intake, while increasing portion sizes can also contribute to consuming more calories. Additionally, providing commercial supplements can be an effective way to add extra calories to the diet. Therefore, all of the mentioned options can help in achieving a high-calorie diet.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Malnourishment.
- A.
Liquid
- B.
High-calorie
- C.
High-protein
- D.
Low-calorie
Correct Answer
B. High-calorieExplanation
Malnourishment refers to a condition where the body does not receive adequate nutrition. High-calorie foods provide a larger amount of energy, which is essential for individuals who are malnourished as it helps in meeting their increased energy needs. Therefore, high-calorie foods are beneficial in combating malnourishment by providing the necessary energy to the body.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Hypothyroidism.
- A.
Low-protein
- B.
Low-calorie
- C.
High-protein
- D.
High-calorie
Correct Answer
B. Low-calorieExplanation
The correct answer is low-calorie because hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to a slower metabolism. In order to manage weight and prevent further weight gain, individuals with hypothyroidism are often advised to follow a low-calorie diet. This helps to create a calorie deficit and promote weight loss.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
Inflammatory GI tract.
- A.
Liquid
- B.
High-calorie
- C.
High-protein
- D.
Low-calorie
Correct Answer
A. Liquid -
- 46.
Low production of antibodies.
- A.
Low-protein
- B.
Low-calorie
- C.
High-protein
- D.
High-calorie
Correct Answer
A. Low-protein -
- 47.
Chronic nephrotic edema.
- A.
High-calorie
- B.
High-protein
- C.
Low-calorie
- D.
Low-protein
Correct Answer
B. High-protein -
- 48.
Which of the following is appropriate procedure in the administration of a highresidue diet?
- A.
Ensure adequate fluid intake
- B.
Limit caffeine intake
- C.
Provide raw or tender-cooked vegetables
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Provide raw or tender-cooked vegetables -
- 49.
Peptic ulcers.
- A.
Low-carbohydrate, highprotein
- B.
Bland
- C.
Low-sodium
- D.
Low-residue
Correct Answer
B. Bland -
- 50.
Hypertension.
- A.
High-residue
- B.
Low-residue
- C.
Low-sodium
- D.
Bland
Correct Answer
B. Low-residue -
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jan 25, 2009Quiz Created by
Jcestero1
- Accreditation Quizzes
- Advanced Placement Quizzes
- AED Exam Quizzes
- Art Exam Quizzes
- Banking Exam Quizzes
- BISC Exam Quizzes
- CADET Exam Quizzes
- CAE Listening Quizzes
- CHS Exam Quizzes
- Computer Operator Exam Quizzes
- Cosmetology State Board Quizzes
- CSAT Quizzes
- CVS Exam Quizzes
- EHR Exam Quizzes
- Engineering Exam Quizzes
- English Exam Quizzes
- Entrance Exam Quizzes
- FSHN Exam Quizzes
- GATE Quizzes
- IGCSE Quizzes
- IT Certification Quizzes
- JEE Exam Quizzes
- Management Exam Quizzes
- Ministerial Exam Quizzes
- OCA Exam Quizzes
- Online Test Quizzes
- Physical Exam Quizzes
- Police Exam Quizzes
- Practice Exam Quizzes
- Prelim Exam Quizzes
- Professional Certification Quizzes
- SNAP Quizzes
- SSC Quizzes
- SSC CGL Quizzes
- UGC NET Exam Quizzes
- UPSC Quizzes
Back to top