Biomedical Science Multiple Choice Questions
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Have you studied biomedical science? Do you have a good understanding of it? Here is a biomedical science quiz consisting of multiple-choice questions on this topic. Try this quiz, and you'll get the chance to refresh your concepts today. For starters, let us remind you that Biomedical science is a field of study focusing on how certain areas of biology and chemistry can apply to health care. Play this quiz now and test your knowledge.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Victor Newman was in a car accident and sustained severe chest trauma resulting in a tension pneumothorax. Manifestations of this disorder include all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Severe chest pain
- B.
Dyspnea
- C.
Shock
- D.
Clubbing
Correct Answer
D. ClubbingExplanation
Tension pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space causing the lung to collapse and putting pressure on the heart and other structures in the chest. Common manifestations of tension pneumothorax include severe chest pain, dyspnea (difficulty breathing), and shock (low blood pressure). However, clubbing, which is the swelling of the fingertips and nails, is not associated with tension pneumothorax. Clubbing is typically seen in conditions such as chronic lung disease or heart disease.Rate this question:
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- 2.
In systemic circulation, which of the following vessel carries oxygenated blood?
- A.
Right vena cava
- B.
Renal arteries
- C.
Pulmonary veins
- D.
Left ventricle
Correct Answer
C. Pulmonary veinsExplanation
The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood in the systemic circulation. After oxygen is exchanged in the lungs, the oxygen-rich blood returns to the heart through the pulmonary veins and is then pumped out to the rest of the body through the systemic circulation. The right vena cava carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the right atrium, the renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys, and the left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood out of the heart to the rest of the body.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A bee stung little Bobby. He experiences itching, erythema, and respiratory distress caused by laryngeal edema and vascular collapse. In the emergency room where he is given an epinephrine injection, Bobby is diagnosed with
- A.
Allergic rhinitis
- B.
Allergic sinusitis
- C.
Anaphylactic shock
- D.
Asthma
Correct Answer
C. AnapHylactic shockExplanation
Based on the symptoms described, such as itching, erythema, respiratory distress, laryngeal edema, and vascular collapse, it can be inferred that Bobby is experiencing anaphylactic shock. Anaphylactic shock is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that occurs rapidly after exposure to an allergen, in this case, a bee sting. The administration of epinephrine is a common treatment for anaphylactic shock, as it helps to reverse the symptoms and stabilize the individual. Allergic rhinitis, allergic sinusitis, and asthma do not typically cause the same severe symptoms as seen in anaphylactic shock.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Common kidney stone treatments that allow small particles to be flushed out of the body through the urinary system does NOT include ___________.
- A.
Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy
- B.
Fluid hydration
- C.
Ureteroscopy and stone basketing
- D.
Using medication to dissolve the stone(s)
Correct Answer
C. Ureteroscopy and stone basketingExplanation
Ureteroscopy and stone basketing is not a treatment that allows small particles to be flushed out of the body through the urinary system. Ureteroscopy involves inserting a thin tube into the ureter to remove or break up larger kidney stones, but it does not involve flushing out small particles. Stone basketing is a technique used during ureteroscopy to grab and remove stones, but it does not involve flushing out particles either. Therefore, ureteroscopy and stone basketing do not fit the description of treatments that allow small particles to be flushed out of the body through the urinary system.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Name the cells that produce histamine in a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.
- A.
Lymphocyte
- B.
Macrophages
- C.
Mast cells
- D.
Neutrophils
Correct Answer
C. Mast cellsExplanation
Mast cells are the cells that produce histamine in a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. Histamine is a chemical mediator that is released by mast cells in response to an allergen. It plays a key role in the inflammatory response by causing vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and smooth muscle contraction. This release of histamine leads to the symptoms associated with allergies, such as itching, redness, and swelling.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of these cells is responsible for producing antibodies?
- A.
B cells
- B.
Cytotoxic T cells
- C.
Helper T cells
- D.
Plasma cells
Correct Answer
A. B cellsExplanation
B cells are responsible for producing antibodies. B cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. When an antigen enters the body, B cells recognize it and differentiate into plasma cells. These plasma cells then produce and secrete antibodies, which are proteins that bind to specific antigens and help to neutralize or eliminate them. Therefore, B cells are directly involved in the production of antibodies, making them the correct answer to the question.Rate this question:
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- 7.
An HIV-positive patient has raised red or purple lesions that appear on his skin, in his mouth, and almost anywhere on his body. What is the stage of his disease process in today's medical terminology?
- A.
ARC
- B.
HIV positive
- C.
AZT
- D.
AIDS
Correct Answer
D. AIDSExplanation
The presence of raised red or purple lesions on the skin, in the mouth, and throughout the body is a characteristic symptom of AIDS. AIDS, or Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, is the final stage of HIV infection. It occurs when the immune system is severely damaged, making the individual susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain types of cancer. Therefore, based on the symptoms described, the patient is in the AIDS stage of the disease process.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which tube conveys sperm from the seminal vesicle to the urethra.
- A.
Ejaculatory duct
- B.
Epididymis
- C.
Oviduct
- D.
Vas deferens
Correct Answer
A. Ejaculatory ductExplanation
The ejaculatory duct is the tube that conveys sperm from the seminal vesicle to the urethra. The seminal vesicle produces a fluid that combines with sperm to form semen, and this mixture is then transported through the ejaculatory duct to the urethra for ejaculation. The epididymis is responsible for storing and maturing sperm, while the oviduct is part of the female reproductive system and the vas deferens transports sperm from the testes to the urethra.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Identify the autoimmune diseases that affects tissues of the nervous system.
- A.
Goodpasture's syndrome
- B.
Hashimoto's disease
- C.
Myasthenia gravis
- D.
Rhernnatoid arthritis
Correct Answer
C. Myasthenia gravisExplanation
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease that affects the tissues of the nervous system. It is characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue, as the immune system mistakenly attacks the receptors on muscle cells, preventing proper nerve signaling. This condition primarily affects the voluntary muscles, such as those used for movement and breathing. Unlike the other options listed, Goodpasture's syndrome affects the kidneys and lungs, Hashimoto's disease affects the thyroid gland, and rheumatoid arthritis primarily affects the joints.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Ln general, excessive RBC breakdown can result in:
- A.
Crohn's disease
- B.
Elevated BUN
- C.
High bilirubin levels
- D.
Peptic ulcers
Correct Answer
C. High bilirubin levelsExplanation
Excessive breakdown of red blood cells (RBCs) can lead to high bilirubin levels. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced during the breakdown of heme in RBCs. Normally, bilirubin is processed by the liver and excreted in bile. However, if there is an excessive breakdown of RBCs, the liver may not be able to process bilirubin efficiently, leading to its accumulation in the blood, resulting in high bilirubin levels. This can occur in conditions such as hemolytic anemia or liver disease.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Old age, obesity, and a family history of diabetes are all characteristics of ______ type of diabetes.
- A.
Type 1 diabetes
- B.
Juvenile diabetes
- C.
IDDM
- D.
Type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer
D. Type 2 diabetesExplanation
Old age, obesity, and a family history of diabetes are all characteristics of type 2 diabetes. Type 2 diabetes is a chronic condition where the body becomes resistant to insulin or doesn't produce enough insulin to regulate blood sugar levels. It is more common in adults, especially those who are overweight or obese, and can be influenced by genetic factors. In contrast, type 1 diabetes, also known as juvenile diabetes or IDDM, is an autoimmune disease that typically develops in childhood or adolescence and is not associated with obesity or family history.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of these is the most common type of vaginitis?
- A.
Yeast
- B.
Protozoan
- C.
Viral
- D.
Both A and B
Correct Answer
D. Both A and BExplanation
Both yeast and protozoan infections are common types of vaginitis. Yeast infections, also known as candidiasis, are caused by an overgrowth of the fungus Candida. Protozoan infections, such as trichomoniasis, are caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. These two types of infections are often seen in women and can cause symptoms like itching, discharge, and discomfort. Therefore, the correct answer is both A and B.Rate this question:
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- 13.
In ______ anemia, the red blood cells become shaped like elongated crescents in the presence of low oxygen concentration.
- A.
Aplastic
- B.
Folic acid
- C.
Sickle cell
- D.
Vitamin B12
Correct Answer
C. Sickle cellExplanation
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder that causes red blood cells to become crescent-shaped when exposed to low oxygen levels. This abnormal shape makes it difficult for the cells to flow smoothly through blood vessels, leading to various complications such as pain, organ damage, and an increased risk of infections. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the gene that produces hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Some immunizations, such as tetanus, require a second application, to strengthen the immune system in response to antigens. The subsequent injections are termed as __________.
- A.
Alerting shots
- B.
Warning shots.
- C.
Booster shots.
- D.
Unnecessary shots.
Correct Answer
C. Booster shots.Explanation
Some immunizations, such as tetanus, require a second application to strengthen the immune system in response to antigens. These subsequent injections are called booster shots. Booster shots help to enhance and prolong the immune response that was initiated by the initial immunization. They are necessary to ensure long-term immunity and protection against the specific disease or infection.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Clinical manifestations of this disease include polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weight loss, and hyperglycemia. Which of the following tests would be ordered to confirm the disease?
- A.
Fasting blood sugar
- B.
Glucagon
- C.
Glucose tolerance test
- D.
Postprandial blood sugar
Correct Answer
C. Glucose tolerance testExplanation
The glucose tolerance test would be ordered to confirm the disease because it measures how well the body is able to process glucose over a certain period of time. This test involves drinking a sugary solution and then having blood samples taken at regular intervals to measure blood sugar levels. If the body is unable to properly process glucose, it may indicate the presence of diabetes, which would explain the clinical manifestations mentioned in the question.Rate this question:
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- 16.
_______________is usually the first symptom of benign prostate hyperplasia.
- A.
Abdominal pain
- B.
Burning pain during urination
- C.
Difficulty in urinating
- D.
Pelvic pain
Correct Answer
C. Difficulty in urinatingExplanation
Difficulty in urinating is usually the first symptom of benign prostate hyperplasia. This condition occurs when the prostate gland enlarges and puts pressure on the urethra, making it difficult to pass urine. As the prostate continues to grow, it can cause further urinary symptoms such as weak urine flow, frequent urination, and the need to strain to start or stop urination. Therefore, difficulty in urinating is commonly experienced by individuals with benign prostate hyperplasia.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A 76-year-old white female patient is on Coumadin therapy. Which of the following tests is commonly ordered to monitor the patient's Coumadin levels?
- A.
Bleeding time
- B.
Blood smear
- C.
Partial thromboplastin time
- D.
Prothrombin time
Correct Answer
D. Prothrombin timeExplanation
Prothrombin time is commonly ordered to monitor Coumadin levels in patients. Coumadin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood, including prothrombin. Prothrombin time measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor the effectiveness of Coumadin therapy. By regularly monitoring prothrombin time, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of Coumadin to ensure that the patient's blood is within the desired therapeutic range, balancing the risk of bleeding and the prevention of blood clots.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Why must influenza immunizations be developed and administered on an annual basis?
- A.
The virus mutates significantly each year.
- B.
People develop resistance to the vaccine.
- C.
The immunization is only strong enough for one year.
- D.
The pharmaceutical companies produce the lowest dosage possible
Correct Answer
A. The virus mutates significantly each year.Explanation
Influenza immunizations must be developed and administered on an annual basis because the virus mutates significantly each year. This means that the strains of the virus circulating in one flu season may be different from the strains in the next season. Therefore, the previous year's vaccine may not provide adequate protection against the new strains. By developing and administering new vaccines each year, scientists can target the specific strains of the virus that are expected to be prevalent in that particular flu season, increasing the effectiveness of the immunization.Rate this question:
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- 19.
An African American couple is undergoing genetic counseling to determine the likelihood of producing children with a recessively genetic blood condition. The genetic tests reveal that the father carries the trait to produce abnormal hemoglobin, HbS, which causes crystallization in RBCs and deforms their shape when Oxygen is low. This condition causes painful crises and is termed as ______.
- A.
Hemophilia
- B.
Thalassemia
- C.
Sickle cell anemia
- D.
Iron-deficiency anemia
Correct Answer
C. Sickle cell anemiaExplanation
The genetic tests reveal that the father carries the trait to produce abnormal hemoglobin, HbS, which causes crystallization in RBCs and deforms their shape when Oxygen is low. This condition causes painful crises. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic blood disorder characterized by the presence of abnormal hemoglobin, which causes red blood cells to become rigid and sickle-shaped. This can lead to various complications including pain, organ damage, and an increased risk of infections.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which drug is commonly used to treat bipolar mood swings?
- A.
Lanoxin
- B.
Lasix
- C.
Lithium carbonate
- D.
Lorazepam
Correct Answer
C. Lithium carbonateExplanation
Lithium carbonate is commonly used to treat bipolar mood swings. It is a mood stabilizer that helps to balance the chemicals in the brain and prevent extreme shifts in mood. Lanoxin and Lasix are not used for bipolar disorder, they are medications used for heart conditions and edema respectively. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, but it is not specifically indicated for bipolar disorder. Therefore, lithium carbonate is the correct answer for treating bipolar mood swings.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is characteristic of Graves' disease?
- A.
It is an autounmune disease
- B.
It most commonly affects males
- C.
Lt usually cannot be treated
- D.
It usually affects the elderly
Correct Answer
A. It is an autounmune diseaseExplanation
Graves' disease is an autoimmune disease, which means that the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own healthy cells and tissues. This condition primarily affects females, although it can also occur in males. While there is no cure for Graves' disease, there are various treatment options available to manage the symptoms and control the overactive thyroid. Contrary to the statement, Graves' disease usually affects younger individuals, typically between the ages of 20 and 40.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The prevention of illness through vaccination occurs due to the formation of ______ cells.
- A.
Helper B cells
- B.
Mast cells
- C.
Immunosurveillance
- D.
Memory cells
Correct Answer
D. Memory cellsExplanation
Memory cells are formed after vaccination and play a crucial role in preventing illness. These cells "remember" the specific pathogen encountered during vaccination and mount a rapid and effective immune response upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen. This memory response helps to eliminate the pathogen before it can cause illness, providing long-term immunity.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of these conditions DO NOT fall under the category of COPD?
- A.
Chronic bronchitis
- B.
Emphysema
- C.
Pneumonia
Correct Answer
C. PneumoniaExplanation
Pneumonia does not fall under the category of COPD because COPD refers to a group of chronic lung diseases characterized by airflow obstruction, while pneumonia is an acute infection of the lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. COPD conditions, such as chronic bronchitis and emphysema, are typically caused by long-term exposure to irritants like cigarette smoke, whereas pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents. Therefore, pneumonia is not considered a chronic condition like COPD.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which is the most common etiology of dementia in Canada?
- A.
Autism
- B.
Alzheimer's disease
- C.
Alcohol abuse
- D.
Anxiety disorder
Correct Answer
B. Alzheimer's diseaseExplanation
Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of dementia in Canada. It is a progressive neurological disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. It accounts for approximately 60-80% of all dementia cases. The disease is characterized by the accumulation of abnormal protein deposits in the brain, leading to the destruction of brain cells and the subsequent decline in cognitive function. Other causes of dementia, such as alcohol abuse and anxiety disorder, may contribute to cognitive impairment but are not as prevalent as Alzheimer's disease. Autism, on the other hand, is a developmental disorder that primarily affects social interaction and communication skills and is not a common cause of dementia.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A toxic goiter has a __________ type of distinguishing characteristic.
- A.
Iodine deficiency
- B.
Parathyroid involvement
- C.
Presence of muscle spasm
- D.
Thyroid hyperfunction
Correct Answer
D. Thyroid hyperfunctionExplanation
A toxic goiter is a condition characterized by an enlarged thyroid gland that produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones. This excessive production of hormones is known as thyroid hyperfunction. Therefore, thyroid hyperfunction is a distinguishing characteristic of a toxic goiter.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Contributing factors of mental disorders includes:
- A.
Heredity
- B.
Trauma
- C.
Stress
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "all of the above" because mental disorders can be influenced by a combination of factors, including heredity, trauma, and stress. Heredity plays a role in the development of mental disorders as certain genes can increase the risk. Trauma, such as abuse or a significant life event, can also contribute to the development of mental disorders. Additionally, high levels of stress can negatively impact mental health and increase the likelihood of experiencing a mental disorder. Therefore, all of these factors can contribute to the development of mental disorders.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Pick the sequence that correctly depicts the flow of blood through the heart to the lungs in order for gas exchange to occur.
- A.
Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, pulmonary artery
- B.
Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs
- C.
Right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, pulmonary artery
- D.
Right ventricle, right atrium, pulmonary artery, lungs
Correct Answer
B. Right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungsExplanation
The correct sequence for the flow of blood through the heart to the lungs for gas exchange to occur is as follows: right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs. Blood enters the heart through the right atrium, then flows into the right ventricle. From the right ventricle, the blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery, which carries it to the lungs for oxygenation and removal of carbon dioxide.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The leading cause of blindness caused by diabetes. It is called
- A.
Retinal detachment
- B.
Retinoblastoma
- C.
Retinopathy
- D.
Rhabdomyosarcoina
Correct Answer
C. RetinopathyExplanation
Retinopathy is the correct answer because it is commonly associated with diabetes and is a leading cause of blindness in individuals with diabetes. Retinopathy refers to damage to the blood vessels in the retina, which can lead to vision loss if left untreated. This condition is a result of high blood sugar levels damaging the small blood vessels in the retina over time. Regular eye exams and proper management of diabetes can help prevent or delay the progression of retinopathy.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Graves' disease be treated by:
- A.
Antithyroid drugs
- B.
Radioactive iodine therapy
- C.
Surgery
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the above options can be used to treat Graves' disease. Antithyroid drugs are commonly prescribed to reduce the production of thyroid hormones. Radioactive iodine therapy involves the administration of radioactive iodine, which destroys the overactive thyroid cells. Surgery, known as thyroidectomy, may be recommended in severe cases where medication and radioactive iodine therapy are not effective or suitable. Therefore, all of these treatment options can be used individually or in combination, depending on the patient's condition and the severity of the disease.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following diseases can not be cured using Penicillin?
- A.
Influenza
- B.
Lyme disease
- C.
Strep throat
- D.
Syphilis
Correct Answer
A. InfluenzaExplanation
Penicillin is an antibiotic that is effective against certain types of bacteria. Influenza, commonly known as the flu, is caused by a virus and not bacteria. Since penicillin only targets bacteria, it is not effective in treating viral infections such as influenza. Therefore, influenza cannot be cured using penicillin.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The most common blood borne infection in Canada is _________.
- A.
Helicobacter pylori
- B.
Hepatitis A
- C.
Hepatitis C
- D.
Hemophilia
Correct Answer
C. Hepatitis CExplanation
Hepatitis C is the most common blood borne infection in Canada. It is a viral infection that primarily affects the liver. It is transmitted through contact with infected blood, such as through sharing needles, receiving blood transfusions, or having unprotected sex with an infected person. Hepatitis C can lead to chronic liver disease, liver cirrhosis, and even liver cancer if left untreated. It is important to raise awareness about this infection and promote preventive measures to reduce its spread.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The positive belief in a drug and its ability to cure a patient's illness, even if this drug is an inactive or inert substance, typically positively influences a patient's perception of their outcome. What is this effect called?
- A.
Synergistic effect
- B.
Potentiation effect
- C.
Placebo effect
- D.
Antagonistic effect
Correct Answer
C. Placebo effectExplanation
The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences a perceived improvement in their condition after receiving a treatment that has no active therapeutic effect. This effect is believed to be driven by the patient's positive belief and expectation in the treatment, which can influence their perception of their outcome. In other words, the placebo effect demonstrates the power of the mind in influencing health outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The interaction of two drugs working together to where each simultaneously helps the other achieve an effect that neither could produce alone is termed a _________.
- A.
Placebo effect.
- B.
Potentiation effect.
- C.
Synergistic effect
- D.
Antagonistic effect.
Correct Answer
C. Synergistic effectExplanation
A synergistic effect refers to the interaction of two drugs that work together to enhance each other's effects, resulting in a more powerful outcome than either drug could produce alone. In this case, both drugs complement each other and contribute to achieving a desired effect. This term is used to describe the positive interaction between drugs, unlike an antagonistic effect where drugs work against each other. The placebo effect, on the other hand, refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences a perceived improvement in symptoms due to their belief in the treatment, even if it is an inactive substance.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The opposing interaction of two drugs in which one decreases or cancels out the effects of the other is termed a
- A.
Placebo effect
- B.
Potentiation effect
- C.
Synergistic effect
- D.
Antagonistic effect
Correct Answer
D. Antagonistic effectExplanation
An antagonistic effect refers to the opposing interaction between two drugs, where one drug decreases or cancels out the effects of the other. In other words, when two drugs have an antagonistic effect, they work against each other, resulting in reduced or nullified effects. This can occur when one drug blocks the receptors or actions of the other drug, leading to a decrease in the intended therapeutic effect.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A disease of the inner ear with fluid disruption in the semicircular canal that causes vertigo is
- A.
Labyrinthitis
- B.
Mastoiditis
- C.
Meniere's disease
- D.
Both A and C
Correct Answer
D. Both A and CExplanation
Both labyrinthitis and Meniere's disease are conditions that affect the inner ear and can cause vertigo. Labyrinthitis is an inflammation of the inner ear, specifically the labyrinth, which includes the semicircular canals. This inflammation can disrupt the fluid in the semicircular canal and lead to vertigo. Meniere's disease, on the other hand, is a chronic condition characterized by fluid buildup in the inner ear, which also affects the semicircular canals and can cause vertigo. Therefore, both A (labyrinthitis) and C (Meniere's disease) can cause fluid disruption in the semicircular canal and result in vertigo.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Gas exchange in the lungs takes place at _______.
- A.
Alveoli
- B.
Bronchi
- C.
Bronchioles
- D.
Trachea
Correct Answer
A. AlveoliExplanation
Gas exchange in the lungs takes place at the alveoli. Alveoli are tiny air sacs located at the ends of the bronchioles in the lungs. They are surrounded by a network of capillaries where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs. Oxygen from the inhaled air diffuses across the walls of the alveoli into the bloodstream, while carbon dioxide, a waste product, moves from the bloodstream into the alveoli to be exhaled. The large surface area and thin walls of the alveoli facilitate efficient gas exchange, allowing oxygen to be taken up by the body and carbon dioxide to be eliminated.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the ________.
- A.
Blood as CO2 gas
- B.
Blood bound to hemoglobin
- C.
Blood plasma in the form of carbonic acid
- D.
Red blood cells
Correct Answer
D. Red blood cellsExplanation
The correct answer is red blood cells. Red blood cells contain a protein called hemoglobin, which has the ability to bind to carbon dioxide. This allows the red blood cells to transport the carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs, where it can be exhaled.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The presence of fluid in the alveoli of the lungs is NOT characteristic of ________.
- A.
COPD
- B.
Pneumonia
- C.
Crohn's disease
- D.
Tuberculosis
Correct Answer
C. Crohn's diseaseExplanation
Fluid in the alveoli of the lungs is not characteristic of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract, causing inflammation and ulcers. It does not directly affect the lungs or cause fluid accumulation in the alveoli. On the other hand, fluid in the alveoli can be seen in conditions such as COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease), pneumonia, and tuberculosis, which are respiratory diseases.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Pick a statement that BEST describes tuberculosis.
- A.
A chronic, systemic disease whose initial infection is in the lungs
- B.
An acute bacterial infection of the lung
- C.
An ordinary lung infection
- D.
A viral infection of the lungs
Correct Answer
A. A chronic, systemic disease whose initial infection is in the lungsExplanation
The given statement that BEST describes tuberculosis is "a chronic, systemic disease whose initial infection is in the lungs." This statement accurately captures the nature of tuberculosis, which is a long-term, widespread disease that initially infects the lungs. Tuberculosis is caused by bacteria and can spread to other parts of the body if left untreated.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A sweat test was done on a patient with the following symptoms: frequent respiratory infections, chronic cough, and foul-smelling bloody stools. Which of the following diseases is probably suspected?
- A.
Cystic breast disease
- B.
Cystic lung disease
- C.
Cystic fibrosis
- D.
Cystic pancreas
Correct Answer
C. Cystic fibrosisExplanation
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder characterized by frequent respiratory infections, chronic cough, foul-smelling or greasy stools, and other symptoms. The sweat test is a common diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis, as individuals with the condition have higher than normal levels of salt in their sweat.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following anatomical parts is involved in both the respiratory and digestive systems?
- A.
Larynx
- B.
Nasal cavity
- C.
Pharynx
- D.
Trachea
Correct Answer
C. pHarynxExplanation
The pharynx is involved in both the respiratory and digestive systems. It serves as a common passage for both air and food. In the respiratory system, the pharynx helps in the passage of air from the nasal cavity to the trachea. In the digestive system, it plays a role in the swallowing process, allowing food to pass from the mouth to the esophagus. Therefore, the pharynx is involved in both the respiratory and digestive systems.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Photophobia or visual aura preceding a severe headache is characteristic of
- A.
Malnutrition
- B.
Mastitis
- C.
Migraines
- D.
Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer
C. MigrainesExplanation
Photophobia or visual aura preceding a severe headache is a characteristic symptom of migraines. Migraines are a type of headache disorder that often involve intense throbbing pain on one side of the head, sensitivity to light (photophobia), and visual disturbances (aura) such as seeing flashing lights or zigzag lines. While malnutrition, mastitis, and myasthenia gravis can cause various symptoms, they are not specifically associated with photophobia and visual aura preceding a severe headache.Rate this question:
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- 43.
A "pill-rolling" tremor of the hand is a characteristic symptom of _________.
- A.
Epilepsy
- B.
Guiillain-Barre syndrome
- C.
Myasthenia gravis
- D.
Parkinson disease
Correct Answer
D. Parkinson diseaseExplanation
A "pill-rolling" tremor of the hand refers to a specific type of tremor where the fingers move in a rolling motion, as if rolling a pill between the thumb and fingers. This type of tremor is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement and is characterized by symptoms such as tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with balance and coordination. The "pill-rolling" tremor is one of the hallmark signs of Parkinson's disease and is often one of the first symptoms to appear.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Most of the digestion of food and absorption of nutrients occur in the
- A.
Ascending colon
- B.
Esophagus
- C.
Small intestine
- D.
Stomach
Correct Answer
C. Small intestineExplanation
Most of the digestion of food and absorption of nutrients occur in the small intestine. This is because the small intestine is responsible for the breakdown of food into smaller molecules through the action of enzymes, and the absorption of these molecules into the bloodstream. The small intestine has a large surface area due to its numerous folds and villi, which increases its capacity for nutrient absorption. In contrast, the ascending colon primarily absorbs water and electrolytes, the esophagus transports food from the mouth to the stomach, and the stomach mainly functions in the initial digestion of food through the release of enzymes and acid.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A chronic inflammatory bowel disease where affected segments of the bowel may be separated by normal bowel tissue is characteristic of
- A.
Appendicitis
- B.
Crohn's disease
- C.
Diverticulitis
- D.
Graves' disease
Correct Answer
B. Crohn's diseaseExplanation
Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that is characterized by the presence of affected segments of the bowel that can be separated by normal bowel tissue. This condition causes inflammation and irritation in the digestive tract, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, and fatigue. It can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus, and can cause complications such as strictures, ulcers, and fistulas. Crohn's disease is a lifelong condition with no known cure, but it can be managed with medication and lifestyle changes.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Early detection programs apply screening guidelines to detect cancers at an early stage, which provides the likelihood of increased survival and decreased morbidity. Which of the following would NOT be a diagnostic or screening test for colorectal cancer?
- A.
Double contrast barium enema
- B.
Sigmoidoscopy
- C.
Fecal occult blood test
- D.
Upper GI x-ray
Correct Answer
D. Upper GI x-rayExplanation
An upper GI x-ray is not a diagnostic or screening test for colorectal cancer because it focuses on the upper part of the gastrointestinal tract, specifically the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Colorectal cancer affects the lower part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the colon and rectum. Therefore, an upper GI x-ray would not provide any information about the presence or stage of colorectal cancer.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The organism transmitted by a mosquito bite that causes malaria is a
- A.
Bacteria
- B.
Protozoa
- C.
Prion
- D.
Virus
Correct Answer
B. ProtozoaExplanation
Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite called Plasmodium, not by bacteria, prions, or viruses. This parasite is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Once inside the human body, the parasite multiplies in the liver and then infects red blood cells, leading to the symptoms of malaria.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A common contraceptive that is implanted in the uterus induces slight endometrial inflammation, which attracts neutrophils to the uterus. These neutrophils are toxic to sperm and prevent the fertilization of the ovum. This contraception is termed
- A.
Spermicides
- B.
Oral contraceptives
- C.
Progestin injections
- D.
An JUD
Correct Answer
D. An JUD -
- 49.
Prevention programs identify risk factors and use strategies to modify attitudes and behaviors to reduce the chance of developing cancers. Which of the following '"otild NOT be an identified risk factor for colorectaI cancer?
- A.
Alcohol use
- B.
Physical inactivity
- C.
A high-fiber diet
- D.
Obesity
Correct Answer
C. A high-fiber dietExplanation
A high-fiber diet would not be identified as a risk factor for colorectal cancer. In fact, a high-fiber diet is often recommended as a preventive measure for colorectal cancer. Fiber helps to promote regular bowel movements and reduce the risk of constipation, which in turn reduces the exposure of the colon to potential carcinogens. Additionally, a high-fiber diet can help to maintain a healthy weight and prevent obesity, which is a known risk factor for colorectal cancer. Therefore, a high-fiber diet is actually beneficial in reducing the chance of developing colorectal cancer.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Cervical cerclage is a procedure used to help prevent
- A.
Breathing restrictions
- B.
Miscarriage
- C.
Torsion
- D.
Torticollis
Correct Answer
B. MiscarriageExplanation
Cervical cerclage is a procedure used to help prevent miscarriage. It involves stitching the cervix closed to provide support and prevent it from opening prematurely during pregnancy. This procedure is typically performed in women who have a history of cervical incompetence or previous miscarriages. By reinforcing the cervix, cervical cerclage can reduce the risk of miscarriage and increase the chances of a successful pregnancy.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Sep 01, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Expert Reviewed by
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Jul 01, 2015Quiz Created by
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