1.
The leucocyte that contains the major basic protein is the
Correct Answer
B. EosinopHil
Explanation
Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that contain major basic protein. This protein is released by eosinophils in response to allergic reactions or parasitic infections. It plays a role in the immune response by attacking and destroying parasites, as well as contributing to inflammation. Neutrophils, monocytes, lymphocytes, and basophils do not contain major basic protein.
2.
Which is the only leukocyte that, after entering the connective tissue from the bloodstream, can re-enter the bloodstream?
Correct Answer
A. LympHocyte
Explanation
Lymphocytes are the only leukocytes that have the ability to re-enter the bloodstream after entering the connective tissue. This is due to their unique ability to migrate between the bloodstream and the lymphatic system. They play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances in the body.
3.
Which of the following substances, produced by platelets, is responsible for
the activation of platelets?
Correct Answer
C. Thromboxane
Explanation
Thromboxane is a substance produced by platelets that is responsible for the activation of platelets. Thromboxane helps in the formation of blood clots by promoting platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction. It is released when platelets are activated and plays a crucial role in hemostasis and wound healing.
4.
Control of the overall level of active thrombin is exerted by :
Correct Answer
D. Antithrombin III
Explanation
Antithrombin III is responsible for controlling the overall level of active thrombin. It acts as a natural anticoagulant by inhibiting the activity of thrombin and other coagulation factors. By binding to thrombin, antithrombin III prevents it from catalyzing the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, thereby inhibiting the formation of blood clots. This regulation is crucial in maintaining the balance between clot formation and prevention of excessive clotting, preventing thrombosis and maintaining normal blood flow.
5.
Which of the following substances, produced by platelets, is responsible for contraction of smooth muscle cells?
Correct Answer
A. Serotonin
Explanation
Serotonin is a substance produced by platelets that is responsible for the contraction of smooth muscle cells. Serotonin acts as a vasoconstrictor, causing the smooth muscles in blood vessels to contract, which helps regulate blood flow and blood pressure. It also plays a role in gastrointestinal motility, uterine contractions, and bronchoconstriction. Therefore, serotonin is the correct answer in this case.
6.
One of the important regulatory roles of thrombin is the binding to protease activatable receptors. These G-protein coupled receptors release interleukins 1 and 6 which result in the secretion of ICAM-l and VCAM-l causing
Correct Answer
A. Platelet aggregation and leukocyte adhesion
Explanation
Thrombin plays an important regulatory role in platelet aggregation and leukocyte adhesion. When thrombin binds to protease activatable receptors, it triggers the release of interleukins 1 and 6. These interleukins then cause the secretion of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1, which are molecules involved in the adhesion of leukocytes to the endothelial cells. Additionally, thrombin also promotes platelet aggregation, which is the process of platelets clumping together to form a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is platelet aggregation and leukocyte adhesion.
7.
Patients with vitamin K deficiency are most likely to have prolonged coagulation
time because of problems associated with:
Correct Answer
C. Factor II
Explanation
Patients with vitamin K deficiency are most likely to have prolonged coagulation time because vitamin K is essential for the production of clotting factors, including Factor II (also known as prothrombin). Factor II is a key component in the coagulation cascade and is responsible for the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, which forms the clot. Without sufficient vitamin K, the production of Factor II is impaired, leading to a deficiency in the clotting process and prolonged coagulation time.
8.
A girl had developed repeated attacks of pneumonia almost immediately after
birth. A blood test taken 3 weeks after birth showed a blood hemoglobin
concentration of 4 .5%(normaI at that age: 15-19%).This couId possibly be a
serious case of:
Correct Answer
B. A-thalassemia but not sickle cell disease or B-thalassemia
Explanation
The low blood hemoglobin concentration of 4.5% suggests a possible case of a-thalassemia, as this condition is characterized by a decreased production of alpha globin chains, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Sickle cell disease and B-thalassemia are not likely causes in this case, as they would typically present with different symptoms and blood test results.
9.
Hemoglobin S can be separated from normal hemoglobin A by electrophoresis on paper or cellulose acetate foil. This is possible because hemoglobin S:
Correct Answer
C. Has a different number of electrical charges than hemoglobin A
Explanation
Hemoglobin S can be separated from normal hemoglobin A by electrophoresis because it has a different number of electrical charges than hemoglobin A. Electrophoresis is a technique that separates molecules based on their charge and size. Since hemoglobin S has a different number of electrical charges compared to hemoglobin A, it will migrate at a different rate during electrophoresis, allowing for their separation.
10.
After an upper respiratory tract infection, a 10-year-old girl with sickle cell disease suddenly falls very ill. A blood test shows a hemoglobin concentration of 4%. The most likely problem is:
Correct Answer
D. Trapping of erythrocytes in the spleen
Explanation
In sickle cell disease, the abnormal shape of red blood cells can cause them to get trapped in the spleen, leading to a decrease in the number of circulating red blood cells. This can result in a low hemoglobin concentration, as seen in the blood test. Therefore, the most likely problem in this case is the trapping of erythrocytes in the spleen.
11.
In your freezer you have blood plasma from one patient with known hemophilia A, and from another patient with hemophilia B. Now you have a new patient, and you don't know what kind of hemophilia he has. So you take his blood and mix it (separately) with the plasma from these two known patients. If your new patient has hemophilia A, his blood will clot when mixed with plasma from
Correct Answer
B. The hemopHilia B patient
Explanation
If the new patient has hemophilia A, his blood will not clot when mixed with plasma from the hemophilia A patient because the plasma from the hemophilia A patient is also deficient in the clotting factor VIII, which is responsible for clotting in hemophilia A. However, his blood will clot when mixed with plasma from the hemophilia B patient because the plasma from the hemophilia B patient contains clotting factor IX, which can compensate for the deficiency in factor VIII and promote clotting. Therefore, the correct answer is the hemophilia B patient.
12.
In theory, a female who is heterozygous for hemophilia A should produce only 50% as much factor VIII as a homozygous normal female. Actually, however, measurements of factor VIII concentration are too variable in heterozygous females to be useful for heterozygote detection. This is because of
Correct Answer
D. Skewed X-inactivation
Explanation
Skewed X-inactivation refers to the uneven inactivation of X chromosomes in females. In females, one of the X chromosomes is randomly inactivated in each cell to achieve dosage compensation. However, in some cases, the inactivation can be skewed, meaning that one X chromosome is preferentially inactivated more often than the other. This can result in a higher proportion of cells expressing the mutant allele, leading to variable factor VIII concentrations in heterozygous females for hemophilia A. Therefore, measurements of factor VIII concentration in heterozygous females are too variable to be useful for heterozygote detection.
13.
A patient presents with blood in the urine. You wish to assess whether this patient has a hemoglobinuria or a myoglobinuria. A blood test for one of these proteins should help you to arrive at the correct conclusion.
Correct Answer
A. Haptoglobin
Explanation
Haptoglobin is the correct answer because it is a protein that binds to free hemoglobin in the blood. If a patient has hemoglobinuria, which is the presence of free hemoglobin in the urine, the haptoglobin level in the blood will be low because it is binding to the hemoglobin. On the other hand, if a patient has myoglobinuria, which is the presence of myoglobin in the urine, the haptoglobin level in the blood will be normal because it does not bind to myoglobin. Therefore, measuring haptoglobin levels can help differentiate between hemoglobinuria and myoglobinuria.
14.
Plasma measurement of which of the following enzymes will give a good indication of acute pancreatitis?
Correct Answer
D. Amylase
Explanation
Plasma measurement of amylase will give a good indication of acute pancreatitis because amylase is an enzyme that is produced by the pancreas. In cases of acute pancreatitis, the pancreas becomes inflamed and damaged, causing an increase in amylase levels in the blood. Therefore, measuring the levels of amylase in the plasma can help diagnose and monitor acute pancreatitis.
15.
Hemoglobin reversibly binds oxygen, protons, 2,3-bis-phosphoglycerate, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. Which statement is CORRECT concerning the nature of these bindings?
Correct Answer
C. When oxyhemoglobin moves to a more acidic environment, it is more apt to release its oxygen
Explanation
When oxyhemoglobin moves to a more acidic environment, the pH decreases. This decrease in pH causes a conformational change in the hemoglobin molecule, making it more likely to release its bound oxygen. This is known as the Bohr effect, where a decrease in pH enhances the unloading of oxygen from hemoglobin.
16.
A solution of equal amount of hemoglobin and myoglobin is maintained at a very low partial pressure of oxygen, so that both proteins exist predominantly in the deoxygenated form. What happens when the solution is then bubbled with a small amount of oxygen?
Correct Answer
C. Much more of the dissolved oxygen binds to myoglobin than to hemoglobin.
Explanation
When the solution is bubbled with a small amount of oxygen, myoglobin undergoes a conformational change that raises its oxygen affinity above that of hemoglobin. This means that myoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen and will bind to more of the dissolved oxygen compared to hemoglobin. Therefore, much more of the dissolved oxygen binds to myoglobin than to hemoglobin.
17.
The hormone binding proteins are important because they
Correct Answer
D. Keep the hormones in an inactive state until they are delivered to the target tissue
Explanation
Hormone binding proteins play a crucial role in keeping the hormones in an inactive state until they reach their target tissue. This is important because it allows for precise regulation and control of hormone activity. If the hormones were active and freely circulating in the bloodstream, they could have unintended effects on various tissues and organs. By binding to hormone binding proteins, the hormones are effectively sequestered and prevented from exerting their effects until they reach their intended destination. This helps ensure that the hormones are only activated when and where they are needed, allowing for more precise and efficient hormonal signaling in the body.
18.
Which of the following enzymes would you expect to find in higher levels in the plasma of children than in adult plasma?
Correct Answer
B. Alkaline pHospHatase
Explanation
Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme that is found in higher levels in the plasma of children compared to adults. This is because alkaline phosphatase is involved in bone growth and development, and children have higher rates of bone turnover and growth compared to adults. Therefore, it is expected that alkaline phosphatase levels would be higher in children as their bones are actively growing and remodeling.
19.
If a patient overdoses on the therapeutic agent streptokinase it will most likely affect which of the following?
Correct Answer
E. Fibrinolysis
Explanation
If a patient overdoses on the therapeutic agent streptokinase, it will most likely affect fibrinolysis. Streptokinase is a medication used to dissolve blood clots by activating plasminogen, which in turn converts to plasmin, an enzyme that breaks down fibrin. Fibrinolysis is the process of breaking down fibrin, the protein that forms blood clots. Therefore, an overdose of streptokinase can lead to excessive fibrinolysis, potentially causing excessive bleeding or hemorrhage.
20.
A family with mother and two children has been blood-typed with the following results: Mother is A-Rh+, the daughter is B-Rh-, and the son is A-Rh+. Is this possible?
Correct Answer
D. Yes, the father must have been BO or AB with one allele Rh-
Explanation
Yes, the father must have been BO or AB with one allele Rh-. This is because the mother is A-Rh+ and the daughter is B-Rh-, which means the father must have contributed the B allele to the daughter's blood type. Since the daughter is Rh-, the father must have contributed the Rh- allele as well. Therefore, the father must have been either BO or AB with one allele Rh- in order for these blood types to be possible in the family.
21.
Which of the following best describes the underlying reason for the difference between a person with blood type A and one with blood type B?
Correct Answer
A. Amino acid substitutions in the galactosyl transferase
Explanation
The difference between a person with blood type A and one with blood type B is due to amino acid substitutions in the galactosyl transferase enzyme. This enzyme is responsible for adding sugars to the surface of red blood cells, determining the blood type. The amino acid substitutions in the galactosyl transferase enzyme result in different sugar structures being added to the red blood cells, leading to the different blood types.