Block 5 Embryo Head Neck Eye Ear BRS W Exp

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| By Chachelly
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Block 5 Embryo Head Neck Eye Ear BRS W Exp - Quiz

BRS PDF's are the worst to translate so be aware of possible spelling errors. B's become 8 and other wierd stuff. Most has been cleaned up but there may be a few left.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The most common site of a thyroglossal cyst is the

    • A.

      Dorsal aspect of neck

    • B.

      Anterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle

    • C.

      Superior mediastinum

    • D.

      Midline close to the hyoid bone

    • E.

      Base of the tongue

    Correct Answer
    D. Midline close to the hyoid bone
    Explanation
    The thyroid gland forms from a diverticulum in the midline of the floor of the pharynx.
    The thyroid migrates caudally and passes ventral to the hyoid bone. During this migration, the thyroid remains connected to the tongue by the thyroglossal duct. If a part of the thyroglossal duct persists, a cyst develops, usually near the hyoid bone.

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  • 2. 

    Taste sensation from the oral part (anterior two thirds) of the tongue is predominantly carried by the

    • A.

      Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

    • B.

      Chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve (CN VII)

    • C.

      Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

    • D.

      Superior laryngeal branch of the vagusnerve (CN X)

    • E.

      Recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagusnerve (CN X)

    Correct Answer
    B. Chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve (CN VII)
    Explanation
    Taste sensation from the mucosa for the oral part of the tongue is carried by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). This part of the tongue forms from pharyngeal arch 1, so the trigeminal nerve (CN V) will carry sensory innervation from the mucosa.

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  • 3. 

    The intermaxillary segment forms via the fusion of the

    • A.

      Maxillary prominences

    • B.

      Mandibular prominences

    • C.

      Palatine shelves

    • D.

      Lateral nasal prominences

    • E.

      Medial nasal prominences

    Correct Answer
    E. Medial nasal prominences
    Explanation
    The intermaxillary segment, which plays a critical role in the formation of the definitive adult palate, forms when the two medial nasal prominences fuse in the midline.

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  • 4. 

    The most common site of a pharyngeal fistula is the

    • A.

      Dorsal aspect of neck

    • B.

      Anterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle

    • C.

      Superior mediastinum

    • D.

      Midline close to the hyoid bone

    • E.

      Base of the tongue

    Correct Answer
    B. Anterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle
    Explanation
    A pharyngeal fistula forms when pharyngeal pouch 2 and pharyngeal groove 2 persist. Therefore, these fistulas are found on the lateral aspect of the neck, usually along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

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  • 5. 

    What is the most common congenital malformation of the head and neck region?

    • A.

      Anterior cleft palate

    • B.

      Posterior cleft palate

    • C.

      Thyroglossal duct cyst

    • D.

      Unilateral cleft lip

    • E.

      Ankyloglossia

    Correct Answer
    D. Unilateral cleft lip
    Explanation
    Unilateral cleft lip is the most common congenital malformation of the head and neck. Cleft lip occurs when the maxillary prominences fail to fuse with the medial nasal prominences and when the underlying somitomeric mesoderm and neural crest fail to proliferate, resulting in a persistent labial groove. Cleft lip occurs in 1 of 900 births and may be unilateral or bilateral

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  • 6. 

    Which pharyngeal arch is associated with Treacher Collins syndrome?

    • A.

      Pharyngeal arch 1

    • B.

      Pharyngeal arch 2

    • C.

      Pharyngeal arch 3

    • D.

      Pharyngeal arch 4

    • E.

      Pharyngeal arch 6

    Correct Answer
    A. pHaryngeal arch 1
    Explanation
    First arch syndrome results from abnormal development of pharyngeal arch 1 due to a lack of migration of neural crest cells. Treacher Collins syndrome is associated with underdevelopment of the zygomatic bone, down-slanting palpebral fissures, and deformed lower eyelids and external ears.

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  • 7. 

    During surgery for removal of a thyroid tumor, a number of small masses of glandular tissue are noted just lateral to the thyroid gland. Metastasis from the thyroid tumor is suspected, but histologic analysis of a biopsy reveals parathyroid tissue and remnants of thymus. How can this finding be explained?

    • A.

      Tumor tissue has differentiated into normal tissue

    • B.

      A parathyroid gland tumor is also present

    • C.

      Ectopic glandular tissue is commonly found in this region

    • D.

      Patient has DiGeorge syndrome

    • E.

      The glandular tissue is a result of a thyroglossal duct cyst

    Correct Answer
    C. Ectopic glandular tissue is commonly found in this region
    Explanation
    The parathyroid and thymus migrate in a caudal and medial direction during development; therefore, ectopic glandular tissue may be found anywhere along the migratory path.

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  • 8. 

    BRS EMBRYO EAR The cochlear duct contains the spiral organ of Corti and is derived from which of the following?

    • A.

      Both ectoderm and mesoderm

    • B.

      Neural crest

    • C.

      Endoderm

    • D.

      Mesoderm

    • E.

      Ectoderm

    Correct Answer
    E. Ectoderm
    Explanation
    The cochlear duct is derived from a thickening of the surface ectoderm called the otic placode.

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  • 9. 

    The middle ear cavity

    • A.

      Is of mesodermal origin

    • B.

      Develops from pharyngeal pouch 1

    • C.

      Develops from pharyngeal arch 1

    • D.

      Develops from pharyngeal arch 2

    • E.

      Develops from the otic vesicle

    Correct Answer
    B. Develops from pHaryngeal pouch 1
    Explanation
    The middle ear cavity develops from pharyngeal pouch 1 as it evaginates to form the tubotympanic
    recess.

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  • 10. 

    The otic vesicle

    • A.

      Gives rise to the bony labyrinth

    • B.

      Is found adjacent to the rhombencephalon

    • C.

      Is derived from neuroectoderm

    • D.

      Gives rise to the auricle (pinna)

    • E.

      Gives rise to the tympanic membrane

    Correct Answer
    B. Is found adjacent to the rhombencepHalon
    Explanation
    The otic vesicle arises from an invagination of the surface ectoderm called the otic placode.
    The otic vesicle is found adjacent to the rhombencephalon.

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  • 11. 

    The auricle (pinna) of the external ear is innervated by which of the following nerves?

    • A.

      CN V3

    • B.

      CN V2

    • C.

      CN XII

    • D.

      CN III

    • E.

      CN VIII

    Correct Answer
    A. CN V3
    Explanation
    The auricle (pinna) of the external ear is innervated by cranial nerves V3 (mandibular division),
    VII, IX, and X; cervical nerves C2 and C3 also innervate the auricle.

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  • 12. 

    VThe stapedius muscle that moves the stapes ossicle is innervated by

    • A.

      CN V3

    • B.

      CN XII

    • C.

      CN III

    • D.

      CN VII

    • E.

      Cervical nerves C2 and C3

    Correct Answer
    D. CN VII
    Explanation
    The stapes is innervated by CN VII.

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  • 13. 

    The utricular portion of the otic vesicle gives rise to the

    • A.

      Ductus reuniens

    • B.

      Cochlear duct

    • C.

      Endolymphatic sac

    • D.

      Scala vestibuli

    • E.

      Scala tympani

    Correct Answer
    C. EndolympHatic sac
    Explanation
    The utricular region of the otic vesicle gives rise to the endolymphatic sac and duct, and
    semicircular ducts.

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  • 14. 

    The saccular portion of the otic vesicle gives rise to the

    • A.

      Organ of Corti

    • B.

      Endolymphatic duct

    • C.

      Superior semicircular canal

    • D.

      Crus commune nonampullare

    • E.

      Lateral semicircular canal

    Correct Answer
    A. Organ of Corti
    Explanation
    The saccular region of the otic vesicle gives rise to the cochlear duct, which houses the spiral
    organ of Corti.

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  • 15. 

    The tubotympanic recess gives rise to

    • A.

      A conduit that interconnects the middle ear and the nasopharynx

    • B.

      The external auditory meatus

    • C.

      The internal auditory meatus

    • D.

      The facial canal

    • E.

      A conduit that interconnects the perilymphatic space with the subarachnoid space

    Correct Answer
    A. A conduit that interconnects the middle ear and the nasopHarynx
    Explanation
    The tubotympanic recess is derived from pharyngeal pouch 1. It gives rise to the tympanic
    cavity and the auditory (eustachian) tube; the auditory tube interconnects the tympanic cavity
    with the nasopharynx.

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  • 16. 

    Perilymph enters the subarachnoid space via the

    • A.

      Cochlear duct

    • B.

      Ductus reuniens

    • C.

      Perilymphatic duct

    • D.

      Vestibular aqueduct

    • E.

      Utriculosaccular duct

    Correct Answer
    C. PerilympHatic duct
    Explanation
    The perilymph enters the subarachnoid space of the posterior cranial fossa via the cochlear
    aqueduct, which contains the perilymphatic duct.

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  • 17. 

    Pharyngeal groove 1 gives rise to the

    • A.

      Internal auditory meatus

    • B.

      External auditory meatus

    • C.

      Eustachian tube

    • D.

      Cervical sinus

    • E.

      Primary tympanic cavity

    Correct Answer
    B. External auditory meatus
    Explanation
    Pharyngeal groove 1 gives rise to the external auditory meatus.

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  • 18. 

    BRS EMBRYO EYE The surface ectoderm gives rise to which of the following structures?

    • A.

      Dilator pupillae muscle

    • B.

      Retina

    • C.

      Lens

    • D.

      Sclera

    • E.

      Choroid

    Correct Answer
    C. Lens
    Explanation
    The lens forms from the lens placode that is induced by the optic cup.

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  • 19. 

    Failure of the choroid fissure to close results in

    • A.

      Congenital detached retina

    • B.

      Congenital aniridia

    • C.

      Congenital aphakia

    • D.

      Coloboma iridis

    • E.

      Microphthalmos

    Correct Answer
    D. Coloboma iridis
    Explanation
    Failure of the choroid (optic) fissure to close results in a cleft of the iris, a coloboma iridis. This defect may extend into the ciliary body, choroid, optic nerve, or retina. Congenital aphakia, absence of the lens, may result from defective development of the lens placode.

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  • 20. 

    The optic cup is an evagination of which of the following?

    • A.

      Telencephalon

    • B.

      Diencephalon

    • C.

      Mesencephalon

    • D.

      Metencephalon

    • E.

      Myelencephalon

    Correct Answer
    B. DiencepHalon
    Explanation
    The optic cup and its derivatives, the retina and optic nerve, develop from the diencephalon.

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  • 21. 

    The epithelium of the ciliary body is derived from

    • A.

      Ectoderm

    • B.

      Mesoderm

    • C.

      Endoderm

    • D.

      Neuroecloderm

    • E.

      Neural crest cells

    Correct Answer
    D. Neuroecloderm
    Explanation
    The ciliary body is derived from the anterior two layers of the optic cup (neuroectoderm), which form the epithelium and form an anterior extension of the choroid (mesoderm).

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  • 22. 

    Hyperoxygenation of premature infants may result in

    • A.

      Congenital glaucoma

    • B.

      Microphthalmia

    • C.

      Coloboma

    • D.

      Retrolental fibroplasia

    • E.

      Persistent pupillary membrane

    Correct Answer
    D. Retrolental fibroplasia
    Explanation
    Retrolental fibroplasia results from hyperoxygenation of premature infants. In premature infants, high oxygen concentration results in vaso-obliteration of the terminal arterioles, leading to hemorrhage and infarction of the retina. This phenomenon is peculiar to the incompletely vascularized peripheral retina

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  • 23. 

    The optic nerve is a tract of the diencephalon that is not completely myelinated until

    • A.

      5 years after birth

    • B.

      2 years after birth

    • C.

      1 year after birth

    • D.

      3 weeks after birth

    • E.

      3 months after birth

    Correct Answer
    E. 3 months after birth
    Explanation
    The axons of the optic nerve are not completely myelinated until 3 months after birth. Myelinated axons are normally not found in the retina. The optic nerve is not a true peripheral nerve but a tract of the diencephalon; when severed, the optic nerve does not regenerate.
    Myelination in the CNS is accomplished by oligodendrocytes; oligodendrocytes are not found in the retina.

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  • 24. 

    The hyaloid canal is found in the

    • A.

      Vitreous body

    • B.

      Choroid

    • C.

      Optic stalk

    • D.

      Ciliary body

    • E.

      Intraretinal space

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitreous body
    Explanation
    The hyaloid canal (Cloquet's canal) is found in the vitreous body. In early development, a hyaloid artery passes through the vitreous body to perfuse the developing lens; in the late fetal period, this artery obliterates to form the hyaloid canal.

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  • 25. 

    Aqueous humor is produced by the

    • A.

      Choroid plexus

    • B.

      Trahecular meshwork

    • C.

      Ciliary processes

    • D.

      Vitreous body

    • E.

      Lens vesicle

    Correct Answer
    C. Ciliary processes
    Explanation
    Aqueous humor is produced by the ciliary processes of the ciliary body. It flows from the posterior chamber, through the pupil, into the anterior chamber, and finally to the canal of Schlemm, which empties into the extraocular veins.

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  • 26. 

    Aqueous humor enters the venous circulation via

    • A.

      Arachnoid villi

    • B.

      Scleral canal

    • C.

      Hyaloid canal

    • D.

      Canal of Schlemm

    • E.

      Cloquet's canal

    Correct Answer
    D. Canal of Schlemm
    Explanation
    Aqueous humor enters the venous circulation via the canal of Schlemm. Blockage of this canal results in increased intraocular pressure (glaucoma).

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  • 27. 

    In a detached retina, the site of detachment is found

    • A.

      Within the outer plexiform layer

    • B.

      Within the inner plexiform layer

    • C.

      Between the inner nuclear layer and the outer nuclear layer

    • D.

      Between the choriocapillaris and the pigmentepithelial layer

    • E.

      Between the pigment epithelial layer and the layer of outer segments of rods and cones

    Correct Answer
    E. Between the pigment epithelial layer and the layer of outer segments of rods and cones
    Explanation
    The site of retinal detachment is between the pigment epithelial layer and the layer of outer segments M rods and cones; this corresponds to the intraretinal space between the inner and outer layers of the optic cup. Retinal detachment occurs when fluid from the vitreous compartment passes through a retinal hole and separates the pigment epithelial layer from the layer of outer segments of rods and cones.

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    Quiz Edited by
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