Block 6 Anatomy Abdomen Prt 1
.JPG "Block 6 Anatomy Abdomen Prt 1 - Quiz")
The diaphragm forms the upper surface of the abdomen and ends at the level of the pelvic bones, where the pelvis begins. Block six in anatomy class covers what the abdomen entails and the quiz below is the first to test out the block chapter. Give it a try and jog your memory.
- 1.
Which vertebral level does the transumbilical plane pass through?
- A.
T10
- B.
T12
- C.
L3/L4 disc
- D.
L5/S1 disc
- E.
At the level of the sacral promontory
Correct Answer
C. L3/L4 discExplanation
The transumbilical plane passes through the L3/L4 disc. This plane is an imaginary line that passes through the umbilicus (belly button) and is used as a reference point in anatomical and surgical procedures. The L3/L4 disc refers to the intervertebral disc between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae, which is the level at which the transumbilical plane passes through.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Camper's and Scarpa's fascia refer to the:
- A.
Fascial layers of the abdominal wall that are deep to the peritoneum.
- B.
Superficial and deep (respectively) fascial layers of the posterior abdominal wall.
- C.
Superficial and deep layers (respectively) of the rectus sheath.
- D.
Fatty and membranous layers (respectively) of the superficial fascia of the inferior anterior abdominal wall.
- E.
Fatty and membranous fascial layers (respectively) of the perineum.
Correct Answer
D. Fatty and membranous layers (respectively) of the superficial fascia of the inferior anterior abdominal wall.Explanation
Camper's and Scarpa's fascia refer to the fatty and membranous layers (respectively) of the superficial fascia of the inferior anterior abdominal wall. These fascial layers are located superficially and provide support and protection to the abdominal muscles and organs. Camper's fascia is the fatty layer, while Scarpa's fascia is the membranous layer.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Most muscle fibers of the external oblique muscle:
- A.
Run transversely
- B.
Run inferomedially from their superior attachment
- C.
Run inferolaterally from their superior attachment
- D.
Pass deep to the linea alba
- E.
Pass deep to the inguinal ligament.
Correct Answer
B. Run inferomedially from their superior attachmentExplanation
The external oblique muscle is a broad, flat muscle located on the sides and front of the abdomen. Its muscle fibers run inferomedially from their superior attachment, which means they run in a downward and inward direction from their upper attachment point. This orientation allows the muscle to contribute to actions such as trunk flexion, rotation, and compression of the abdominal contents.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The nerve supply to the muscles of the anterior abdominal wall:
- A.
Pierces the peritoneum immediately prior to entering the deep surface of the muscle.
- B.
Is derived from the sympathetic trunk
- C.
Travels between the internal oblique and transverses abdominis muscles.
- D.
Also innervates the diaphragm
- E.
Is derived from sacral ventral rami
Correct Answer
C. Travels between the internal oblique and transverses abdominis muscles.Explanation
The nerve supply to the muscles of the anterior abdominal wall travels between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the rectus abdominis muscle or rectus sheath?
- A.
The linea alba separates (lies in the midline between) the two rectus muscles.
- B.
The attachments (tendinous insertions) between the muscle and the anterior layer of sheath account for the abdominal definition (ripples) evident when muscular individuals tense this muscle.
- C.
The posterior layer of the sheath is composed of the aponeuroses of the internal oblique and the transversalis fascia throughout the extent of the sheath.
- D.
The external oblique aponeurosis contributes to the anterior wall of the sheath throughout the craniocaudal extent of the sheath.
- E.
Transverse surgical incisions can be made in this muscle without resulting in muscle fiber necrosis.
Correct Answer
C. The posterior layer of the sheath is composed of the aponeuroses of the internal oblique and the transversalis fascia throughout the extent of the sheath.Explanation
The correct answer is that the posterior layer of the sheath is composed of the aponeuroses of the internal oblique and the transversalis fascia throughout the extent of the sheath. This statement is incorrect because the posterior layer of the rectus sheath is actually formed by the transversalis fascia only, not the aponeuroses of the internal oblique.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The muscles of the anterior abdominal wall assist in all of the following activities except:
- A.
Inspiration
- B.
Defecation
- C.
Sneezing
- D.
Vomiting
- E.
Parturition
Correct Answer
A. InspirationExplanation
The muscles of the anterior abdominal wall assist in activities such as defecation, sneezing, vomiting, and parturition. However, they do not play a direct role in inspiration, which is the act of inhaling or taking in air. Inspiration primarily involves the contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles, which expand the thoracic cavity and allow air to enter the lungs. The muscles of the anterior abdominal wall are not involved in this process.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Ascites refers to:
- A.
Uncontrollable diarrhea.
- B.
Uncontrollable flatulence.
- C.
Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
- D.
Abdominal organ enlargement
- E.
Leakage of fluid through the umbilicus.
Correct Answer
C. Abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.Explanation
Ascites refers to the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. This condition is characterized by the buildup of fluid in the abdominal cavity, causing it to become distended. Ascites can be caused by various underlying conditions such as liver disease, heart failure, kidney disease, and certain cancers. It can lead to symptoms such as abdominal swelling, weight gain, and discomfort. Treatment for ascites involves addressing the underlying cause and may include medication, dietary changes, and procedures to remove the excess fluid.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the umbilicus?
- A.
Umbilical hernias are more common in women.
- B.
Umbilical eversion is associated with increased intraabdominal pressure.
- C.
Underlying the umbilicus is the umbilical ring.
- D.
All layers of the anterolateral abdominal wall fuse at the umbilicus.
- E.
The umbilicus is in the L1 dermatome.
Correct Answer
E. The umbilicus is in the L1 dermatome.Explanation
The umbilicus is not in the L1 dermatome. The umbilicus is actually in the T10 dermatome, which is located between the T10 and T11 spinal segments. The dermatomes are specific areas of the skin that are innervated by a single spinal nerve, and the umbilicus is innervated by the T10 spinal nerve.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Upon palpating the anterior abdominal wall of a patient, you notice an intense reflexive muscular contraction in the abdominal muscles. Which of the following is not correct pertaining to this sign?
- A.
It is called "guarding."
- B.
It may indicate an inflamed appendix.
- C.
Functionally, these spasmodic muscular contractions are an attempt to protect the underlying viscera.
- D.
It is best observed when the patient is perfectly supine.
- E.
The impulses for muscular contractions are carried through the ventral rami of the inferior thoracic and first lumbar nerves.
Correct Answer
D. It is best observed when the patient is perfectly supine.Explanation
The given statement "It is best observed when the patient is perfectly supine" is not correct pertaining to the sign of intense reflexive muscular contraction in the abdominal muscles, also known as guarding. Guarding is best observed when the patient is not supine, but rather in a position that allows for relaxation of the abdominal muscles, such as lying on their side or flexing their hips. This position helps to eliminate any voluntary contraction of the abdominal muscles and allows for a more accurate assessment of guarding.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is not correct pertaining to a typical surgical incision used for an appendectomy?
- A.
The McBurney point is identified
- B.
An almost transverse or an oblique (McBurney) incision may be used.
- C.
The subcostal nerve is identified and preserved
- D.
The iliohypogastric nerve is identified and preserved.
- E.
If gridiron incisions are used, there is no loss of strength in the ability of the anterolateral abdominal muscles to resist intraabdominal pressure.
Correct Answer
C. The subcostal nerve is identified and preservedExplanation
The subcostal nerve is not identified and preserved during a typical surgical incision for an appendectomy.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Endoscopic abdominal surgery:
- A.
Requires a larger incision than traditional surgery and is only used for obese patients
- B.
Is more likely to result in incisional hernias
- C.
Requires less time for healing than conventional surgery
- D.
Refers to a procedure whereby the lower six thoracic nerves are anesthetized allowing the patient to be awake during abdominal surgery
- E.
Refers to a procedure whereby abdominal surgery is performed via instruments passed through the alimentary tract
Correct Answer
C. Requires less time for healing than conventional surgeryExplanation
Endoscopic abdominal surgery refers to a procedure where abdominal surgery is performed using small incisions and a camera. This minimally invasive technique allows for faster recovery and healing compared to traditional open surgery, which requires larger incisions. The smaller incisions in endoscopic surgery result in less tissue damage, reduced pain, and a lower risk of complications such as infection and incisional hernias. Therefore, it is correct to say that endoscopic abdominal surgery requires less time for healing than conventional surgery.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A transverse incision through the rectus abdominis muscle and both layers of the rectus sheath at the arcuate line would transect the:
- A.
Inferior epigastric artery.
- B.
Thoracoepigastric vein.
- C.
First lumbar artery.
- D.
Ilioinguinal nerve.
- E.
T12 intercostal nerve.
Correct Answer
A. Inferior epigastric artery.Explanation
A transverse incision through the rectus abdominis muscle and both layers of the rectus sheath at the arcuate line would transect the inferior epigastric artery. The rectus abdominis muscle is supplied by the inferior epigastric artery, which is a branch of the external iliac artery. The arcuate line is the point where the posterior rectus sheath ends and the anterior rectus sheath becomes the only layer covering the rectus abdominis muscle. Therefore, cutting through both layers of the rectus sheath at this line would also transect the inferior epigastric artery.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following associations is incorrect?
- A.
Median umbilical fold—urachus
- B.
Medial umbilical folds—obliterated parts of umbilical arteries
- C.
Lateral umbilical folds—inferior epigastric arteries
- D.
Falciform ligament—connects internal aspect of superior abdominal wall to lesser omentum
- E.
Falciform ligament—paraumbilical veins
Correct Answer
D. Falciform ligament—connects internal aspect of superior abdominal wall to lesser omentumExplanation
The falciform ligament connects the internal aspect of the superior abdominal wall to the liver, not the lesser omentum. The lesser omentum connects the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach and the first part of the duodenum.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the inguinal ligament?
- A.
It is composed of the aponeurotic fibers of the external oblique muscle.
- B.
It extends primarily between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle.
- C.
It is often perforated by a direct inguinal hernia.
- D.
It has fibers that cross the midline to help form the reflected inguinal ligament.
- E.
It is paralleled deeply by the iliopubic tract, which is composed of transversalis fascia.
Correct Answer
C. It is often perforated by a direct inguinal hernia.Explanation
The inguinal ligament is not often perforated by a direct inguinal hernia. Direct inguinal hernias occur medial to the inferior epigastric vessels and do not pass through the inguinal ligament. Instead, they push through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The following image depicts a physician palpating the:
- A.
Fundus of the stomach.
- B.
Pancreas.
- C.
Inferior margin of the liver.
- D.
Costodiaphragmatic recess.
- E.
Transverse colon.
Correct Answer
C. Inferior margin of the liver.Explanation
The image shows a physician palpating the area below the liver, which is known as the inferior margin of the liver. This is the correct answer because the image clearly depicts the physician's hand pressing on the lower edge of the liver, which is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the deep (internal) inguinal ring?
- A.
It is an opening in the peritoneum.
- B.
It is located lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
- C.
It transmits the spermatic cord in males
- D.
It transmits the round ligament of the uterus in females
- E.
It forms the deep entrance to the inguinal canal
Correct Answer
A. It is an opening in the peritoneum.Explanation
The deep (internal) inguinal ring is not an opening in the peritoneum. It is a defect in the transversalis fascia, which is a layer of connective tissue that lines the abdominal wall. The deep inguinal ring is located lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and transmits the spermatic cord in males and the round ligament of the uterus in females. It forms the deep entrance to the inguinal canal.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following is incorrect pertaining to the inguinal canal?
- A.
It transmits an indirect inguinal hernia.
- B.
It is traversed prenatally by the processes vaginalis, which later occludes.
- C.
It is traversed prenatally by the primordial testis.
- D.
Its roof is formed by the inguinal ligament.
- E.
Its superficial opening is the superficial (external) inguinal ring.
Correct Answer
D. Its roof is formed by the inguinal ligament.Explanation
The correct answer is "Its roof is formed by the inguinal ligament." The inguinal canal is a passage in the lower abdominal wall that allows structures like blood vessels and nerves to pass through. Its roof is formed by the arching fibers of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles, not the inguinal ligament. The inguinal ligament forms the floor of the inguinal canal.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Cryptorchidism refers to:
- A.
Inflammation of the inguinal triangle.
- B.
An undescended testis.
- C.
An enlargement of the round ligament of the uterus.
- D.
Fluid in the inguinal canal
- E.
The abnormal descent of an ovary into the inguinal canal.
Correct Answer
B. An undescended testis.Explanation
Cryptorchidism refers to an undescended testis. This condition occurs when one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum before birth. Normally, the testes develop inside the abdomen and then move down into the scrotum through a passage called the inguinal canal. However, in cases of cryptorchidism, the testes remain trapped in the abdomen or along the pathway to the scrotum. This condition can lead to infertility and an increased risk of testicular cancer if not treated.Rate this question:
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- 19.
One of the standard tests of a newborn infant is to stroke the inside of its thigh to elicit the cremaster reflex. What would be the response you would expect to see?
- A.
Twitching of the skin in the hypogastric region
- B.
Closing of the labia
- C.
Contraction of the dartos muscle
- D.
Penile rigidity
- E.
Testicular retraction
Correct Answer
E. Testicular retractionExplanation
When the inside of a newborn infant's thigh is stroked, the expected response is testicular retraction. This means that the testicles will move upwards towards the body. This reflex is called the cremaster reflex and is a normal response in newborns. The other options listed are not associated with this reflex and would not be the expected response.Rate this question:
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- 20.
In examining a male patient you place your finger in his superficial inguinal ring and ask him to cough. You then feel a sudden impulse medial to your finger. You conclude that your patient most likely has:
- A.
A femoral hernia.
- B.
A direct inguinal hernia.
- C.
An undescended testis.
- D.
A supravesical hernia.
- E.
Testicular cancer.
Correct Answer
B. A direct inguinal hernia.Explanation
When a patient coughs and a sudden impulse is felt medial to the finger placed in the superficial inguinal ring, it indicates a direct inguinal hernia. In a direct inguinal hernia, the hernia protrudes through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. This impulse is caused by the hernia pushing against the finger. A femoral hernia would present as a bulge below the inguinal ligament, while an undescended testis and testicular cancer are unrelated to the inguinal ring examination. A supravesical hernia would present as a bulge above the pubic bone.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 24, 2012Quiz Created by
Chachelly
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