CCNA 2 V6.0 Final Exam 2017 (Option C)

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CCNA Quizzes & Trivia

In line with preparing you to tackle the CCNA 2 V6.0 final exam, option c quiz below has some detailed questions on the course and is designed to help you prepare for the finals. If you understand how the questions are set you won’t find it hard to answer them. Give it a try!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H3?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    • E.

      5

    • F.

      6

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    After a packet leaves H1, it will first go through the switch, where the Layer 2 (L2) header will be rewritten to include the MAC address of the switch. Then, the packet will be forwarded to the router, where the L2 header will be rewritten again to include the MAC address of the router. Finally, the packet will be forwarded to H3 without any further L2 header rewrites. Therefore, the L2 header is rewritten twice in the path to H3.

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  • 2. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

    • A.

      0.0.0.0

    • B.

      172.16.100.128

    • C.

      172.16.100.2

    • D.

      110

    • E.

      791

    Correct Answer
    B. 172.16.100.128
    Explanation
    The highlighted value "172.16.100.128" represents a specific destination network in the routing table. This is because it is a specific IP address that can be used to identify a particular network or host on the network. The other values listed are not IP addresses and do not represent a specific destination network.

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  • 3. 

    On which two routers would a default static route be configured? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Stub router connection to the rest of the corporate or campus network

    • B.

      Any router where a backup route to dynamic routing is needed for reliability

    • C.

      Edge router connection to the ISP

    • D.

      Any router running an IOS prior to 12.0

    • E.

      The router that serves as the gateway of last resort

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Stub router connection to the rest of the corporate or campus network
    C. Edge router connection to the ISP
    Explanation
    A default static route is typically configured on a stub router connection to the rest of the corporate or campus network and on an edge router connection to the ISP.

    The stub router is responsible for connecting a smaller network (such as a branch office or a department) to the larger corporate or campus network. By configuring a default static route on this router, any traffic that is not destined for the local network will be forwarded to the corporate or campus network.

    The edge router, on the other hand, is responsible for connecting the internal network to the external network (ISP). By configuring a default static route on this router, any traffic that is not destined for the internal network will be forwarded to the ISP.

    Therefore, a default static route would be configured on both the stub router connection to the rest of the corporate or campus network and the edge router connection to the ISP.

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  • 4. 

    ​Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

    • A.

      R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

    • B.

      R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

    • C.

      R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

    • D.

      R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

    Correct Answer
    C. R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
    Explanation
    This command will create a static route on R2 to reach PC B. It specifies the destination network as 172.16.2.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. The next hop address is set to 172.16.3.1, indicating that packets destined for PC B should be forwarded to this IP address.

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  • 5. 

    Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ​ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?

    • A.

      Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

    • B.

      Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.

    • C.

      Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.

    • D.

      Add an administrative distance of 254.

    Correct Answer
    C. Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0. This is because the static route command with the given destination network and mask of 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 is too specific and only allows traffic to reach a specific subnet. By changing the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0, it becomes a default route that matches any destination IP address, allowing user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet.

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  • 6. 

    A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?​

    • A.

      Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

    • B.

      Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200

    • C.

      Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

    • D.

      Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

    Correct Answer
    B. Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
    Explanation
    This command will implement a backup floating static route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network because it specifies the correct network address and subnet mask (172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0). The next-hop interface is S0/0/0 and the administrative distance is set to 200, indicating that it is a backup route.

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  • 7. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?​

    • A.

      Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36.

    • B.

      Change the administrative distance to 1.

    • C.

      Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34.

    • D.

      Change the administrative distance to 120.

    Correct Answer
    D. Change the administrative distance to 120.
    Explanation
    The administrative distance determines the preference of routes when there are multiple paths to the same destination. A lower administrative distance indicates a more preferred route. In this case, the static route has an administrative distance of 100, which is lower than the OSPF route. Therefore, traffic is being sent through the backup link instead of the OSPF link. By changing the administrative distance to 120, which is higher than the OSPF route's administrative distance, the static route will only be used when the OSPF link is down.

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  • 8. 

    Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

    • A.

      It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.

    • B.

      It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

    • C.

      It has an administrative distance of 1.

    • D.

      It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
    Explanation
    A dynamically learned route is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols. Routing protocols are responsible for exchanging information about network topology and updating routing tables accordingly. This ensures that the route remains up-to-date and reflects any changes in the network. The other statements are not necessarily true for dynamically learned routes. They may be affected by changes in the network topology, have different administrative distances, and may be identified by different prefixes in the routing table.

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  • 9. 

    Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      They improve netw​ork security.

    • B.

      They use fewer router resources.

    • C.

      They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

    • D.

      They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

    • E.

      They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. They improve netw​ork security.
    B. They use fewer router resources.
    Explanation
    Static routes improve network security because they do not advertise network information, making it harder for potential attackers to gain knowledge about the network. Additionally, static routes use fewer router resources compared to dynamic routes, as they do not require the router to continuously update and maintain routing tables.

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  • 10. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. All hosts and router interfaces are configured correctly. Pings to the server from both H1 and H2 and pings between H1 and H2 are not successful. What is causing this problem?

    • A.

      RIPv2 does not support VLSM.

    • B.

      RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R1.

    • C.

      RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.

    • D.

      RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R3.

    • E.

      RIPv2 does not support discontiguous networks.

    Correct Answer
    C. RIPv2 is misconfigured on router R2.
    Explanation
    The problem is caused by a misconfiguration of RIPv2 on router R2. This misconfiguration is preventing successful pings between H1 and H2, as well as pings to the server from both H1 and H2. The misconfiguration on R2 is likely causing incorrect routing information to be propagated, resulting in the inability to reach the desired destinations.

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  • 11. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

    • A.

      110

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      782

    • D.

      0

    Correct Answer
    B. 1
    Explanation
    The administrative distance value of 1 indicates that the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network is directly connected. This means that the network is directly connected to the interface of R2, making it the most reliable and preferred route.

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  • 12. 

    A network administrator reviews the ​routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Default route

    • B.

      Supernet route

    • C.

      Ultimate route

    • D.

      Parent route

    • E.

      Level 2 child route

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Ultimate route
    E. Level 2 child route
    Explanation
    The given route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1 can be described as an "ultimate route" because it directly leads to the destination network. Additionally, it can be described as a "level 2 child route" because it is a more specific route within a larger network.

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  • 13. 

    Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway ​routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Scalability

    • B.

      ISP selection

    • C.

      Speed of convergence

    • D.

      The autonomous system that is used

    • E.

      Campus backbone architecture

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Scalability
    C. Speed of convergence
    Explanation
    When deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use, scalability and speed of convergence are important factors to consider. Scalability refers to the ability of the protocol to handle a growing network and accommodate a large number of routers and networks. Speed of convergence refers to how quickly the protocol can adapt to changes in the network, such as route failures or additions, and update its routing tables. These factors are crucial in ensuring efficient and reliable routing within the network. ISP selection, the autonomous system used, and campus backbone architecture are not directly related to the choice of interior gateway routing protocol.

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  • 14. 

    What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?

    • A.

      Aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains

    • B.

      Aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries

    • C.

      Provides access to the user

    • D.

      Provides fault isolation

    Correct Answer
    C. Provides access to the user
    Explanation
    The access layer in the Cisco Borderless Architecture is responsible for providing access to the user. This means that it serves as the entry point for end devices to connect to the network. The access layer typically includes switches and wireless access points that connect end devices such as computers, phones, and printers. It ensures that these devices can communicate with the rest of the network and access the resources they need.

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  • 15. 

    What is the name of the layer in the Cisco ​borderless switched network design that would have more switches deployed than other layers in the network design of a large organization?

    • A.

      Access

    • B.

      Core

    • C.

      Data link

    • D.

      Network

    • E.

      Network access

    Correct Answer
    A. Access
    Explanation
    In the Cisco borderless switched network design, the layer that would have more switches deployed than other layers in the network design of a large organization is the access layer. The access layer is responsible for connecting end devices to the network and typically has a higher number of switches to accommodate the large number of devices connected at this layer.

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  • 16. 

    What will a Cisco LAN switch do if it receives an incoming frame and the destination MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table?

    • A.

      Drop the frame.

    • B.

      Send the frame to the default gateway address.

    • C.

      Use ARP to resolve the port that is related to the frame.

    • D.

      Forward the frame out all ports except the port where the frame is received.

    Correct Answer
    D. Forward the frame out all ports except the port where the frame is received.
    Explanation
    If a Cisco LAN switch receives an incoming frame and the destination MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table, it will forward the frame out all ports except the port where the frame is received. This is because the switch does not have the information about the destination MAC address in its table, so it assumes that the frame needs to be broadcasted to all connected devices in order to reach the intended destination.

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  • 17. 

    Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?

    • A.

      Collision detecting

    • B.

      Frame error checking

    • C.

      Faster frame forwarding

    • D.

      Frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information

    Correct Answer
    B. Frame error checking
    Explanation
    The store-and-forward switching method has an advantage over the cut-through switching method because it performs frame error checking. This means that before forwarding a frame, it checks for any errors in the frame's data. This ensures that only error-free frames are forwarded, leading to better data integrity and reliability in the network. In contrast, the cut-through switching method does not perform frame error checking and forwards frames without verifying their integrity.

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  • 18. 

    Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

    • A.

      Borderless switching

    • B.

      Cut-through switching

    • C.

      Ingress port buffering

    • D.

      Store-and-forward switching

    Correct Answer
    D. Store-and-forward switching
    Explanation
    Store-and-forward switching is a method in which the switch receives the entire frame before forwarding it to the destination. It checks the Frame Check Sequence (FCS) to ensure the integrity of the frame. If the FCS check fails, indicating an error in the frame, the switch drops the frame. Therefore, store-and-forward switching is the switching method that drops frames that fail the FCS check.

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  • 19. 

    In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

    • A.

      When the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

    • B.

      When the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

    • C.

      When the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed

    • D.

      When the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

    Correct Answer
    C. When the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed
    Explanation
    A Layer 2 switch would have an IP address configured when it needs to be remotely managed. This allows administrators to access and configure the switch remotely over a network. By assigning an IP address to the switch, it can be accessed using protocols such as Telnet, SSH, or web-based management interfaces. This is particularly useful in larger networks where physical access to the switch may not be convenient or feasible.

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  • 20. 

    A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      IP address

    • B.

      VTP domain

    • C.

      Vty lines

    • D.

      Default VLAN

    • E.

      Default gateway

    • F.

      Loopback address

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. IP address
    C. Vty lines
    E. Default gateway
    Explanation
    To enable remote management access on a Cisco switch, the following three items need to be configured:

    1. IP address: This is necessary to assign an IP address to the switch so that it can be accessed remotely over the network.

    2. vty lines: These are virtual terminal lines that allow remote users to connect to the switch using protocols like Telnet or SSH.

    3. Default gateway: This is the IP address of the router or gateway that the switch will use to forward traffic to other networks or the internet.

    These three configurations are essential for enabling remote management access on a Cisco switch.

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  • 21. 

    As part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?

    • A.

      Auto secure MAC addresses

    • B.

      Dynamic secure MAC addresses

    • C.

      Static secure MAC addresses

    • D.

      Sticky secure MAC addresses

    Correct Answer
    D. Sticky secure MAC addresses
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sticky secure MAC addresses". Sticky secure MAC addresses is a port security configuration that allows the switch to dynamically learn and retain MAC addresses for each port. This means that even after a power outage, the learned MAC addresses are still retained when the switches are brought back online. The other options, such as auto secure MAC addresses, dynamic secure MAC addresses, and static secure MAC addresses, do not specifically mention the retention of dynamically learned MAC addresses after a power outage.

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  • 22. 

    A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?

    • A.

      Off

    • B.

      Restrict

    • C.

      Protect

    • D.

      Shutdown

    Correct Answer
    C. Protect
    Explanation
    When the violation mode "protect" is configured on an interface, it will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped without sending any notification. This means that if a device with an unauthorized or unknown MAC address tries to send packets through the interface, those packets will be dropped without any alert being sent to the network administrator.

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  • 23. 

    What caused the following error message to appear?01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

    • A.

      Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.

    • B.

      An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.

    • C.

      NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.

    • D.

      A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.

    • E.

      Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.

    Correct Answer
    E. Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
    Explanation
    The error message indicates that a security violation occurred on switch port Fa0/8, resulting in the port being put into an err-disable state. This suggests that port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made. Port security is a feature that allows administrators to restrict access to a switch port based on MAC addresses. In this case, the MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 was detected on the port, indicating that an unauthorized device attempted to connect. As a result, the port was disabled to prevent any further unauthorized access.

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  • 24. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 between two switches that have a trunk link between them. What ​native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    • E.

      5

    • F.

      6

    Correct Answer
    F. 6
  • 25. 

    Which statement describes a characteristic of the extended range VLANs that are created on a Cisco 2960 switch?

    • A.

      They are numbered VLANs 1002 to 1005.

    • B.

      They cannot be used across multiple switches.

    • C.

      They are reserved to support Token Ring VLANs.

    • D.

      They are not stored in the vlan.dat file.

    Correct Answer
    D. They are not stored in the vlan.dat file.
    Explanation
    Extended range VLANs are not stored in the vlan.dat file. The vlan.dat file is used to store the VLAN configuration information on a Cisco switch. However, extended range VLANs, which are VLANs numbered from 1006 to 4094, are not stored in this file. Instead, they are stored in a separate file called the vlan.dat-1 file. This allows for better management and organization of the VLAN configuration on the switch.

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  • 26. 

    A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN ​routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

    • A.

      Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1

    • B.

      Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast

    • C.

      Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

    • D.

      Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

    Correct Answer
    C. Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
    Explanation
    The correct command to prepare port Gi1/1 for the task of configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick method is "Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk". This command configures the port to operate in trunk mode, allowing it to carry traffic for multiple VLANs.

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  • 27. 

    A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?

    • A.

      172.16.20.2

    • B.

      172.16.26.254

    • C.

      172.16.47.254

    • D.

      172.16.48.5

    Correct Answer
    C. 172.16.47.254
    Explanation
    The given ACL command "access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255" specifies a range of IP addresses where the first 20 bits (172.16.32.0) are fixed and the next 12 bits (0.0.15.255) can vary. The ACE will match any IP address within this range. Among the given options, only the IP address 172.16.47.254 falls within this range, as the last 12 bits (47.254) are within the specified range of 0.0.15.255.

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  • 28. 

    The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Access-class 5 in

    • B.

      Access-list 5 deny any

    • C.

      Access-list  standard VTYpermit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

    • D.

      Access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31

    • E.

      Ip access-group 5 out

    • F.

      Ip access-group 5 in

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Access-class 5 in
    D. Access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
    Explanation
    The command "access-class 5 in" is needed to apply an ACL to incoming traffic on the VTY lines, ensuring that only devices allowed by the ACL can access the routers via Telnet. The command "access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31" is needed to create an access list that permits traffic from the 10.7.0.0/27 network, which includes the IP addresses used by the network administrators' computers. Together, these two commands will allow only the network administrators' devices to have Telnet access to the routers.

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  • 29. 

    A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

    • A.

      Access-group 11 in

    • B.

      Access-class 11 in

    • C.

      Access-list 11 in

    • D.

      Access-list 110 in

    Correct Answer
    B. Access-class 11 in
    Explanation
    The command "access-class 11 in" is used to apply the ACL to the VTY lines. This command specifies that access to the VTY lines should be controlled using the ACL with the number 11. The "in" keyword indicates that the ACL should be applied to incoming traffic on the VTY lines.

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  • 30. 

    What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

    • A.

      To notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased

    • B.

      To notify other hosts not to request the same IP address

    • C.

      For hosts on other subnets to receive the information

    • D.

      For routers to fill their routing tables with this new information

    Correct Answer
    A. To notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased
    Explanation
    The DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased. This is important because it allows other DHCP servers to update their records and ensure that the same IP address is not leased to another host. By broadcasting the message, all DHCP servers on the subnet can receive the notification and update their information accordingly.

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  • 31. 

    What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

    • A.

      Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.

    • B.

      Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

    • C.

      The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses from 172.16.4.1 through 172.16.4.5 inclusive.

    • D.

      The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.

    Correct Answer
    C. The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses from 172.16.4.1 through 172.16.4.5 inclusive.
    Explanation
    Adding the command "ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5" to the router's configuration will exclude the addresses 172.16.4.1 through 172.16.4.5 from being assigned by the DHCP server function of the router. This means that the DHCP server will not assign these addresses to any clients requesting an IP address, ensuring that they are not used by any devices on the network.

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  • 32. 

    A host on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN is not being assigned an IPv4 address by an enterprise DHCP server with the address 10.10.200.10/24. What is the best way for the network engineer to resolve this problem?

    • A.

      Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.200.10 on the router interface that is the 10.10.100.0/24 gateway.

    • B.

      Issue the command default-router 10.10.200.10 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.

    • C.

      Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.100.0 on the router interface that is the 10.10.200.0/24 gateway.

    • D.

      Issue the command network 10.10.200.0 255.255.255.0 at the DHCP configuration prompt on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN gateway router.

    Correct Answer
    A. Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.200.10 on the router interface that is the 10.10.100.0/24 gateway.
    Explanation
    The best way for the network engineer to resolve the problem of the host not being assigned an IPv4 address by the DHCP server is by issuing the command "ip helper-address 10.10.200.10" on the router interface that serves as the gateway for the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN. This command will enable the router to forward DHCP broadcast messages to the specified DHCP server, allowing the host to receive an IPv4 address from the server.

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  • 33. 

    What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?

    • A.

      The MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface

    • B.

      A randomly generated 64-bit hexadecimal address

    • C.

      An IPv6 address that is provided by a DHCPv6 server

    • D.

      An IPv4 address that is configured on the interface

    Correct Answer
    A. The MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface
    Explanation
    In the EUI-64 process, the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface is used to create an IPv6 interface ID. This is done by taking the MAC address and inserting the hexadecimal value FFFE in the middle. This creates a 64-bit address that is unique to the interface. Using the MAC address ensures that the interface ID is globally unique and helps in identifying the device on the network.

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  • 34. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

    • A.

      Ipv6 unicast-routing

    • B.

      Dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​

    • C.

      Ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​

    • D.

      Ipv6 nd other-config-flag

    • E.

      Prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70

    Correct Answer
    D. Ipv6 nd other-config-flag
    Explanation
    The "ipv6 nd other-config-flag" statement allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests. This statement enables the router to advertise additional configuration information, such as DNS server addresses, to the clients using Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP). By including this flag, the router informs the clients that they can obtain additional configuration details through stateless DHCPv6.

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  • 35. 

    Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What ​IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?

    • A.

      10.130.5.76

    • B.

      209.165.200.245

    • C.

      203.0.113.5

    • D.

      172.16.1.10

    • E.

      192.0.2.1

    • F.

      209.165.200.226

    Correct Answer
    C. 203.0.113.5
  • 36. 

    Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on RT1 and RT2. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between RT2 and the web server?

    • A.

      192.0.2.2

    • B.

      172.16.1.10

    • C.

      203.0.113.10

    • D.

      172.16.1.254

    • E.

      192.168.1.5

    • F.

      209.165.200.245

    Correct Answer
    F. 209.165.200.245
  • 37. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.

    • B.

      The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.

    • C.

      The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 209.165.200.235.

    • D.

      Traffic with the destination address of a public web server will be sourced from the IP of 192.168.1.10.

    • E.

      The output is the result of the show ip nat statistics command.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.
    B. The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10. This can be inferred from the exhibit, which shows the translation table of the NAT device. The translation table maps the public IP address (209.165.200.235) to the private IP address (192.168.10.10). Therefore, any requests made by the host with the public IP address will use the translated source address. Additionally, the output is the result of the show ip nat translations command, as it displays the NAT translation table.

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  • 38. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. A company has an internal network of 172.16.25.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 172.16.12.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?

    • A.

      10.0.0.31

    • B.

      172.16.12.5

    • C.

      172.16.12.33

    • D.

      172.16.25.35

    • E.

      192.168.1.10

    Correct Answer
    D. 172.16.25.35
    Explanation
    The source IPv4 address that is translated by R1 with PAT is 172.16.25.35. This can be determined by analyzing the given information that the company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to the outside network. Since the IP address 172.16.25.35 belongs to the internal network of employee workstations (172.16.25.0/24), it will undergo NAT translation when connecting to the outside network.

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  • 39. 

    What benefit does NAT64 provide?

    • A.

      It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

    • B.

      It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

    • C.

      It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.

    • D.

      It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

    Correct Answer
    C. It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
    Explanation
    NAT64 provides the benefit of allowing sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses. This is important because it enables communication between IPv6-only hosts and IPv4-only hosts, facilitating the transition from IPv4 to IPv6. By translating the addresses, NAT64 allows for seamless connectivity and ensures compatibility between the two different addressing schemes.

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  • 40. 

    A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

    • A.

      Show ip protocols

    • B.

      Show ip interface

    • C.

      Show cdp neighbors

    • D.

      Show port-security

    • E.

      Show mac-address-table

    Correct Answer
    C. Show cdp neighbors
    Explanation
    The "show cdp neighbors" command provides common information relevant to both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary protocol that allows network devices to discover and gather information about neighboring devices. By using this command, the network engineer can obtain information about the directly connected devices, including their IP addresses, platform, and capabilities. This information is useful for troubleshooting, network mapping, and understanding the overall network topology.

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  • 41. 

    What are three functions provided by the ​syslog service? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      To gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting

    • B.

      To select the type of logging information that is captured

    • C.

      To specify the destinations of captured messages

    • D.

      To periodically poll agents for data

    • E.

      To provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device

    • F.

      To provide traffic analysis

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. To gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting
    B. To select the type of logging information that is captured
    C. To specify the destinations of captured messages
    Explanation
    The syslog service provides three functions: gathering logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting, selecting the type of logging information that is captured, and specifying the destinations of captured messages. These functions allow for effective logging and management of system events and errors, enabling administrators to identify and resolve issues efficiently.

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  • 42. 

    A network administrator is verifying a configuration that involves network monitoring. What is the purpose of the global configuration command logging trap 4?

    • A.

      System messages will be forwarded to the number following the logging trap argument.

    • B.

      System messages that exist in levels 4-7 must be forwarded to a specific logging server.

    • C.

      System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device.

    • D.

      System messages will be forwarded using a SNMP version that matches the argument that follows the logging trap command.

    Correct Answer
    C. System messages that match logging levels 0-4 will be forwarded to a specified logging device.
    Explanation
    The command "logging trap 4" is used to specify the severity level of system messages that will be forwarded to a specified logging device. In this case, the command indicates that system messages with severity levels 0-4 will be forwarded. Severity levels range from 0 (emergency) to 7 (debugging), so this command ensures that important system messages up to level 4 are captured and sent to the designated logging device for monitoring and analysis.

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  • 43. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

    • A.

      This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.

    • B.

      This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.

    • C.

      This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.

    • D.

      This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.

    Correct Answer
    A. This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.
    Explanation
    The message in the syslog server indicates a "normal but significant condition." This means that there is an event or situation that is worth noting, but it does not require immediate action or indicate any warning or error conditions. It is simply a notification to inform the administrator about the condition.

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  • 44. 

    What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?

    • A.

      It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.

    • B.

      It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.

    • C.

      It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.

    • D.

      It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be co-installed on a router.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Cisco PAK is to serve as a key for enabling an IOS feature set. This means that the PAK is used to unlock specific features and capabilities within the Cisco IOS software. It is not a proprietary encryption algorithm, a compression file type, or a way to compress an existing IOS. Instead, it acts as a license key that allows users to access and utilize certain functionalities within the IOS software.

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  • 45. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

    • A.

      The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.

    • B.

      The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.

    • C.

      The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.

    • D.

      The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.

    Correct Answer
    C. The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.
    Explanation
    Based on the debug output, the "inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP" is the most likely cause of the problem. This is indicated by the "NAT: translation failed (A)" message, which suggests that the translation from the inside local address to the inside global address is not successful. Since the inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP, it cannot be properly routed to the Internet, resulting in the inability to access the Internet from PC-A.

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  • 46. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Host B

    • B.

      Host C

    • C.

      Host D

    • D.

      Host E

    • E.

      Host F

    • F.

      Host G

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Host C
    C. Host D
    E. Host F
    Explanation
    Host A will send ARP requests to hosts C, D, and F because they are connected to the same VLAN as Host A. Host B, E, and G are not connected to the same VLAN as Host A, so they will not receive ARP requests from Host A.

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  • 47. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:R1# copy running-config tftpAddress or name of remote host [ ]? When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

    • A.

      192.168.9.254

    • B.

      192.168.10.1

    • C.

      192.168.10.2

    • D.

      192.168.11.252

    • E.

      192.168.11.254

    Correct Answer
    D. 192.168.11.252
    Explanation
    The network administrator should enter the IP address 192.168.11.252 at the prompt because it is the address of the TFTP server where the running configuration of the router will be copied.

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  • 48. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

    • A.

      Because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99

    • B.

      Because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN

    • C.

      Because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch

    • D.

      Because VLAN 99 has not yet been created

    Correct Answer
    D. Because VLAN 99 has not yet been created
    Explanation
    The reason VLAN 99 is missing is because it has not been created. In the exhibited configuration and output, there is no mention or indication of VLAN 99 being created. Therefore, it is not available or present in the network.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 18, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Gopnik
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