1.
Both switches and hubs are being utilized within the Certkiller network. Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity in this network?
Correct Answer
D. D. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network
Explanation
Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network. This means that each port on a switch is its own collision domain, whereas with hubs, all ports are in the same collision domain. By dividing the network into multiple collision domains, switches can reduce the chances of collisions occurring and improve network performance.
2.
Which one of the following characteristics is true regarding the use of hubs and switches?
Correct Answer
E. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network.
Explanation
Switches increases the number of collisions domains in the network. Switches that are configured with VLANs will reduce the size of the collision domains by increasing the number of collision domains in a network, but making them smaller than that of one big, flat network.
3.
When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? Choose all the valid answer choices)
Correct Answer(s)
B. A switch is a multiport bridge,
C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each frame received.
Explanation
Both bridges and switches build the bridge table by listening to incoming frames and examining the source MAC address in the frame. Switches are multiport bridges that allow you to create multiple broadcast domains. Each broadcast domain is like a distinct virtual bridge within a switch.
4.
Which of the following correctly describe the various functions and virtues of a router? (Select all valid answer choices)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Packet switching
C. Packet filtering
E. Internetwork communication
Explanation
The main function of a router is to connect different, separated networks together. In doing so, switching packets from one network to another is a primary function, along with providing for communication between networks. As an additional feature, routers are capable of providing filtering on a network address and application port level, so choice C is also correct.
5.
The LAN needs are expanding at the Certkiller corporate office, which is quickly growing. You are instructed to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment on the Certkiller network. Which of the following are layer 1 devices that you can use? (Choose all that apply.)
Correct Answer(s)
D. A hub
E. A repeater
Explanation
A hub simply repeats the electrical signal and makes no attempt to interpret the electrical signal (layer 1) as a LAN frame (Layer 2). So, a hub actually performs OSI layer 1 functions, repeating an electrical signal, whereas a switch performs OSI layer 2 functions, actually interpreting Ethernet header information, particularly addresses, to make forwarding decisions. Hubs can be used to increase the number of stations that can be supported on a LAN. Because the repeater does not interpret what the bits mean, but does examine and generate electrical signals, a repeater is considered to operate at Layer 1. Repeaters can be used to physically extend the LAN to greater distances.
6.
Cisco is the leader in the router market space. What basic functions do their routers perform in a network? (Choose two)
Correct Answer(s)
B. Path selection
C. Packet switching
Explanation
The primary functions of a router are: Packet Switching and Path Selection. It is the routers job to determine the best method for delivering the data, and switching that data as quickly as possible.
7.
Both bridges are switches are being used throughout the Certkiller LAN. Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches in this network? (Choose 3)
Correct Answer(s)
B. Switches usually have a higher number of ports than most bridges.
D. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
E. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.
Explanation
Switches usually have a higher number of ports than most bridges because switches are designed to connect multiple devices within a LAN, so they need to support more connections. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts because they operate at the data link layer of the OSI model, which includes the handling of broadcast traffic. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses because they use MAC addresses to determine where to forward data packets within the network.
8.
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
Correct Answer(s)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
C. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
D. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
Explanation
A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop. This means that it connects the customer's equipment to the service provider's network by converting the digital signals from the customer's equipment into a format that can be transmitted over the digital local loop.
A modem terminates an analog local loop. This means that it connects the customer's equipment to the service provider's network by converting the analog signals from the customer's equipment into a format that can be transmitted over the analog local loop.
A router is commonly considered a DTE device. DTE stands for Data Terminal Equipment, and a router is a device that connects multiple networks together and directs traffic between them. It is commonly considered a DTE device because it is the endpoint of a communication circuit.
In summary, a CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop, a modem terminates an analog local loop, and a router is commonly considered a DTE device.
9.
The Certkiller network administrator needs to determine what LAN devices to install on the Certkiller network. What are two advantages of using Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
D. Filtering frames based on MAC addresses
Explanation
A: A half duplex connection is where only one device can send or receive at a time. A full duplex connection is where both devices can send and receive at the same time. Thus, if you have a 100Mb half-duplex connection, only sending at 100Mb OR receiving at 100Mb can happen at the same time. If you have a 100Mb full duplex connection, you can effectively get 200Mb out of the link because you could be sending 100Mb and receiving 100Mb at the same time. D: Switches are capable of filtering frames based on any Layer 2 fields. For example, a switch can be programmed to reject (not forward) all frames sourced from a particular network. Because link layer information often includes a reference to an upper-layer protocol, switches usually can filter on this parameter. Furthermore, filters can be helpful in dealing with unnecessary broadcast and multicast packets.
10.
CDP is being used throughout the Certkiller network. What are two reasons why the Certkiller network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two)
Correct Answer(s)
B. To obtain the IP Address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
D. To verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
Explanation
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary protocol used to gather information about directly connected Cisco devices. By using CDP, the Certkiller network administrator can obtain the IP Address of a connected device in order to telnet to it, allowing for remote management and configuration. Additionally, CDP can be used to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails, helping to troubleshoot and diagnose network connectivity issues.
11.
CDP is running between two Certkiller devices. What information is supplied by CDP? (Select three)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Device Identifiers
B. Capabilities list
C. Platform
Explanation
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary protocol that runs between Cisco devices. It is used to discover and gather information about directly connected Cisco devices. The information supplied by CDP includes device identifiers, which are unique identifiers assigned to each Cisco device, capabilities list, which describes the features and functions supported by the device, and platform, which refers to the hardware or software platform on which the device is running. CDP does not supply route identifiers or neighbor traffic data.
12.
Two Certkiller offices are connected as shown below:Two buildings on the London campus of a the Certkiller corporation must be connected to use Ethernet with a bandwidth of at least 100 Mbps. Certkiller is concerned about possible problems from voltage potential differences between the two buildings. Which media type should be used for the connection?
Correct Answer
B. Fiber optic cable
Explanation
Current Ethernet technololgy typically comes via either copper UTP or fiber ccables. In this scenario the distance between the buildings is only 55 meters so either copper or fiber could be used, as the distance limitation for 100M UTP Ethernet is 100 meters. However, fiber would be a better fit as it is not prone to errors that could occur due to the voltage potential differences. Because fiber is a dielectric material, it's not susceptible to electrical interference. FO-product vendors also claim that fiber systems make secure communications easier. Interference immunity and lack of emissions are givens in FO systems and in the fiber medium itself.
13.
Refer to the Certkiller network shown below:
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Based on the information shown above, what is needed to allow host Certkiller 1 to ping host Certkiller 2?
Correct Answer
E. A router connected to the switches with straight-through cables
Explanation
Routers are Layers 3 devices used for inter-network communication. In this scenario there are two different networks, so both switches need to connect to a router using straight-through cables. A straight-through cable is used to connect two different devices like, switch to router, host to switch. Since we need to insert a router for communication between the two switches, straight through cables will be used between the switches and the router.
14.
As a CCNA candidate, you must know the various layers of the OSI model. At which layers of the OSI Model do Wide Area Networks operate in? (Choose two)
Correct Answer(s)
A. pHysical Layer
B. Datalink Layer
Explanation
A WAN is a data communications network that covers a relatively broad geographic area and that often uses transmission facilities provided by common carriers, such as telephone companies. WAN technologies generally function at the lower two layers of the OSI reference model: the physical layer and the data link layer as shown below.
Note: Occasionally WAN's would also be considered to operate at layer 3, but since this question asked for only 2 chopices layers 1 and 2 are better choices.
15.
While troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the network, you issue the ping command from your PC command prompt, but the output shows "request times out." At which OSI layer is this problem associated with?
Correct Answer
E. The network layer
Explanation
TCP/IP includes ICMP, a protocol designed to help manage and control the operation of a TCP/IP network. The ICMP protocol provides a wide variety of information about a network's health and operational status. Control message is the most descriptive part of a name. ICMP helps control and manage IP's work and therefore is considered part of TCP/IP's network layer. CCNA Self-Study CCNA ICND exam certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-58720-083-X) page 277.
16.
You download a file from an FTP site on the Internet. What is the highest layer in the OSI model used in this FTP operation?
Correct Answer
A. Application
Explanation
Layer 7 is the application layer, which is the highest layer in the OSI model. This layer describes the use of end user applications, such as opening movie files (avi, mpeg, etc) used Microsoft Office applications, using WWW browsers, using Telnet, and using FTP.
17.
A host computer has been correctly configured with a static IP address, but the default gateway is incorrectly set. Which layer of the OSI model will be first affected by this configuration error?
Correct Answer
C. Layer 3
Explanation
IP Addressing and IP routing resides on the OSI Network layer, which is layer 3.
18.
Which layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for ensuring reliable end-to-end delivery of data?
Correct Answer
D. Transport
Explanation
A key function of the transport layer is to provide connection services for the protocols and applications that run at the levels above it. These can be categorized as either connection-oriented services or connectionless services. Some protocol suites, such as TCP/IP, provide both a connection-oriented and a connectionless transport layer protocol, to suit the needs of different applications. The transport layer is also the place in the layer stack where functions are normally included to add features to end-to-end data transport. Where network layer protocols are normally concerned with just "best effort" communications, where delivery is not guaranteed. Transport layer protocols are given intelligence in the form of algorithms that ensure that reliable and efficient communication between devices takes place. This encompasses several related jobs, including lost transmission detection and handling, and managing the rate at which data is sent to ensure that the receiving device is not overwhelmed. Transmission quality, meaning ensuring that transmissions are received as sent, is so important that some networking references define the transport layer on the basis of reliability and flow-control functions. However, not all transport layer protocols provide these services. Just as a protocol suite may have a connection-oriented and a connectionless transport layer protocol, it may also have one that provides reliability and data management services, and one that does not. Again, this is the case with TCP/IP: there is one main transport layer protocol; TCP, that includes reliability and flow control features, and a second, UDP, that doesn't.
19.
At which OSI layer is a logical path created between two host systems named CK1 and CK2 on the Certkiller LAN?
Correct Answer
E. Network
Explanation
A logical path is created between two host systems at the Network layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for routing and addressing, ensuring that data packets are correctly delivered from the source to the destination. Therefore, the logical path between host systems CK1 and CK2 on the Certkiller LAN would be established at the Network layer.
20.
Which OSI layer is associated with the following: The acknowledgement of transmissions, sequencing, and flow control across a network?
Correct Answer
C. Layer 4
Explanation
The Transport layer (Layer 4) defines several functions, including the choice of protocols. The most important Layer 4 functions are error recovery and flow control. The transport layer may provide for retransmission, i.e., error recovery, and may use flow control to prevent unnecessary congestion by attempting to send data at a rate that the network can accommodate, or it might not, depending on the choice of protocols. Multiplexing of incoming data for different flows to applications on the same host is also performed. Reordering of the incoming data stream when packets arrive out of order is included. Examples include: TCP, UDP, and SPX.
21.
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
Correct Answer
E. Network
Explanation
The correct answer is Network because the Network layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network. This layer is responsible for routing and addressing packets, ensuring that they are delivered to the correct destination across different networks. The Network layer header includes the source and destination IP addresses, which are used to determine the path the packet should take to reach its destination.
22.
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two)
Correct Answer(s)
B. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and adds reliability and flow control information.
C. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
Explanation
The Transport Layer: You can think of the transport layer of the OSI model as a boundary between the upper and lower protocols. The transport layer provides a data transport service that shields the upper layers from transport implementation issues such as the reliability of a connection. The transport layer provides mechanisms for: Segmenting upper layer applications The establishment, maintenance, and orderly termination of virtual circuits Information flow control and reliability via TCP. Transport fault detection and recovery The Network Layer: Layer three of the OSI model is the network layer. The network layer creates and sends packets from source network to destination network. It provides consistent end-to-end packet delivery services and control information. It creates and uses layer 3 addresses for use in path determination and to forward packets. Incorrect Answers: A: This correctly describes the physical layer, not the presentation layer. D: Although the data link layer adds physical (MAC) source and destination addresses, it adds it to a frame, not a segment. E: Packets are encapsulated, not frames.
23.
When files are transferred between a host and an FTP server, the data is divided into smaller pieces for transmission. As these pieces arrive at the destination host, they must be reassembled to reconstruct the original file. What provides for the reassembly of these pieces into the correct order?
Correct Answer
A. The sequence number in the TCP header
Explanation
The Transport layer can provide reliable networking via acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control. Acknowledgments Delivered segments are acknowledged to the sender. If they are not acknowledged, the sender will retransmit. Sequencing Data segments are sequenced into their original order when they arrive at the destination. Flow Control Provides buffer controls that prevent packet flooding to the destination host. Buffers store bursts of data for processing when the transmission is complete. Layer 4 protocols include the following: Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) User Datagram Protocol (UDP) Sequenced Packet Exchange (SPX)A reliable communications protocol created by Novell NetWare
24.
What data structure is described in the exhibit shown above?
Correct Answer
B. TCP segment
Explanation
The exhibit shown above is describing a data structure called a TCP segment. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a protocol used for reliable and ordered delivery of data over a network. A TCP segment is a unit of data that is encapsulated within an IP datagram and transmitted over an Ethernet frame or other network protocols. It contains information such as source and destination port numbers, sequence and acknowledgment numbers, and control flags. Therefore, the correct answer is TCP segment.
25.
Part of the Certkiller network is displayed below:Study the exhibit shown above. Host Certkiller A has established a connection with the Certkiller II server attached to interface E0 of the Certkiller 2 router. Which of the following statements describe the information contained in protocol data units sent from Host Certkiller to Certkiller II? (Choose three)
Correct Answer(s)
A. The destination port number in a segment header will have a value of 80
C. The destination IP address of a packet will be the IP address of the network interface of the Certkiller II server
D. The destination address of a frame will be the MAC address of the E0 interface of Certkiller 1 router
Explanation
The first statement is correct because the destination port number in a segment header for HTTP traffic is typically 80. The second statement is incorrect because the destination IP address of a packet sent from Host Certkiller to Certkiller II will be the IP address of the network interface of the Certkiller II server, not the E0 interface of Certkiller 1 router. The third statement is correct because the destination IP address of a packet sent from Host Certkiller to Certkiller II will be the IP address of the network interface of the Certkiller II server. The fourth statement is incorrect because the destination address of a frame sent from Host Certkiller to Certkiller II will be the MAC address of the E0 interface of Certkiller 2 router, not Certkiller 1 router.
26.
You have just installed a new web server on the Certkiller network. You are required to ensure that the web server is accessible from the Internet. The network uses private addressing, so an IP-to-registered address mapping is required. To do this, you enter the following command: Certkiller (config)# ip nat inside source static 192.168.2.1 198.18.1.254 You unsuccessfully try to ping the Internet from a PC host on the LAN. During the troubleshooting process, you enter the "show ip nat translations" command but the output is blank. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
Correct Answer
D. The interfaces must be configured for NAT.
Explanation
In order to successfully configure a static NAT translation, the interfaces must be configured for NAT, in addition to the global NAT command that was entered. The router interface that lies on the inside part of the network must be defined using the "ip nat inside" command. Similarly, the WAN interface that is being used for the Internet connection must be defined using the "ip nat outside" command. Incorrect Answers: A. In order to make an internal server reachable from the Internet, a static one to one NAT entry must be configured for the server. The keyword "overload" is used to configure many to one NAT, or PAT. B, C. This need not be done in order to create a static NAT entry. These steps are typically done in setting up NAT so that inside LAN users can access the Internet via NAT.
27.
Which protocol below uses TCP port 443 at layer 4?
Correct Answer
B. HTTPS
Explanation
HTTPS is the secured version of the HTTP application, which normally uses 128 bit SSL encryption to secure the information sent and received on a web page. An example is a banking web site, or a trustworthy shopping web site that takes credit card information. It is an application layer protocol which uses TCP port 443. Incorrect Answers: A. HTML is not a protocol. C. TFTP uses UDP port 69. D. Telnet uses TCP port 23. E. SMTP uses TCP port 25.
28.
As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the OSI model very well. Which of the following are associated with the application layer (layer 7) of the OSI model? (Choose two)
Correct Answer(s)
B. Telnet
C. FTP
Explanation
The application layer is the top layer of the OSI model and is used to describe the end user applications that can be used over a network. Layer Name Examples Application (layer 7) Telnet, HTTP, FTP, WWW browsers, NFS, SMTP gateways, SNMP
Incorrect Answers: A. TCP resides at layer 4. D. ARP is a function of the data link layer, which is layer 2. E. IP is used at layer 3 (network layer). Reference: CCNA Self-Study CCNA INTRO exam certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-58720-094-5) Page 34.
29.
As the Certkiller network administrator, you are required to have a firm understanding of the OSI model. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model? (Choose two)
Correct Answer(s)
B. It encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model
C. It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components; thus aiding component development, design and troubleshooting
Explanation
The OSI (Open System Interconnection) reference model was created as a reference point for communications devices. A layered approach is used to segment the entire telecommunications process into a series of smaller steps. A is correct because it encourages a level of standardization by encouraging that functions be compared to known layers. D is also correct because it allows engineers to focus on the development, refining, and perfection of simpler components.
30.
You need to describe the various types of flow control to your co-workers. Which of the following are types of flow control that can be used in a network? (Choose three)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Congestion avoidance
B. Windowing
D. Buffering
Explanation
Congestion avoidance, windowing, and buffering are all types of flow control that can be used in a network.
Congestion avoidance is a technique used to prevent network congestion by regulating the flow of data. It involves monitoring the network traffic and taking proactive measures to avoid congestion, such as slowing down the transmission rate or rerouting the data.
Windowing is a flow control mechanism that allows the sender and receiver to negotiate the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required. It helps in optimizing the transmission and reception of data by adjusting the window size based on network conditions.
Buffering involves temporarily storing data in a buffer before transmitting or processing it. It helps in managing the flow of data between devices with different processing speeds, ensuring that data is not lost or overwhelmed.
Load balancing, although mentioned in the options, is not a type of flow control. It is a technique used to distribute network traffic evenly across multiple resources to optimize performance and avoid overloading any single resource.
31.
Which of the protocols below use TCP at the transport layer? (Select four)
Correct Answer(s)
B. SMTP
C. FTP
D. HTTP
E. HTTPS
Explanation
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Profile for email), FTP (File Transfer Protocol), and HTTP/HTTPS (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol for internet) all use TCP because of the reliable delivery mechanism. SMTP uses TCP port 25, FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21, HTTP uses TCP port 80, and HTTPS uses TCP port 443. Incorrect Answers: A, C: SNMP and TFTP use UDP as the transport mechanism. Generally speaking, protocols that use the keywords "trivial" or "simple" uses UDP, since connectionless, best effort delivery mechanism usually suffice. Reference: CCNA Self-Study CCNA INTRO exam certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-58720-094-5) Page 163.
32.
Correct Answer(s)
B. This is an OSI layer 4 header.
C. This is traffic from an FTP server.
E. The last PDU received in this session had a sequence number of 292735.
Explanation
As the header contains the sequence number and ACK number fields, it represents a TCP header. Choice B is correct as TCP works on Layer 4 i.e. Transport Layer. Source Port mentioned in the header is 21 which indicate it is FTP Traffic because FTP uses port 20 and 21 for data and control. So choice C is correct. The acknowledgment number refers to the sequence number of the last PDU received, which is 292735, making choice E also correct.
33.
Which fields are included in the TCP header? (Choose three).
Correct Answer(s)
A. Source Port
B. Acknowledgement Number
E. Window
Explanation
Source Port: 16 bits. Destination Port: 16 bits. Sequence Number: 32 bits. The sequence number of the first data byte in this segment. If the SYN bit is set, the sequence number is the initial sequence number and the first data byte is initial sequence number + 1.
Acknowledgment Number: 32 bits. If the ACK bit is set, this field contains the value of the next sequence number the sender of the segment is expecting to receive. Once a connection is established this is always sent. Data Offset: 4 bits. The number of 32-bit words in the TCP header. This indicates where the data begins. The length of the TCP header is always a multiple of 32 bits. Reserved: 3 bits. Must be cleared to zero. ECN, Explicit Congestion Notification: 3 bits. Added in RFC 3168. Control Bits: 6 bits. Window: 16 bits, unsigned. The number of data bytes beginning with the one indicated in the acknowledgment field which the sender of this segment is willing to accept. Checksum: 16 bits. This is computed as the 16-bit one's complement of the one's complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the TCP header, and the data, padded as needed with zero bytes at the end to make a multiple of two bytes. Urgent Pointer: 16 bits, unsigned. If the URG bit is set, this field points to the sequence number of the last byte in a sequence of urgent data. Options: 0 to 44 bytes. Options occupy space at the end of the TCP header. All options are included in the checksum. An option may begin on any byte boundary. The TCP header must be padded with zeros to make the header length a multiple of 32 bits. Data: Variable length.
34.
Acknowledgements, sequencing, and flow control are functions that are handled by which layer of the OSI model?
Correct Answer
B. Layer 4
Explanation
Layer 4 of the OSI model is responsible for the functions of acknowledgements, sequencing, and flow control. This layer is known as the Transport Layer. It ensures that data is delivered reliably and in the correct order by providing error detection and correction, as well as managing the flow of data between the source and destination.
35.
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
Correct Answer
E. Decrease the window size
Explanation
A TCP window the amount of outstanding (unacknowledged by the recipient) data a sender can send on a particular connection before it gets an acknowledgment back from the receiver that it has gotten some of it. For example if a pair of hosts are talking over a TCP connection that has a TCP window size of 64 KB (kilobytes), the sender can only send 64 KB of data and then it must stop and wait for an acknowledgment from the receiver that some or all of the data has been received. If the receiver acknowledges that all the data has been received then the sender is free to send another 64 KB. One way to improve the reliability of the TCP connection is to reduce the window size that the receiver needs to receive before sending an acknowledgement. However, this will reduce throughput as more segments and acknowledgements will need to be sent in order to transfer the same amount of data.
36.
You have set up an Internet based FTP server, where people can upload and download files. In terms of the OSI model, what is the highest layer used during the FTP sessions.
Correct Answer
A. Application
Explanation
The application layer is the highest layer (layer 7) of the OSI model, and is reserved for end user applications. Since FTP is itself an application, layer 7 is the highest layer used. Incorrect Answers: B, C, D, E, F, G. In any given FTP session, all of these layers will be used at some point but they are incorrect because the question asked for the highest layer used by FTP.
37.
ICMP is often used in troubleshooting and verifying network. What statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two)
Correct Answer(s)
C. They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
Explanation
ping may be used to find out whether the local machines are connected to the network or whether a remote site is reachable. This tool is a common network tool for determining the network connectivity which uses ICMP protocol instead of TCP/IP and UDP/IP. This protocol is usually associated with the network management tools which provide network information to network administrators, such as ping and traceroute (the later also uses the UDP/IP protocol). ICMP is quite different from the TCP/IP and UDP/IP protocols. No source and destination ports are included in its packets. Therefore, usual packet-filtering rules for TCP/IP and UDP/IP are not applicable. Fortunately, a special "signature" known as the packet's Message type is included for denoting the purposes of the ICMP packet. Most commonly used message types are namely, 0, 3, 4, 5, 8, 11, and 12 which represent echo reply, destination unreachable, source quench, redirect, echo request, time exceeded, and parameter problem respectively. In the ping service, after receiving the ICMP "echo request" packet from the source location, the destination Incorrect Answers ICMP is an IP protocol so A and E are incorrect. ICMP doesn't guarantee datagram delivery so B is wrong as well.
38.
Which of the following services use TCP? (Choose three)
Correct Answer(s)
B. SMTP
D. FTP
E. HTTP
Explanation
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a reliable mechanism for data delivery. SMTP, FTP and HTTP services use TCP via ports 25, 20/21, and 80, respectively.
39.
Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose three)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Buffering
C. Windowing
E. Load balancing
Explanation
Data transmission flow control occurs at layer 4 with the help of buffering, windowing and congestion avoidance. Reference: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide, 5th Edition, Todd Lammle, chapter 1, page 17.
40.
Which Layer 4 protocol is used for a Telnet connection between two Certkiller routers?
Correct Answer
D. TCP
Explanation
TCP is a reliable connection-oriented protocol. TCP uses acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control to ensure reliability. Telnet uses TCP port 23.
41.
FTP, Telnet, DNS, and SMTP are all protocols being used in the Certkiller network. Of these, which uses both TCP and UDP ports?
Correct Answer
C. DNS
Explanation
The following port numbers for the protocols listed above are as follows:
FTP: TCP Port 20 and 21 SMTP: TCP Port 25 Telnet: TCP Port 23 DNS: both TCP and UDP Port 53
42.
Certkiller is installing IP phones in a new office. The phones and office computers connect to the same device. To ensure maximum throughout for the phone data sessions, the company needs to make sure that the phone traffic is on a different network from that of the office computer data traffic. What is the best network device to which to directly connect the phones and computers and what technology should be implemented on this device? (Choose two)
Correct Answer(s)
A. VLAN
E. Switch
Explanation
The best network device to directly connect the phones and computers is a switch. A switch allows for the creation of virtual LANs (VLANs) which can separate the phone traffic from the office computer data traffic. By implementing VLANs on the switch, the company can ensure that the phone data sessions have maximum throughput without interfering with the office computer data traffic.
43.
The corporate head office of Certkiller has a teleconferencing system that uses VOIP (voice over IP) technology. This system uses UDP as the transport for the data transmissions. If these UDP datagrams arrive at their destination out of sequence, what will happen?
Correct Answer
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order that they arrive.
Explanation
VOIP systems utilize UDP because it is faster and uses less overhead. In addition, the reliable transport mechanism used in TCP is useless to VOIP because if a packet gets dropped and needs to be resent, it will be already too late. UDP provides a service for applications to exchange messages. Unlike TCP, UDP is connectionless and provides no reliability, no windowing, and no reordering of the received data. However, UDP provides some functions of TCP , such as data transfer, segmentation, and multiplexing using port numbers, and it does so with fewer bytes of overhead and with less processing required. UDP data transfer differs from TCP data transfer in that no reordering or recovery is accomplished. Applications that use UDP are tolerant of lost data, or they have some application mechanism to recover data loss. Reference: CCNA Self-Study CCNA INTRO exam certification Guide (Cisco Press, ISBN 1-58720-094-5) Page 161.
44.
Part of the Certkiller network is shown below:You work as a network technician for Certkiller and are responsible for this network. Based on the diagram shown above, how many collision domains are there?
Correct Answer
D. Two
Explanation
The multi-segment configuration guidelines apply only to a single Ethernet "collision domain." A collision domain is formally defined as a single CSMA/CD network in which there will be a collision if two computers attached to the system transmit at the same time. An Ethernet system composed of a single segment or multiple segments linked with repeaters is a network that functions as a single collision domain.
45.
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. You have been assigned the task of designing a new Certkiller internetwork. The main priority is to achieve the highest reliability available. Certkiller .com is willing to spend more dollars to avoid downtime caused by link failure. Which of the following four designs is to be preferred?
Correct Answer
A. Design Certkiller A
Explanation
A network topology that is set up so that each device is directly connected to every other device on the network. This connection method has built-in redundancy. If one link goes down, the device will transmit via another link. Example: If the partial mesh design is a compromise between the network administrators and managers, then the full mesh design implies that the network administrators won. This design is every Cisco network administrator's picture of perfection over a Frame Relay cloud. It gives every site a direct virtual circuit to every other site, as shown in Figure This design gives maximum redundancy and minimum packet latency (latency describes how long it takes a packet to reach each location).
46.
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. You have been assigned the task of designing a new Certkiller internetwork. The main priority is the achieve the highest reliability available, however not at all costs. Certkiller .com is willing to spend more dollars to avoid downtime caused by link failure. Which of the following four designs would provide some redundancy and increase reliability for all four sites, but would cost less than a fully redundant topology?
Correct Answer
B. Design Certkiller B
Explanation
You can think of the partial mesh Frame Relay design as the compromise between network administrators and cost-saving managers.
47.
You work as a network technician at Certkiller .com. You have been assigned the task of designing a new Certkiller internetwork. The main priority is to minimize the link costs. Certkiller .at the same time wants to ensure the branch offices with direct connectity to the main site. Which of the following four designs is to be preferred?
Correct Answer
C. Design Certkiller C
Explanation
Every network looks for cost efficiency. Redundancy is often sacrificed on the altar of monthly cost. Thus, the hub and spoke Frame Relay network design is one of the more common. In this configuration, you pick a centralized location (most likely, your largest, most connected office) as the "hub" of the network. All other locations are considered "spokes" and have a single virtual circuit connection back to the hub. The major advantage of this configuration is the cost. It offers the cheapest monthly price tag, which cost-cutting corporations enjoy. The disadvantages are beginning to mount against this design, however. The redundancy is sorely lacking. If a single router (the central router) loses connectivity for any reason (if the router crashes, if a trenching company cuts through the line), your entire WAN goes down. The other disadvantage of this design is beginning to eclipse even redundancy. It is the disadvantage of tandem switching. Any time the spoke offices need to reach each other, they must go through the hub office.
48.
A Certkiller network is shown in the exhibit below:The routers in this network are running RIPv2. Which addressing scheme would satisfy the needs of this network yet waste the fewest addresses?
Correct Answer
C. Network 1: 192.168.10.0/26Network 2: 192.168.10.64/27Network 3: 192.168.10.96/28Serial link 1: 192.168.10.112/30Serial link 2: 192.168.10.116/30
Explanation
Required Number of hosts :50 When We use the 26 bits for Network : 11111111.11111111.11111111.11000000 so 62 usable host can be in one network. 50 host for now and remaining hosts address for further growth. Network 2 Required Number of Hosts: 20
When we use the 27 bits for Network: 11111111.11111111.1111111.11100000 so 30 usable hosts can be in one network. Network 3 Required Number of Hosts: 10
When we use the 28 bits for Network: 11111111.11111111.11111111.11110000 so 14 usable hosts can be in one network. Connection between CK1 , CK2 and CK3 is WAN so when you use 30 bits network IP, you will not lose any IP addresses from network since this subnet allows for only 2 host addresses.
49.
The Certkiller network is shown below:A technician is investigating a problem with the network shown above. These symptoms have been observed: 1. All of the user hosts can access the Internet. 2. None of the user hosts can access the server in VLAN9
3. All of the hosts can ping each other. What could cause the symptoms?
Correct Answer
D. Interface Fa0/4 on Certkiller 3 is down.
Explanation
Since all user hosts have access to internet, link to router has to be up. Therefore, router interface (Fa0/1 - believe it is labeled incorrectly on diagram as Fa1/0) must be up. Since all hosts can ping each other, but none can get to VLAN 9 which is through single interface Fa0/4, this interface must be down. Choice A: incorrect, S0/0 must be up if internet access available. Choice B: incorrect, Fa0/1 must be up if internet access (through router) available. Choice C: incorrect, would not prevent access to VLAN9 via other routes (i.e Fa0/7, Fa0/9, Fa0/4) Choice D: correct Choice E: incorrect: Certkiller 2 must be up if internet access (through switch and then router) available Choice F: incorrect: Disabled trunking on link between Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 3 would not prevent access to VLAN9 via other routes
50.
Refer to the graphic shown below:
Correct Answer
D. Picture D
Explanation
From the output shown in this question, we can see that there a numerous different MAC addresses associated with port Fa 0/23. This can only mean that a device with multiple hosts attached to it is plugged into this port, such as a hub or another switch.